Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > FMS Ch. 7 & 8 > Flashcards

FMS Ch. 7 & 8 Flashcards

0
Q

What are the end products of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. lymphocytes (T and B cells)

2. antibodies (immunoglobulins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What works together with innate immunity?

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 3 characteristics of clonal diversity?

A
  1. production of T & B lymphocytes
  2. antigen recognition
  3. lymphocyte specificity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when the antigen is processed and presented to immune cells by APCs

A

Clonal selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the primary lymphoid tissues?

A
  1. thymus (produces T cells)

2. bone marrow (produces B cells))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 secondary lymphoid tissues?

A
  1. adenoid
  2. tonsils
  3. lymph nodes
  4. spleen
  5. peyer patches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

antibodies or T cells produced after either a natural exposure to an antigen or after immunization

A

active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

type of immunity where performed antibodies or T cells are transferred from a donor to a recipient

A

passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is required for a successful immune response?

A

recognition and response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What was originally used to describe proteins found on the surface of lymphocytes?

A

Clusters of differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A molecule that can react with or be recognized by the immune system

A

antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

an antigen that can trigger an immune response

A

immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A molecule that binds and reacts with antibody or lymphocyte receptors

A

antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When lymphocytes with receptors against self-antigens are eliminated

A

central tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

prevents recognition of ourselves by lymphocytes and antibodies as foreign

A

peripheral tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: Cells in transplanted tissue from one individual have a different set of MHC surface antigens than those of recipient

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

antigen-presenting molecules found on APCs and T cells

A

CD1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of CD1 molecules?

A

present lipid antigens (like with mycobacterium or tuberculosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 3 things are antigens directly recognized by?

A
  1. circulating antibodies
  2. antigen receptors on B cells
  3. antigen receptors on T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are antibodies also known as?

A

mmunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are antibodies produced by?

A

plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies?

A 
Ig G
Ig A
Ig M
Ig E
Ig D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is the most common class of antibodies?

A

Ig G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antibody is seen 1st in an immune response?

A

Ig M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many antigen binding sites are typically present on an antibody?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which part of the antibody structure is responsible for biologic function?

A

Crystalline fragment (Fc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which class of antibodies has a pentamer structure?

A

Ig M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which 3 antibody classes are monomers?

A

Ig G
Ig E
Ig D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which Immunoglobulin is synthesized during fetal life?

A

Ig M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transported across the placenta?

A

Ig G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 4 classes of Ig G immunoglobulins?

A

IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which immunoglobulin has a dimer structure stabilized by a J-chain and a “secretory” piece?

A

Ig A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are antibodies present in?

A 
tears
sweat
saliva
mucus
breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is the dominant immunoglobulin in the secretory immune system?

A

Ig A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the classes of Ig A immunoglobins?

A

IgA1

IgA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are IgA1 molecules predominately located?

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where are IgA2 molecules predominantly located?

A

normal body secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the function of the “secretory” piece of the Ig A immunoglobulin?

A

to protect IgAs against enzyme degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is the least concentrated in the circulation?

A

Ig E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which immunoglobulin is a mediator of many common allergic responses?

A

Ig E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: The Fc portions of IgEs are bound to plasma cells

A

False (the Fc portions are bound to Mast cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is a defender against parasites?

A

Ig E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is found only in low concentrations in the blood?

A

Ig D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which immunoglobulin class is located primarily on the surface of developing B lymphocytes?

A

Ig D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F: Ig D’s function as one type of B cell antigen receptor

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where does generation of clonal diversity take place?

A

in the Primary (central) lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the generation of clonal diversity result in?

A

immature but immunocompetent T and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where does the generation of clonal diversity primarily occur?

A

in the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is known as when immunocompetent T and B cells migrate from the primary to the secondary lymphoid organs to await antigens?

A

clonal selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is clonal selection initiated by?

A

an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the final products of clonal selection?

A

plasma cells that produce antibodies
effector cells that help Th, Tc, or Treg
memory B and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the central lymphoid organ of T cell development?

A

thymus

52
Q

Once T cells have matured what happens to them?

A

They are release into the blood and take up residence in the secondary lymph organs

53
Q

What changes occur to T cells during maturation?

A

the development of the T cell receptors and expression of surface molecules

54
Q

What are the 4 steps in the immune response process?

A
  1. antigen processing
  2. clonal selection
  3. mounting a defense against the foreign antigen
  4. production of memory cells
55
Q

cells that “help” the antigen-driven maturation of B and T cells

A

Helper T lymphocytes

56
Q

T/F: Helper T lymphocytes facilitate and magnify the interaction between APCs and immunocompetent lymphocytes.

