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AnaPhy > Chapter 6 - Skeletal System > Flashcards

Chapter 6 - Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

a tough, ropelike protein that makes cartilage tough

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Collagen

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2
Q

large molecules consisting of many polysaccharides attaching to and encircling core protein

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Proteoglycans

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3
Q

contains collagen and proteoglycans.

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Cartilage

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4
Q

form large aggregates, attract and retain large amounts of water between the polysaccharides.

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Proteoglycans

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5
Q

contains large amounts of collagen fibers, making these structures very tough, like ropes or cables.

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Tendons and ligaments

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6
Q

make the cartilage smooth
and resilient

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Proteoglycans

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7
Q

most of the minerals in bone, in the form of calcium
phosphate crystals

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Hydroxyapatite

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8
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta/ imperfect bone formation, rare disorder caused by any
one of a number of faulty genes that result in either too little collagen formation, or poor quality collagen

CHOICES:
Hydroxyapatite, Collagen, Tendons and ligaments, Proteoglycans, Cartilage, Brittle bone disease

A

Brittle bone disease

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9
Q

longer than they are wide

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Long bones

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10
Q

approximately as wide as they are long; examples are the bones of the wrist and ankle

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Short bones

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11
Q

this shape enhances their function in the movement of appendages.

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Long bones

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12
Q

well-suited to providing a strong barrier around soft organs such as the brain and heart

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Flat bones

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13
Q

include the vertebrae and facial bones, which have shapes that do not fit readily into the other three categories

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Irregular bones

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14
Q

they help transfer force between long bones

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Short bones

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15
Q

have a relatively thin, flattened shape

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Flat bones

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16
Q

these bones tend to have specialized functions, such as providing protection while allowing bending and flexing of certain body regions such as the spine

CHOICES:
Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones

A

Irregular bones

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17
Q

two ends of a bone

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Epiphysis

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18
Q

central shaft of bone

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Diaphysis

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19
Q

covers the ends of the
epiphyses where the bone articulates (joins) with other bones.

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Articular

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20
Q

where the bone grows in length.

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Epiphyseal plate

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21
Q

The large cavity in the diaphysis

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Medullary cavity

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22
Q

when bone growth stops, the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Epiphyseal line

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23
Q

soft tissue that fills the spaces

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Marrow

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24
Q

consists mostly of adipose tissue

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Yellow marrow

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25
Q

consists of blood-forming cells and is the only site of blood formation in adults

CHOICES:
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Articular, Epiphyseal plate, Epiphyseal line, Medullary cavity, Marrow, Yellow marrow, Red marrow

A

Red marrow

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26
Q

__________ have proportionately more red marrow than do adult bones because, as a person ages, red marrow is mostly replaced by yellow marrow.

A

Children’s bones

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27
Q

In adults, red marrow is confined to the bones in the central axis of the body and in the most proximal diaphyses of the limbs. True or False

A

False - epiphyses

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28
Q

the outer surface of bone covered by dense connective tissue

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Periosteum

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29
Q

the surface of the medullary cavity is lined with a thinner connective tissue membrane

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Endosteum

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30
Q

contained by the periosteum and endosteum

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Osteoblasts

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31
Q

osteoblasts when surrounded by matrix, they are referred to as ____________

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

osteocytes

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32
Q

bone-destroying cells

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Osteoclasts

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33
Q

function in the formation of bone, as well as in the repair and remodeling of bone

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Osteoblasts

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34
Q

osteoclasts are also present and contribute to bone repair and remodeling by removing existing bone, called ____________

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

bone reabsorption

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35
Q

bone is formed in thin sheets of extracellular matrix called __________

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Lamellae

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36
Q

osteocytes located between the lamellae within spaces

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Lacunae

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37
Q

gives the osteon the appearance of having tiny cracks within the lamellae

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Canaliculi

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38
Q

mostly solid matrix and cells

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Compact bone

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39
Q

Cell processes extend from the osteocytes across the extracellular matrix of the lamellae within tiny canals called ________

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Canaliculi

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40
Q

consists of a lacy network of bone with many small, marrow-filled spaces

CHOICES:
Periosteum, Endosteum, Osteocytes, Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, bone reabsorption, Lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Spongy bone, Compact bone

A

Spongy bone

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41
Q

Compact bone is also known as the ___________ bone

A

cortical

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42
Q

forms the perimeter of the diaphysis of a long bone and the thinner surfaces of all other bones

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

Compact bone

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43
Q

repeating units of a compact bone

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

osteons

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44
Q

consists of concentric rings of lamellae surrounding a central canal

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

osteons

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45
Q

located in lacunae between the lamellae of each osteon

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

Osteocytes

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46
Q

has a predictable pattern of repeating units

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

Compact bone

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47
Q

Each osteon consists of concentric rings of lamellae surrounding a central canal, or _____________.

CHOICES:
Compact bone, osteons, Osteocytes, Haversian canal

A

Haversian canal

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48
Q

Nutrients leave the blood vessels of the central canals and diffuse to the osteocytes through the canaliculi. Waste products diffuse in the opposite direction. True or False

A

True

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49
Q

Osteocytes are connected to one another by cell processes in canaliculi. True or False

A

True

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50
Q

very porous and is located in the epiphyses of long bones and lines the medullary cavity of long bones.

A

Spongy Bone

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51
Q

Spongy bone consists of delicate interconnecting rods or plates of bone called __________

A

trabeculae

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52
Q

Spongey bone has more bone matrix and more open space than compact bone. True or False

A

False - It has less bone matrix and more open space than compact bone.

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53
Q

It adds strength to a bone without the added weight that would be present if the bone were solid mineralized matrix.

A

trabeculae

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54
Q

Nutrients exit vessels in the marrow and pass by diffusion through canaliculi to the osteocytes of the trabeculae. True or False

A

True

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55
Q

The spaces between the trabeculae are filled with ________

A

marrow

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56
Q

the formation of bone by osteoblasts.

A

Ossification

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57
Q

After an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by a bone matrix, it becomes a mature bone cell or osteoblast. True or False

A

False - osteocytes

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58
Q

In the fetus, bones develop by five processes, each involving the formation of a bone matrix on preexisting connective tissue. True or False

A

False - two

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59
Q

The bone formation that occurs within connective tissue membranes is called ____________

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

intramembranous ossification

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60
Q

bone formation that occurs inside hyaline cartilage is called _____________

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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61
Q

The chondrocytes release matrix vesicles, which initiate the formation of hydroxy- apatite crystals

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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62
Q

occurs primarily in the bones of the skull

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

intramembranous ossification

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63
Q

where the process begins as the trabeculae radiate out from the centers

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

ossification centers

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64
Q

the bones at the base of the skull and most of the remaining skeletal system develop through this process

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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65
Q

Usually, two or more ossification centers exist in each flat skull bone. True or False

A

True

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66
Q

The cartilage models have the general shape of the mature bone and increase its size

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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67
Q

chondrocytes in the center of the model absorb some of the cartilage matrices and enlarge.

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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68
Q

occurs when osteoblasts begin to produce bone within connective tissue membranes

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

intramembranous ossification

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69
Q

As this process is occurring in the center of the cartilage model, blood vessels accumulate in the perichondrium

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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70
Q

The center part of the diaphysis, where bone first begins to appear, is called the _____________

A

primary ossification center

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71
Q

A medullary cavity forms in the center of the diaphysis as osteoclasts remove bone and calcified cartilage, which are replaced by the bone marrow.

CHOICES:
intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification

A

endochondral ossification

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72
Q

appears after the primary ossification center has already appeared

A

secondary ossification centers

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73
Q

occurs by the deposition of new bone lamellae onto the existing bone or other connective tissue.

CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth

A

bone growth

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74
Q

This type of bone growth occurs through endochondral ossification

CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth

A

epiphyseal plate

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75
Q

As osteoblasts deposit new bone matrix on the surface of bones between the periosteum and the existing bone matrix, the bone increases in width, or diameter. This process is called ____________

CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth

A

appositional growth

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76
Q

Growth in the length of a bone, which is the major source of increased height in an individual, occurs in the ____________.

CHOICES:
bone growth, epiphyseal plate, appositional growth

A

epiphyseal plate

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77
Q

The removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts and occurs in all bone

A

Bone remodeling

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78
Q

The shape and composition of bones are constantly changing through bone remodeling. True or False

A

True

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79
Q

A short bone increases in length and diameter as new bone is deposited on the outer surface and growth occurs at the epiphyseal plate. True or False

A

False - long

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80
Q

As the bone diameter increases, the thickness of the compact bone relative to the medullary cavity tends to remain fairly constant. True or False

A

True

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81
Q

Bone remodeling is important to maintain blood calcium levels within normal limits. True or False

A

True

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82
Q

Calcium is removed from bones when blood calcium levels decrease, and it is deposited when dietary calcium is inadequate. True or False

A

False - adequate

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83
Q

Too little bone formation or too much bone removal, as occurs in __________, weakens the bones and makes them susceptible to fracture

A

osteoporosis

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84
Q

blood vessels in the bone are also damaged in a bone fracture. True or False

A

True

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85
Q

___________ after the injury, blood vessels and cells from surrounding tissues begin to invade the clot.

A

Two to three days

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86
Q

The network of fibers and islets of cartilage between the two bone fragments is called a _________

A

callus

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87
Q

Spongy bone formation in the callus is usually complete __________ after the injury.

A

4–6 weeks

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88
Q

occurs when an open wound extends to the site of the fracture or when a fragment of bone protrudes through the skin.

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

open fracture or compound fracture

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89
Q

If the skin is not perforated, the fracture is called a __________

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

closed fracture or simple fracture

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90
Q

If the soft tissues around a closed fracture are damaged, it is called a ___________.

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

complicated fracture

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91
Q

An ____________ does not extend completely across the bone

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

incomplete fracture

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92
Q

a _________ the bone is broken into at least two fragments

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

complete fracture

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93
Q

An incomplete fracture on the convex side of the curve of the bone is a _________.

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

greenstick fracture

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94
Q

___________ are incomplete fractures in which the two sections of bone do not separate; common in the skull.

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

Hairline fracture

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95
Q

a complete fracture in which the bone breaks into more than two pieces—usually two major fragments and a smaller fragment

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

comminuted fracture

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96
Q

one fragment is driven into the spongy portion of the other fragment

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

impacted fracture

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97
Q

run parallel to the length of the bone

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

Linear fractures

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98
Q

at right angles to the length of the bone

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

transverse fracture

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99
Q

take a helical course around the bone

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

Spiral fractures

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100
Q

run obliquely in relation to the length of the bone

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

oblique fractures

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101
Q

have rough, toothed, broken ends

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

Dentate fractures

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102
Q

have breakage lines radiating from a central point

CHOICES:
closed fracture, open fracture, complicated fracture, complete fracture, Hairline fracture, incomplete fracture, greenstick fracture, comminuted fracture, impacted fracture, Linear fractures, Dentate fractures, stellate fractures, transverse fractures, oblique fractures, Spiral fractures

A

stellate fractures

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103
Q

Bone is the major storage site for _________ in the body

A

calcium

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104
Q

Calcium (Ca2+) moves into bone as osteoclasts build new bone and out of bone as osteoblasts break down bone. True or False

A

False - osteoblast, osteoclast

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105
Q

When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity decreases, osteoclasts release calcium from bone into the blood, and blood calcium levels increase. True or False

A

False - osteoclast activity increases

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106
Q

if blood calcium levels are too high, osteoclast activity decreases, osteoblasts remove calcium from the blood to produce new bone, and blood calcium levels decrease. True or False

A

True

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107
Q

PTH and vitamin D are secreted when blood cal- cium levels are too __________

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

low

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108
Q

Calcitonin is secreted when blood calcium levels are too __________.

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

high

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109
Q

PTH works through __________ simultaneous mechanisms to increase blood calcium levels.

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

three

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110
Q

PTH indirectly stimulates ___________ to break down bone, which releases stored calcium into the blood.

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

osteoclasts

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111
Q

PTH stimulates the _________ to take up calcium from the urine and return it to the blood.

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

kidney

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112
Q

PTH stimulates the formation of active vitamin D, which, in turn, promotes increased calcium absorption from the ___________.

CHOICES:
high, low, three, four, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, kidney, small intestine, liver

A

small intestine

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113
Q

Calcitonin works to decrease blood calcium levels by inhibit- ing osteoclast activity. True or False

A

True

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114
Q

a bacterial infection in bone.

A

Osteomyelitis

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115
Q

the causative organism in

Osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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116
Q

___________ bones in the average adult skeleton

A

206

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117
Q

a hole in a bone

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

foramen

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118
Q

If the hole is elongated into a tunnel-like passage through the bone, it is called a canal or a _______

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

meatus

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119
Q

depression in a bone is called a _______

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

fossa

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120
Q

rounded projection on a bone

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

tubercle or tuberosity

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121
Q

a sharp projection from a bone is called a _______

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

process

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122
Q

The smooth, rounded end of a bone, where it forms a joint with another bone, is called a _________

CHOICES:
tubercle or tuberosity, foramen, fossa, process, meatus, condyle

A

condyle

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123
Q

The constricted area between head and body

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Neck

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124
Q

Enlarged (often rounded) end

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Head

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125
Q

Small, flattened articular surface

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Facet

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126
Q

Prominent ridge

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Crest

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127
Q

Enlargement near or above a condyle

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Epicondyle

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128
Q

Large tuberosity found only on proximal femur

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Trochanter

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129
Q

Cleft

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Fissure

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130
Q

Cavity

CHOICES:
Neck, Head, Facet, Crest, Epicondyle, Trochanter, Fissure, Sinus

A

Sinus

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131
Q

Total number of bones in the axial skeleton

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

80

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132
Q

Total number of bones in the appendicular skeleton

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

126

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133
Q

Total number of bones found in the skull

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

22

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134
Q

Total number of bones found in the auditory ausicles

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

6

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135
Q

Total number of bones found in the vertebral column

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

26

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136
Q

Total number of bones found in the thoracic cage

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

25

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137
Q

Total number of bones found in the girdle and upper limb

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

64

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138
Q

Total number of bones found in the girdle and lower limb

CHOICES:
126,136,80,70,22,23,6,26,25,64,62,77

A

62

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139
Q

encloses the cranial cavity, consists of 8 bones, surround and protect the brain

A

braincase or neurocranium

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140
Q

the 14 __________ form the structure of the face

A

facial bones or viscerocranium

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141
Q

__________ of the facial bones are rather solidly connected to form the bulk of the face.

A

13 or Thirteen

142
Q

forms a freely movable joint with the rest of the skullCHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

mandible

143
Q

form a large portion of the side of the head

A

parietal bones and temporal bones

144
Q

parietal bones and temporal bones are joined together by a ___________

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

squamous suture

145
Q

a joint uniting bones of the skull

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

suture

146
Q

Anteriorly, the parietal bone is joined with the ___________

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

frontal bone

147
Q

parietal bones and frontal bone are joined together by a ___________

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

coronal suture

148
Q

Posteriorly, the parietal bone is joined with the ___________

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

occipital bone

149
Q

parietal bones and occipital bone are joined together by a ___________

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

lambdoid suture

150
Q

A prominent feature of the temporal bone is a large opening, the _________, a canal that enables sound waves to reach the eardrum.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

external auditory canal

151
Q

The _______ of the temporal bone can be seen and felt as a prominent projection just posterior to the ear.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

mastoid process

152
Q

a single bone that extends completely across the skull and resembles a butterfly

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

sphenoid bone

153
Q

the cheekbone

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

zygomatic bone

154
Q

consists of joined processes of the temporal and zygomatic bones form a bridge across the side of the face, and provides a major attachment site for a muscle moving the mandible

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

zygomatic arch

155
Q

forms the upper jaw and contains the superior set of teeth

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

maxilla

156
Q

forms the lower jaw and contains the inferior set of teeth

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

mandible

157
Q

cone-shaped fossae, so named because the eyes rotate within them.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

orbits

158
Q

how many bones form the orbits?

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

7 or seven

159
Q

They provide openings through which nerves and blood vessels communicate with the orbit or pass to the face.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

superior and inferior orbital fissures

160
Q

The optic nerve, for the sense of vision, passes from the eye through the _________ and enters the cranial cavity.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

optic foramen

161
Q

passes from the orbit into the nasal cavity

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

nasolacrimal canal

162
Q

It contains a duct that carries tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

nasolacrimal canal

163
Q

A small _________ can be seen in the orbit just above the opening of this canal.

CHOICES:
maxilla, mandible, lacrimal bone, nasolacrimal canal, optic foramen, superior and inferior orbital fissures, orbits, zygomatic arch, zygomatic bone, sphenoid bone, mastoid process, external auditory canal, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, frontal bone, coronal suture, lambdoid suture, suture, squamous suture

A

lacrimal bone

164
Q

What are the seven bones that form the orbit?

A 
Sphenoid
Frontal
Zygomatic
Ethmoid
Lacrimal
Maxilla
Palatine
165
Q

divides the nasal cavity into right and left halves.

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

nasal septum

166
Q

What are the structures that form the nasal septum?

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

Vomer

Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

167
Q

forms the inferior half of the nasal septum

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

Vomer

168
Q

forms the superior half of the nasal septum

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

169
Q

the nasal septum consists of _________ cartilage.

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

hyaline

170
Q

The bridge of the nose is formed by the _________.

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

nasal bones

171
Q

Each of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity has three bony shelves, called the _________

CHOICES:
nasal septum, vomer, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, hyaline, fibrous, elastic, nasal bones, nasal conchae

A

nasal conchae

172
Q

The ________ increase the surface area in the nasal cavity.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

conchae

173
Q

The ________ decrease the weight of the skull and act as resonating chambers during voice production.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

sinuses

174
Q

These air cells open into the middle ear instead of into the nasal cavity.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

mastoid air cells

175
Q

foramina that transmit important nerves to the face.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

foramen rotundum, foramen ovale

176
Q

The bones forming the floor of the cranial cavity

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones

177
Q

A major artery to the menin- ges (the membranes around the brain) passes through the __________.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

foramen spinosum

178
Q

The internal carotid artery passes through the ___________

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

carotid canal

179
Q

internal jugular vein passes through the ___________

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

jugular foramen

180
Q

The large ____________, through which the spinal cord joins the brain, is located in the posterior fossa.

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

foramen magnum

181
Q

The central region of the sphenoid bone is modified into a structure resembling a saddle and contains the pituitary gland

CHOICES:
conchae, sinuses, mastoid air cells, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones, carotid canal, jugular foramen, foramen magnum, sella turcica

A

sella turcica

182
Q

the smooth points of articulation between the skull and the vertebral column, and are located beside the foramen magnum.

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

Occipital condyles

183
Q

The muscles involved in moving the tongue, the hyoid bone, and the pharynx (throat) originate from this process

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

styloid processes

184
Q

where the mandible articulates with the temporal bone, is anterior to the mastoid process.

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

mandibular fossa

185
Q

forms the roof of the mouth, which is also the floor of the nasal cavity.

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

hard palate

186
Q

The anterior two-thirds of the hard palate is formed by the _______, the posterior one-third by the_________ bones.

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

maxillae, palatine

187
Q

the muscular part at the back of the roof of the mouth.

CHOICES:
maxillae, palatine, soft palate, hard palate, mandibular fossa, styloid processes, Occipital condyles

A

soft palate

188
Q

The hard and soft palates separate the nasal cavity and nasopharynx from the mouth, enabling us to chew and breathe at the same time. True or False

A

True

189
Q

an unpaired, U-shaped bone, not part of the skull and has no direct bony attachment to the skull or any other bones.

A

hyoid bone

190
Q

The ____________ has the unique distinction of being the only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone. Also, it provides an attachment for some tongue muscles, and it is an attachment point for important neck muscles that elevate the larynx

A

hyoid bone

191
Q

the central axis of the skeleton, extending from the base of the skull to slightly past the end of the pelvis

A

vertebral column or spine

192
Q

there are _______ bones in cervical vertebrae, _______ thoracic vertebrae, _________ lumbar vertebrae, ______ sacral bone, _______ cocyx bone

A

7, 12, 5, 1, 1

193
Q

cervical region curves ___________

CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly

A

anteriorly

194
Q

the thoracic region curves _________

CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly

A

posteriorly

195
Q

the lumbar region curves _________

CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly

A

anteriorly

196
Q

the sacral and coccygeal regions together curve__________.

CHOICES:
anteriorly, posteriorly

A

posteriorly

197
Q

an abnormal posterior curvature of the spine, mostly in the upper thoracic region, resulting in a hunchback condition.

CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis

A

Kyphosis

198
Q

an abnormal anterior curvature of the spine, mainly in the lumbar region, resulting in a swayback condition.

CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis

A

Lordosis

199
Q

an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.

CHOICES:
Scoliosis, Lordosis, Kyphosis

A

Scoliosis

200
Q

The weight-bearing portion of each vertebra is the ______-

A

body

201
Q

There are two spinous processes posteriorly and one transverse process vertically. True or False

A

False - There is one spinous process posteriorly and two transverse processes laterally.

202
Q

The vertebral bodies are separated by pads of fibrocartilage

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

intervertebral disks

203
Q

The vertebral arch surrounds a large opening called the __________

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

vertebral foramen

204
Q

encloses and protects the spinal cord and protects it from injury

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

vertebral canal

205
Q

Each vertebral arch consists of two ______, which extend from the body to the transverse process of each vertebra,

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

pedicles

206
Q

two ________, which extend from the transverse processes to the spinous process.

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

laminae

207
Q

The ___________ extend laterally from each side of the arch, between the pedicle and lamina, and the spinous process projects dorsally from where the two laminae meet.

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

transverse processes

208
Q

The __________ can be seen and felt as a series of projections down the midline of the back

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

spinous processes

209
Q

Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord through gaps between successive vertebrae, called the _____________.

CHOICES:
pedicles, laminae, transverse processes, spinous processes, intervertebral foramina, vertebral canal, vertebral foramen, intervertebral disks

A

intervertebral foramina

210
Q

The vertebral foramina are formed by notches in the lamina of adjacent vertebrae. True or False

A

False - pedicles

211
Q

Each vertebra has a superior and an inferior _______ where the vertebrae articulate with each other.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

articular process

212
Q

smooth “little face”

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

articular facet

213
Q

first cervical vertebra

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

atlas

214
Q

a considerable amount of rotation occurs at these vertebraCHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

axis

215
Q

responsible for a “yes” motion of the head

A

atlas

216
Q

allows a slight tilting of the head from side to side

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

atlas

217
Q

possess long, thin spinous processes that are directed inferiorly.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

thoracic vertebrae

218
Q

large, thick bodies and heavy, rectangular transverse and spinous processes.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

lumbar vertebrae

219
Q

carry a large amount of weight

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

lumbar vertebrae

220
Q

Low back pain and other medical ailments are more common in this area than in other regions of the column.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

lumbar vertebrae

221
Q

The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae form the _________.CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

median sacral crest

222
Q

fuses the five sacral vertebrae into a single bone

A

Sacrum

223
Q

often the site of “caudal” anesthetic injections given just before childbirth.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

Sacral hiatus

224
Q

a landmark that can be felt during a vaginal examination.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

sacral promontory

225
Q

used as a reference point to determine if the pelvic openings are large enough to allow for normal vaginal delivery of a baby.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

sacral promontory

226
Q

do not have the typical structure of most other vertebrae

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

coccyx or tailbone

227
Q

easily fractured when a person falls by sitting down hard on a solid surface or in women during childbirth.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

coccyx

228
Q

consist of extremely reduced vertebral bodies, without the foramina or processes, usually fused into a single bone.

CHOICES:
Sacrum, coccyx, sacral promontory, Sacral hiatus, median sacral crest, lumbar vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, atlas, axis, articular facet, articular process

A

coccyx

229
Q

protects the vital organs within the thorax and prevents the collapse of the thorax during respiration

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

Rib Cage

230
Q

there are _____ pairs of ribs

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

12

231
Q

ribs 1–7, attach directly to the sternum by means of costal cartilages

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

true ribs

232
Q

ribs 8–12, do not attach directly to the sternum

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

false ribs

233
Q

ribs 11 and 12

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

floating ribs

234
Q

the bone that resembles a sword

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

sternum

235
Q

forms the handle of the sternum

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

manubrium

236
Q

forms the blade of the sternum

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

body

237
Q

forms the tip of the sternum

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

xiphoid process

238
Q

a depression called the __________ is located between the ends of the clavicles where they articulate with the sternum.

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

jugular notch

239
Q

an important landmark because it identifies the location of the second rib

CHOICES:
false ribs, sternum, floating ribs, xiphoid process, jugular notch, sternal angle, body, manubrium, true ribs, Rib Cage, 12, 24, 6

A

sternal angle

240
Q

During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is very important to place the hands over the body of the sternum rather than over the xiphoid process. True or False

A

True

241
Q

consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs, as well as the girdles, which attach the limbs to the axial skeleton.

A

appendicular skeleton

242
Q

consists of four bones, two scapulae and two clavicles, which attach the upper limb to the body.

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

pectoral girdle

243
Q

a flat, triangular bone with three large fossae where muscles extending to the arm are attached

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

scapula or shoulder blade

244
Q

where the head of the humerus connects to the scapula.

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

glenoid cavity

245
Q

a projection that extends from the scapular spine to form the point of the shoulder

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

acromion process

246
Q

A ridge, called the _______, runs across the posterior surface of the scapula.

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

spine

247
Q

articulates with the scapula at the acromion process.

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

clavicle

248
Q

the first bone to begin ossification in the fetus but the last to complete ossification

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

clavicle

249
Q

provides for the attachment of arm and chest muscles.

CHOICES:
scapula, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, clavicle, spine, acromion process, pectoral girdle

A

coracoid process

250
Q

the long bone of the upper limb, which extends from the shoulder to the elbow

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

humerus

251
Q

attaches the humerus to the scapula at the glenoid cavity.

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

humeral head

252
Q

Around the edge of the humeral head

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

anatomical neck

253
Q

lateral to the head and the muscles originating on the
scapula attach to these

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle

254
Q

where the deltoid muscle attaches

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

deltoid tuberosity

255
Q

provide attachment sites for forearm muscles

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

Epicondyles

256
Q

found on the medial side (little finger) of the forearm

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

ulna

257
Q

found on the lateral side (thumb) of the forearm

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

radius

258
Q

forms most of the elbow joint

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

trochlear notch

259
Q

point of the elbow

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

olecranon process

260
Q

helps complete the “grip” of the ulna on the distal end of the humerus.

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

coronoid process

261
Q

located on the lateral side of the distal end of the radius

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

Styloid process

262
Q

distal to the radial head where one of the arm muscles, the biceps brachii, attaches

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

Radial tuberosity

263
Q

what are the parts of the radius?

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

Radial tuberosity, styloid process

264
Q

what are the parts of the ulna?

CHOICES:
Radial tuberosity, olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head, radius, ulna, humerus, deltoid tuberosity, epicondyles, Greater tubercle and lesser tubercle, anatomical neck, humeral head

A

olecranon process, trochlear notch, coronoid process, styloid process, ulnar head

265
Q

a relatively short region between the forearm and the hand

A

wrist

266
Q

the wrist is composed of 8 carpal bones. True or False

A

True

267
Q

what are the eight carpal bones of the wrist?

A

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, and Trapezium

268
Q

five ________ are attached to the carpal bones and form the bony framework of the hand

A

metacarpal bones

269
Q

when the bones and ligaments that form the walls of the carpal tunnel do not stretch.

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

270
Q

formed by the ends, or heads, of the five metacarpal bones associated with the thumb and fingers

A

Knuckles

271
Q

The thumb has only two phalanges. True or False

A

True

272
Q

The phalanges of each finger are called proximal, middle, and distal, according to their position in the digit. True or False

A

True

273
Q

the place where the lower limbs attach to the body and formed when the right and left hip bones join each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

pelvic girdle

274
Q

includes the pelvic girdle and the coccyx

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Pelvis

275
Q

the most superior bone used to form the hip

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Ilium

276
Q

The right and left hip bones to join each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly to form a ring of bone called the ________

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

pelvic girdle

277
Q

inferior and posterior for hip bone formation

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Ischium

278
Q

inferior and anterior for hip bone formation

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Pubis

279
Q

can be seen along the superior margin of each ilium

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Iliac crest

280
Q

located at the anterior end of the iliac crest

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Anterior superior iliac spine

281
Q

where the hip bones converge anteriorly

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Pubic symphysis

282
Q

where the pubic symphysis articulate with the sacrum posteriorly

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Sacroiliac joints

283
Q

the socket of the hip joint

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Acetabulum

284
Q

the large hole in each hip bone that is closed off by muscles and other structures

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Obturator foramen

285
Q

formed by the pelvic brim and the sacral promontory

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Pelvic inlet

286
Q

bounded by the ischial spines, the pubic symphysis, and the coccyx

CHOICES:
Pelvis, pelvic girdle, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis, Iliac crest, Anterior superior iliac spine, Pubic symphysis, Sacroiliac joints, Acetabulum, Pelvic inlet, Pelvic outlet

A

Pelvic outlet

287
Q

The female pelvis tends to be broader than males. True or False

A

True

288
Q

Both the inlet and the outlet of the female pelvis are larger than those of the male pelvis, and the subpubic angle is greater in the female. The increased size of these openings helps accommodate the fetus during childbirth. True or False

A

True

289
Q

single bone found in the thigh

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

Femur

290
Q

The ________ of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone.

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

head

291
Q

articulate with the tibia

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

condyles

292
Q

points of ligament attachment

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

Epicondyles

293
Q

break of the femoral neck

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

broken hip

294
Q

can be distinguished from the humerus by its long neck, located between the head and the trochanters

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

Femur

295
Q

points of muscle attachment

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

trochanters

296
Q

located within the major tendon of the anterior thigh muscles and enables the tendon to bend over the knee

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

patella

297
Q

The patella is a uniquely shaped bone, called a ________ bone.

CHOICES:
Femur, condyles, Epicondyles, broken hip, broken thigh, trochanters, patella, sesamoid, flat

A

sesamoid

298
Q

The _______ is the larger of the two and is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.

CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula

A

tibia

299
Q

where the muscles of the anterior thigh attach

CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula

A

tibial tuberosity

300
Q

The fibula does not articulate with the femur, but its head is attached to the proximal end of the tibia. True or False

A

True

301
Q

consists of the distal ends of the tibia and fibula forming a partial socket that articulates with a bone of the talus

CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula

A

ankle

302
Q

prominences which can be seen on each side of the ankle

CHOICES:
tibial tuberosity, tibia, ankle, ankle, Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula

A

Medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of the fibula

303
Q

what are the 7 tarsal bones?

A

Medial, Intermediate, Lateral cuneiforms, Cuboid, Navicular, Talus, and Calcaneus.

304
Q

arranged and numbered in a manner very similar to the metacarpal bones and phalanges of the hand

A

metatarsal bones and phalanges of the foot

305
Q

There are three primary arches in the foot, formed by the positions of the tarsal bones and metatarsal bones, and held in place by ligaments. True or False

A

True

306
Q

commonly named according to the bones or portions of bones that join together

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

joints or articulations

307
Q

In general, fibrous and cartilaginous joints have little or no movement, while synovial joints have considerable movement. True or False

A

True

308
Q

Articulating surfaces of two bones united by fibrous connective tissue. They have no joint cavity and exhibit little or no movement.

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Fibrous joints

309
Q

non movable joints

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

synarthroses

310
Q

slightly movable joints

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

amphiarthroses

311
Q

freely movable joints

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

diarthroses

312
Q

fibrous joints between the bones of the skull

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Sutures

313
Q

In a newborn, some parts of the sutures are quite wide and are called _______

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

fontanels or soft spots

314
Q

Fibrous joints in which the bones are separated by some distance and held together by ligaments. An example is the fibrous membrane connecting most of the distal parts of the radius and ulna.

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Syndesmoses

315
Q

Consist of pegs fitted into sockets and held in place by ligaments. The joint between a tooth and its socket is a sample of it.

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Gomphoses

316
Q

Unite two bones by means of cartilage. Only slight movement can occur at these joints. The connecting cartilage can be either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Cartilaginous Joints

317
Q

Joints containing hyaline cartilage

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

synchondroses

318
Q

joints containing fibrocartilage

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

symphyses

319
Q

Freely movable joints that contain fluid in a cavity surrounding the ends of articulating bones. Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

Synovial Joints

320
Q

In certain synovial joints, the synovial membrane may extend as a pocket, or sac, called a __________

CHOICES:
bursa, synovial joints, symphyses, synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, gomphoses, syndesmoses, sutures, fontanels, fibrous joints, joints, synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

A

bursa

321
Q

gliding joints and consist of two opposed flat surfaces that glide over each
other

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

Plane joints

322
Q

consist of two saddle-shaped articulating surfaces oriented at right angles to each other, joint between the metacarpal bone and the carpal bone (trapezium) of the thumb

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

Saddle joints

323
Q

permit movement in one plane only

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

Hinge joints

324
Q

shock-absorbing fibrocartilage pads

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

menisci

325
Q

restrict movement to rotation around a single axis and consists of a cylindrical bony process that rotates within a ring composed partly of bone and partly of ligament

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

Pivot joints

326
Q

consist of a ball (head) at the end of one bone and a socket in an adjacent bone into which a portion of the ball fits and allows a wide range of movement in almost any direction

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joint

A

Ball-and-socket joints

327
Q

condyloid joints and are elongated ball-and-socket
joint

CHOICES:
Ellipsoid joints, Saddle joints, Plane joints, Hinge joints, Menisci, Pivot joints, Ball-and-socket joints

A

Ellipsoid joints

328
Q

a bending movement that decreases the angle of the joint to bring the articulating bones closer together

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Flexion

329
Q

a straightening movement that increases the angle of the joint to extend the articulating bones

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Extension

330
Q

movement of the foot toward the plantar surface

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Plantar flexion

331
Q

movement of the foot toward the shin

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Dorsiflexion

332
Q

usually defined as extension of a joint beyond 180 degrees and can be a normal movement, such as looking up at the stars, but it can also result in injury

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Hyperextension

333
Q

movement away from the median or midsagittal plane

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Abduction

334
Q

movement toward the median plane

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Adduction

335
Q

when the elbow is flexed, ________ is rotation of the forearm so that the palm is down

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

pronation

336
Q

rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces up

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

supination

337
Q

turning the foot so that the plantar surface (bottom of the foot) faces laterally

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Eversion

338
Q

turning the foot so that the plantar surface faces medially

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Inversion

339
Q

the turning of a structure around its long axis, as in shaking the head “no.”

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Rotation

340
Q

occurs at freely movable joints, such as the shoulder

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Circumduction

341
Q

movement in which a structure, such as the mandible, glides anteriorly

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Protraction

342
Q

structure glides posteriorly

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Retraction

343
Q

movement of a structure in a superior direction

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Elevation

344
Q

movement of a structure in an inferior direction

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Depression

345
Q

movement of a structure to one side

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Excursion

346
Q

a movement unique to the thumb and little finger

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Opposition

347
Q

returns the digits to the anatomical position

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Reposition

348
Q

when the bones of a joint are forcefully pulled apart and the ligaments around the joint are pulled or torn

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Sprain

349
Q

when the bones remain apart after injury to a joint

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Separation

350
Q

when the end of one bone is pulled out of the socket in a ball-and-socket, ellipsoid, or pivot joint

CHOICES:
Flexion, Plantar flexion, Dorsiflexion, Extension, Hyperextension, Elevation, Retraction, Circumduction, Rotation, Inversion, Eversion, Pronation and supination, Adduction, Abduction, Depression, Dislocation, Excursion, Separation, Sprain, Opposition, Reposition

A

Dislocation

AnaPhy (18 decks)

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