A

True

57
Q

What are the 3 steps involved in Helper T lymphocyte facilitation between APCs and Immunocompetent lymphocytes?

A
  1. Th interacts through antigen-specific and antigen-independent mechanisms
  2. undergoes differentiation
  3. mature Th interacts with plasma or T-effector cells
58
Q

What is the function of Th1 cells?

A

they provide help in developing cell-mediated immunity

59
Q

What is the function of Th2 cells?

A

they provide help in developing humoral immunity

60
Q

What is the differences between Th1 cells and Th2 cells based on?

A

cytokine production

61
Q

When an immunocompetent B cell encounters an antigen for the first time, B cells with specific BCRs are stimulated to differentiate and proliferate.

A

B-cell Activation

62
Q

What do differentiated B cells become?

A

plasma cells

63
Q

What is the major component of B cell maturation?

A

Antibody class switch

64
Q

T/F: During clonal selection B cells can change class of Antibody

A

True

65
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of a primary immune response?

A
  1. initial exposure
  2. latent period or lag phase (when B-cell differentiation is occurring)
  3. after 5-7 days, an IgM antibody for a specific antigen is detected
  4. an IgG response follows
66
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of a secondary immune response?

A
  1. more rapid than primary
  2. larger amounts of antibody are produced
  3. rapidity is due to the presence of memory cells that do not have to differentiate
  4. IgM is produced in similar quantities to the primary response, but IgG is produced in greater numbers
67
Q

During clonal selection, the ability of B cells to have the option of changing the class of the antibody

A

Class switch

68
Q

T/F: Immunocompetent B cells use Ig G and Ig E as receptors.

A

False (use IgM and IgD)

69
Q

What does the binding of an antigen to a T cell receptor allow?

A

direct killing of foreign or abnormal cells

assistance or activation of other cells

70
Q

Cells that regulate the immune response to avoid attacking “self”

A

T regulatory cells (Treg)

71
Q

What is the degree of antibody protection assessed by?

A

antibody titer

72
Q

How do antibodies neutralize bacteria?

A

the body produces antibodies against the toxins produced by the bacteria not the bacteria itself

73
Q

What are 3 direct functions of antibodies?

A
  1. neutralization
  2. agglutination
  3. precipitation
74
Q

How does opsonization function indirectly as an antibody process?

A

uses complement cascade and macrophages to bind to bacteria and make the susceptible to phagocytosis

75
Q

Type of cells that destroy cancer cells or cells infected with virus

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

76
Q

altered immunologic response to an antigen resulting in disease/damage to the host

A

hypersensitivity

77
Q

deleterious effects of hypersensitivity to environmental (exogenous) antigens

A

allergy

78
Q

disturbance in immunologic tolerance of self-antigens

A

autoimmunity

79
Q

immune reaction to tissues of another individual

A

alloimmunity

80
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE mediated?

A

Type I

81
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is mediated by the immune complex?

A

Type III

82
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is cell mediated?

A

type IV

83
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity involves tissue-specific reactions?

A

Type II

84
Q

what are 8 manifestations that occur in Type I Hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Itching 5. Hypotension
  2. Urticaria 6. Bronchospasm
  3. Conjunctivitis 7. Dysrhythmias
  4. Rhinitis 8. GI cramps & malabsorption
85
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity involves the release of histamine?

A

Type I

86
Q

What does the severity of anaphylaxis depend on?

A

the level of sensitization

87
Q

What are the occurs within minutes after an anaphylaxis exposure?

A
  1. itching
  2. hives
  3. skin erythema
  4. contraction of resp. bronchioles
  5. laryngeal edema resulting in hoarseness
  6. vomiting, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea
  7. laryngeal obstruction
88
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms involved in Type II hypersensitivity?

A
  1. cell is destroyed by antibodies and complement
  2. cells destruction through phagocytosis
  3. soluble antigen may enter the circulation and deposit on tissues
  4. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
  5. causes target cell malfunction
89
Q

T/F: Antigen-antibody complexes are formed in circulation during type III hypersensitivity and are later deposited in vessel walls or extravascular tissues

A

true

90
Q

What are 5 examples of immune complex-mediated diseases?

A
  1. systemic lupus erythematosus
  2. vasculitis
  3. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
  4. acute glomerulonephritis
  5. reactive arthritis
91
Q

T/F: Th1 cells produce cytokines that recruit phagocytes, especially neutrophils

A

False: especially macrophages

92
Q

What are 3 examples of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A
  1. acute graft rejection
  2. skin test for TB
  3. contact allergic reactions
93
Q

When environmental antigens that cause atypical immunologic responses in genetically predisposed individuals

A

allergy

94
Q

Which autoimmune disease is a chronic multi-system inflammatory disease?

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

95
Q

t/f: SLE is more common in males

A

False (females)

96
Q

What are 5 clinical manifestations of SLE?

A
  1. Arthralgias or arthritis (90%)
  2. Vasculitis & rash (70-80%)
  3. Renal disease (40-50%)
  4. Hematologic changes ( 50%)
  5. Cardiovascular disease (30-50%)
97
Q

T/F: Of the 11 common finding of SLE, serial or simultaneous presence of at least 6 indicates SLE.

A

False (only 4 are needed to indicate SLE)

98
Q

When immune system reacts with antigen on the tissue of other genetically dissimilar members of the same species.

A

alloimmunity

99
Q

when fetus expresses parental antigens not found in the mother

A

transient neonatal alloimmunity

100
Q

What is graft transplant rejection classified by?

A

time

101
Q

What are the 3 types of graft rejection?

A
  1. hyperacute
  2. acute
  3. chronic
102
Q

graft rejection that has a cell-mediated response against unmatched HLA antigens

A

Acute graft rejection

103
Q

Describe Hyperacute graft rejection.

A
  1. immediate and rare

2. pre-existing antibody to the antigens of the graft

104
Q

Describe Chronic graft rejection.

A
  1. months or years

2. inflammatory damage to endothelial cells of vessels due to a weak cell-mediated reaction against minor HLA antigens

105
Q

result of impaired function of T cells, B cells, phagocytes and/or complement

A

immunodeficiencies

106
Q

What is the hallmark for immunodeficiencies?

A

recurrent infections often with opportunistic organisms

107
Q

T/F: Type of infection can lead to diagnosis of type of deficiency

A

true

108
Q

What are most primary immunodeficiencies the result of?

A

a single gene defect

109
Q

What are the 5 groups of primary immunodeficiencies?

A
  1. B lymphocyte deficiencies
  2. T lymphocyte deficiencies
  3. combined T & B cell deficiencies
  4. complement defects
  5. phagocyte defects
110
Q

What are 8 causes of secondary deficiencies?

A
  1. normal physiology conditions 5. physical trauma
  2. Psychotic stress 6. medical treatments
  3. dietary insufficiencies 7. infections
  4. malignancies 8. AIDS
111
Q

T/F: immunocompromised individuals are free from risk of graft-vs.-host disease.

A

false (they are at risk)

112
Q

Why is an immunocompromised individual at risk for GVH disease?

A

because the T-cells in the graft are mature and capable of cell-mediated destruction of the tissues within the recipient

113
Q

What are 4 treatments for immunodeficiencies?

A
  1. gamma-globulin therapy
  2. transplantation or transfusion
  3. treatment with soluble immune mediators
  4. gene therapy
114
Q

T/F Neurtrophils are involved in the activation of the adaptive immune system.

A

false (they’re the first)

115
Q

T/F the inflammatory response is the body’s first line of defense.

A

FALSE

116
Q

T/F Opsonization is a process that renders bacteria more susceptible to phagocytosis.

A

TRUE

117
Q

T/F Eosinophils attack parasites.

A

TRUE

118
Q

T/F Several bacteria, such as mycobacterium tuberculosis,a re resistant to killing by granulocytes and can survive inside macrophages.

A

TRUE

119
Q

T/F The main function of NK cells are recognition and elimination of bacteria.

A

FALSE (viruses)

120
Q

T/F Resolution is best defined as the restoration of original structure and physiologic function.

A

TRUE

121
Q

T/F Sebaceous glands secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid.

A

True

122
Q

T/F Perspiration, tears, and saliva contain an enzyme (lysozyme) that attacks the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.

A

TRUE

123
Q

When microorganisms are ingested

A

engulfment

124
Q

when microorganisms are killed and digested

A

destruction

125
Q

process of enhanced recognition and adherence of bacteria by phagocytes

A

opsonization

126
Q

process of lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte

A

fusion

127
Q

an intracellular phagocyte vacuole is formed

A

phagosome

128
Q

What is one purpose of the inflammatory process?

A

prevent infection of the injured tissue

From Flashcardlet (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions