Extra Cards from Challenging Questions on EPPP Practice Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Gerstmann’s Syndrome is characterized by:

A

-damage to left (dominant) parietal lobe - dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia, and right-left disorientation.

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2
Q

When do you use a split-plot (mixed) design?

A

When the study has at least one between-groups variable and one within-subjects variable.

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3
Q

An ipsative score indicates:

A

the relative strength of an examinee’s status or performance on the various scales of the test.

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4
Q

When do you use Multiple Discriminant Function Analysis?

A

when multiple predictors will be used to classify individuals into one of three or more criterion groups.

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5
Q

In terms of the serial position effect, define the primacy effect

A

The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory

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6
Q

Jealousy, empathy, and embarassment are among the first self-conscious emotions exhibited by young children. At what age does this occur?

A

18 - 24 months of age

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7
Q

Early studies on in-group preferences found that children typically demonstrate preferences for members of their own ethnic/racial group and gender by about age _______.

A

4 or 5 years old.

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8
Q

The primary goals of George Kelly’s personal construct therapy are to _________

A

Identify and then revise the client’s maladaptive personal constructs so that he/she makes better predictions about events and other people.

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9
Q

Egan and Perry’s (2001) multidimensional model of gender identity consists of five components - membership knowledge, gender typicality, gender contentedness, felt pressure, and:

A

intergroup bias.

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10
Q

According to Piaget, what are Tertiary Circular Reactions? And at What age do they occur?

A

Tertiary circular reactions predominate from ages 12 to 18 months and involve varying an original action on an external object to see what happens.

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11
Q

For simple tasks (e.g., an automated production line), _______ communication networks tend to be more effective.

A

centralized

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12
Q

The Stroop Color-Word Association Test was developed as a:

A

measure of response inhibition.

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13
Q

A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood?

A

agreeableness and conscientiousness

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14
Q

How did Piaget describe Transductive Reasoning? And in what stage did it appear?

A
  • Preoperational Stage
  • It refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick)
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15
Q

The item discrimination index ranges in value from:

A

-1.0 to +1.0

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16
Q

When do you use the Spearman rho correlation?

A

when data on both variables are ranks.

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17
Q

What does higher-order conditioning involve?

A

using a CS as an US in order to establish a CR for a second CS.

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18
Q

What are the Symptoms of the first (early) stage of Alzheimer’s?

A

impaired attention and judgment, anterograde amnesia, and indifference or sadness

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19
Q

Raising the predictor cutoff score _____

A

-decreases the number of true and false positives -increases the number of true and false negatives.

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20
Q

By ___________, children understand that a person’s beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.

A

four to five years of age

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21
Q

Describe the difference (in example language) between Associative Agnosia vs. Apperceptive Agnosia?

A

Associative Agnosia: cannot name a familiar object she sees but may know what it is used for and can copy or match a drawing of the object.

Apperceptive Agnosia: cannot name a familiar object she sees but may recognize it when it is placed in her hand and cannot copy or match a drawing of the object.

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22
Q

A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the _________________

A

selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

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23
Q

What is Anosognosia?

A

Failure to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis)

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24
Q

______ has been identified as a method for reducing biases in testing that contribute to group differences in test scores. Its advocates argue that it is an effective way for reducing __________.

A
  • Banding
  • adverse impact
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25
Q

Conduction aphasia is:

A
  • It is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas
  • involves the inability to repeat what one has just heard and to name familiar objects without a loss of comprehension
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26
Q

A reliability coefficient of .6 accounts for ____ of the variability in test’s true score variability

A

60%

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27
Q

Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) theory of career development was most influenced by the work of:

A

Erikson and Piaget. It views career development as being an aspect of ego identity development and as a process that continues throughout the lifespan.

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28
Q

Semantic memory is ________

A

memory for factual knowledge

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29
Q

When do you use a Randomized Block Design?

A

When at least one of the IVs is a blocking (extraneous) variable, and subjects within each block are randomly assigned to levels of another IV.

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30
Q

As a treatment for alcohol dependence, naltrexone (ReVia) exerts its therapeutic effects by blocking the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol. What are it’s side effects?

A

abdominal cramping, nausea, insomnia, nervousness, and headache

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31
Q

What is ‘fading’ (operant conditioning)?

A

the gradual removal of prompts.

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32
Q

Episodic memory is _______

A

memory for personally experienced events

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33
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of Opiod Withdrawal?

A

dysphoric mood, nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea; pupillary dilation, piloerection, or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; and insomnia.

**Hallucinations and illusions are not characteristic symptoms of this disorder.

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34
Q

Many antipsychotic drugs are believed to exert their therapeutic effects primarily by blocking dopamine receptors (especially D2 receptors) in the brain. An exception is found in which antipsychotic drug? And Why?

A

Clozapine seems to have limited effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects D4 and other dopamine receptors as well as serotonin and glutamate receptors.

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35
Q

Expectancy theory distinguishes between three beliefs that affect motivation, what are they?

A

expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.

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36
Q

In principal component analysis, what is an eigenvalue measuring?

A

the total amount of variability explained by that component

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37
Q

Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by

A

a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.

People with this disorder avoid interpersonal contact because they fear criticism, but they desire intimacy and often fantasize about idealized relationships.

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38
Q

When does auditory localization become first apparent?

A

Some auditory localization is evident soon after birth, but this ability seems to disappear between two and four months of age and then reappears and gradually improves during the first year of life.

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39
Q

In terms of test data and materials, what can you release when the clients signs permission to do so?

A

You can provide test data, but cannot release test material.

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40
Q

A person is exhibiting the actor-observer effect when he/she tends to:

A

view the behavior of others as due to dispositional factors and his/her own behaviors as due to situational factors.

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41
Q

What are the Symptoms of the third (late) stage of Alzheimer’s?

A

apathy, incontinence, and an inability to recognize close relatives and friends

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42
Q

What structural brain abnormalities have been linked with Schizophrenia?

A
  • Enlargement of the lateral and 3rd ventricles - Smaller-than-normal Hippocampus, Amygdala and Globus Pallidus
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43
Q

When using the Premack Principle, a ____________ is used to reinforce a _________ in order to increase the frequency of the ______________.

A

(a) high probability behavior (b) low probability behavior (c) low probability behavior.

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44
Q

What are the symptoms of Akathisia?

A

subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping.

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45
Q

When do you use a multiple regression?

A

when multiple predictors will be used to predict a score on a single criterion.

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46
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Inability to recognize familiar faces

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47
Q

The serial position effect refers to:

A

the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list.

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48
Q

Functional and structural brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to abnormalities in several areas of the brain , specifically within ____________

A

Smaller and lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity in the: -right frontal lobe (especially the prefrontal cortex) -caudate nucleus -globus pallidus (structures of the basal ganglia)

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49
Q

Piaget described moral development in terms of:

A

two stages – heteronomous and autonomous.

  1. Heteronomous: focus on the consequences of an act.
  2. Autonomous: view rules as being socially agreed-upon and alterable when people who are governed by them agree to the change.
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50
Q

Describe the Multiple Hurdle Technique.

A

multiple hurdle technique involves administering selection measures one at a time, with each successive measure (hurdle) being administered only when the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified applicants.

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51
Q

When is the chi-square test used for a single sample?

A

to compare nominal (frequency) data – i.e., the number of observations in each category.

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52
Q

What are the 3 components of Sterberg’s Triarchic Theory of Intelligence?

A

Analytical, Creative, Practical

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53
Q

What type of work rotations are most detrimental and why?

A

Weekly rotations are generally most detrimental because they do not allow resynchronization of circadian rhythms (which slow rotations do) and are long enough to allow for the build up of a sleep deficit (which fast rotations do not do).

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54
Q

Specificity refers to:

A

the correct identification of true negatives

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55
Q

Absence seizures are characterized by: (and what area in the brain do they begin)

A

an altered level of consciousness without significant motor symptoms. Thalamus

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56
Q

________________ is considered more flexible than __________ since it can be used when the data violate some of the assumptions of ___________ (e.g., the assumptions of linearity, normality, and/or homogeneity of variances).

A
  • Logistic regression
  • discriminanant analysis
  • discriminanant analysis
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57
Q

What is the characteristic feature of Korsakoff syndrome?

A

characterized by disproportionate memory deficits relative to other types of cognitive impairment

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58
Q

When do you use a linear regression?

A

when a single predictor will be used to predict or estimate a score on a single criterion.

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59
Q

On a conjunctive task, the group product is:

A

limited by the contribution of the worst-performing member.

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60
Q

When is a t-test for a single sample used?

A

to compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean.

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61
Q

When using the MMPI-2, how do you determine if the client was attempting to ‘fake bad’

A

Elevated F scale score with low L and K scale scores.

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62
Q

Conversion Disorder involves:

A

a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.

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63
Q

What are the negative Sx of Schizophrenia?

A

-Restriction in the range and intensity of emotions -Blunted emotion expression -Anhedonia (decreased ability to experience pleasure) - Asociality (lack of interest in social interactions) - Alogia (Diminished speech output) - Avolition (Restricted initiation of goal-directed behaviour)

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64
Q

According to Hersey and Blanchard, a selling leader is best for:

A

employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.

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65
Q

The selection ratio, base rate, and validity coefficient are used to estimate a test’s ______

A

incremental validity using the Taylor-Russell tables.

66
Q

At what age do babies recognize their own image in the mirror?

A

21 months

67
Q

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome consists of what three stages

A

alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

68
Q

What is Raven’s Progressive Matrices? And what cognitive/intelligence factor was it designed to measure?

A

Nonverbal Measure of Intelligence. Spearman’s ‘g’ factor

69
Q

What is thinning?

A

A reduction in positive reinforcement (e.g., switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule)

70
Q

For sampling and recording behaviour, define the different techniques: - Situational Sampling - Event Recording - Interval Recording - Sequential Analysis

A

Situational sampling is used when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts. Event recording is used primarily to investigate rare events (behaviors) and usually involves counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event Interval recording involves dividing a period of time into equal intervals and recording whether or not the target behavior occurred during each interval. This technique could be easily used to assess time-on-task. Sequential analysis is used to study complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions).

71
Q

When do you use Principle Components Analysis?

A

used to identify the set of variables (components) that accounts for the total variance in a set of test scores.

72
Q

According to Hersey and Blanchard, A participating leader is best for:

A

employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.

73
Q

What are the Symptoms of the second (middle) stage of Alzheimer’s?

A

restlessness and agitation, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and flat or labile mood

74
Q

Multicollinearity occurs when:

A

predictors in a multiple regression equation correlate highly with one another.

75
Q

Social loafing occurs when:

A

a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone.

76
Q

What is Tryptophan?

A

Tryptophan is a precursor of serotonin, and a rapid drop in plasma levels of tryptophan is known to precede a decrease in brain levels of tryptophan and serotonin.

77
Q

What is a characteristic of ALL agnosias?

A

A failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal/intellectual impairment.

78
Q

Blocking occurs when:

A

one stimulus blocks the other from becoming a conditioned stimulus, since the new stimulus is providing redundant information

79
Q

When do you use a point-biserial coefficient?

A

when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.

80
Q

What paradoxical technique involves telling the client not to change

A

Restraining

81
Q

When do you use a Solomon Four-Group Design?

A

used to measure the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.

82
Q

Cyclothymic Disorder requires:

A

fluctuating hypomanic and depressive symptoms for at least one year in children and adolescents.

83
Q

What are the symptoms of Akinesia?

A

involves a slowing or lack of normal motor function

84
Q

One disadvantage of the SSRI’s is that they may _______

A

temporarily exacerbate sleep and anxiety problems.

85
Q

What is Eta used for?

A

a correlation coefficient that is used to estimate the variability of two continuous variables that have a nonlinear relationship.

86
Q

When working with older adults, it is important to remember that _______

A

there is greater variability among older people than younger people on a range of characteristics (physical health, cognitive skills, income, etc.).

87
Q

When is a t-test for correlated samples used?

A

When comparing two means obtained from the same group of participants.

88
Q

There is evidence that the rotating shift has fewer negative consequences when:

A

the rotation is clockwise (morning, afternoon, night) and is either rapid (every three days) or slow (every 3 weeks).

89
Q

When conducting a factor analysis, a researcher would choose an orthogonal (rather than oblique) rotation when:

A

the variables included in the analysis are uncorrelated.

90
Q

Which hormone is responsible for sexual arousal in both men and women?

A

Androgens

91
Q

When do you use a tetrachoric correlation?

A

when both variables are continuous but have been artificially dichotomized.

92
Q

Sensitivity refers to:

A

the correct identification of true positives.

93
Q

In terms of the serial position effect, define the recency effect

A

the ability to recall items in the end of the list due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory.

94
Q

According to Hersey and Blanchard, A telling leader is best for:

A

employees who are low in both ability and motivation.

95
Q

The overjustification hypothesis predicts:

A

providing an extrinsic reward for an activity that is intrinsically motivating will reduce intrinsic motivation. Consequently, when the extrinsic reward is discontinued, interest (and participation) in the activity will decline to a level below the pre-extrinsic reward level.

96
Q

When do you use a Pearson r coefficient?

A

When the test variables are continuous

97
Q

The item difficulty index (p) is calculated by:

A

by dividing the number of individuals who answered the item correctly by the total number of individuals.

98
Q

When using the MMPI-2, how do you determine if the client was attempting to ‘fake good’

A

Low score on F-Scale, with high score on L and K scales

99
Q

What is the coefficient of concordance used for?

A

To provide an estimate of inter-rater reliability for ranked data and three or more raters.

100
Q

When is the One-Way ANOVA used?

A

to compare two or more independent means.

101
Q

A decreased REM latency (earlier onset of REM sleep) is one of several sleep abnormalities associated with _______

A

Major Depressive Disorder

102
Q

Bipolar II disorder is characterized by:

A

a combination of major depressive and hypomanic episodes.

103
Q

French and Raven (1959) distinguished between six bases of social power, what are they and their definitions?

A
  • reward: one person’s ability to compensate another for compliance.
  • coercive: belief that a person can punish others for noncompliance.
  • legitimate: when he/she is accepted as the “boss”
  • referent: when he/she is liked and respected.
  • informational: when he/she has needed information (yet, once the employee has the information, the manager or consultant would no longer have power).
  • expert: when he/she has needed expertise; important for a manager or consultant
104
Q

The auditory part of sensory memory is referred to as _________

A

echoic memory.

105
Q

Incercept Bias (Unfairness) occures when scores on a predictor:

A

consistently underpredict or overpredict the criterion performance of a particular group of examinees.

106
Q

When is a multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) used?

A

To assess the effects of one or more IVs on two or more DVs.

107
Q

Thomas and Chess (goodness-of-fit model) proposed that childhood pathology is related to _____________

A

A lack of fit between the child’s basic temperament and the parents’ behaviour toward the child.

108
Q

What are the four stages of Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model?

A

pre-encounter encounter immersion-emersion internalization.

109
Q

Baltes et al.’s (1999) meta-analysis of research on the compressed (four-day) workweek found that it results in:

A

increases in job satisfaction and supervisor ratings of performance.

110
Q

What is the alternative term for Shaping?

A

successive approximation conditioning

111
Q

According to Piaget, what are Secondary Circular Reactions? And at What age do they occur?

A

Secondary circular reactions predominate from ages 4 to 8 months and are actions involving other people or objects. For example, at this stage, an infant may learn that grabbing a rattle with his/her hand and shaking it produces an interesting noise.

112
Q

What is Heider’s Balance Theory? What is its alternative name?

A

Balance theory is a cognitive consistency theory that predicts that a person is motivated to change an attitude when he/she experiences inconsistencies in attitudes. Balance theory is also known as P-O-X theory, where p is the person, O is another person, and X is the attitude object.

113
Q

Bipolar I Disorder requires the presence of:

A

one or more manic episodes.

114
Q

According to Hersey and Blanchard, A delegating leader is best for:

A

employees who are high in both ability and motivation.

115
Q

For _____ of individuals with Parkinson’s disease who are depressed, the depression preceded the onset of motor and other physical symptoms.

A

20%

116
Q

What is Cronbach’s alpha used for?

A

To provide an estimate of a measure’s internal consistency reliability.

117
Q

On the MMPI-2, higher-than-normal L and K scale scores with a lower-than-normal F scale score has been linked to:

A

parental alienation syndrome

118
Q

The diagnosis of Tourette’s Disorder requires:

A

the presence of at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that have persisted for more than one year and had an onset before 18 years of age.

119
Q

What neurotransmitter/system has been linked to Social Phobias?

A

serotonergic and dopaminergic

120
Q

CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with __________

A

neurocognitive deficits

121
Q

What is the difference between: Proactive and Retroactive Inhibition (interference)?

A

Proactive inhibition occurs when old (previous) learning interferes with the learning or recall of new (subsequent) information. Retroactive inhibition occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information.

122
Q

According to Piaget, what are Primary Circular Reactions? And at What age do they occur?

A

Primary circular reactions predominate from ages 1 to 4 months. They involve simple motor habits that center around the baby’s own body (e.g., thumb sucking).

123
Q

The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for ________

A

simple tasks and for people who are high in need for achievement

124
Q

Squaring the multiple correlation coefficient (R) provides a measure of:

A

shared variability.

125
Q

When do you use a counterbalanced design?

A

When the order of the different levels of the independent variable(s) are applied to different subjects or subgroups of subjects in a different order. **within-subjects design**

126
Q

What is the difference between Anterograde and Retrograde Amnesia?

A

Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall events and experiences that occur after the event that produced the amnesia. Retrograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall events and experiences that occurred before the event that produced the amnesia.

127
Q

What is Deindividuation?

A

the increased tendency to act in antisocial ways when it is possible to do so anonymously.

128
Q

_______ viewed joining and accommodating as necessary initial processes that reduce family members’ resistance to change. (also identify the type of therapy)

A

Minuchin (structural family therapy.)

129
Q

Schizotypal Personality Disorder is characterized by:

A

-a pattern of social and interpersonal deficits -acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships -eccentricities in cognition, perception and behavior. -may express unhappiness with their lack of relationships but don’t pursue friendships because of their discomfort around other people and belief that they are different from others.

130
Q

Describe the concordance rates for Schizophrenia for: - Bio siblings - Fraternal/dizygotic twins - Identical/monozygotic twins - Child of two parents with Schizophrenia

A
  • Bio siblings: 10% - Fraternal/dizygotic twins: 17% - Identical/monozygotic twins: 48% - Child of two parents with Schizophrenia: 46%
131
Q

Compared to Whites, African Americans have ____ rates for outpatient mental health services but ______ rates for public inpatient mental health services (Snowden et. al.)

A
  • lower
  • higher
132
Q

When is an analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) used?

A

to assess the effects of an IV on a DV when the effects of an extraneous variable have been statistically removed.

133
Q

How do you calculate the F-Ratio?

A

MSB is divided by MSW

134
Q

The age at which children understand that death is irreversible and universal varies, depending on certain factors. In general, however, most children achieve this understanding at about ________.

A

ten years of age

135
Q

When conducting a factor analysis, a researcher would choose an oblique (rather than orthogonal) rotation when:

A

An oblique rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are believed to be correlated.

136
Q

EQUATION: The standard error of measurement = __________

A

the standard deviation x the square root of (1 - the reliability coefficient)

137
Q

The Barnum effect predicts that:

A

people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions.

138
Q

Longitudinal research conducted by Strauss and Carpenter (1991) has found that, for patients with Schizophrenia, prognosis with regard to future employment is best predicted by:

A

employment history.

139
Q

The self-serving bias is:

A

the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external events for our failures.

140
Q

What does ‘positioning’ involve?

A

Positioning involves exaggerating the severity of the symptom.

141
Q

Constructional apraxia is characterized by: (and it is caused by damage in what area of the brain?)

A

an inability to copy or draw figures or to arrange blocks in a pattern. parietal lobe (MOST FORMS OF APRAXIA ARE CAUSED FROM DAMAGE HERE)

142
Q

When is the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) used?

A

As an alternative to coefficient alpha when items are scored dichotomously (right or wrong, true/false)

143
Q

What are you typically investigating when using a paired-associate and serial learning task?

A

Verbal Learning

144
Q

How did Piaget Describe Centration?

A
  • a primary limitation of the preoperational stage
  • Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.
145
Q

What is Papez Circuit?

A

A Major pathway in the limbic system, which controls the experience and expression of emotions, and plays a role in the acquisition of new memories.

146
Q

Kochanska’s (1997) research suggests that, during the toddler years, the optimal parental behavior for ensuring the development of conscience in a child depends on the child’s:

A

Level of Fearfulness

147
Q

Describe the Mixed Standard Scale (Blanz & Ghiselli)

A
  • When using the mixed standard scale, three critical incidents representing good, average, and poor performance for several dimensions of job performance are identified.
  • They are then listed in the rating scale in a random order, and the rater indicates, for each incident, whether the rater’s performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the described behavior.
148
Q

To explain the shortcomings of Piaget’s Theory, Neo-Piagetian’s use:

A

Information processing concepts

149
Q

Counterbalanced designs

A

within-subjects designs that help control order or practice effects by administering the levels of the independent variable to different subjects (or groups of subjects) in a different order.

150
Q

Characteristic Sx of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

resting tremor; slowed movement; rigidity; and impaired balance and coordination

151
Q

What are the 4 sources of self-efficacy that Bandura proposed in his Theory of Self-Efficacy?

A
  1. prior accomplishments
  2. observations of others
  3. verbal persuasion
  4. emotional and physiological states.

*Belief that people undertake activities they believe they are capable of performing.

152
Q

A test’s convergent and divergent (discriminant) validity provide information about its:

A

construct validity

153
Q

Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) found that matching therapist and client in terms of race/ethnicity:

A

improves treatment outcomes and reduces premature termination for members of some groups but not for others (inconsistent results, therefore this is the most accurate generalization).

154
Q
  • At what age to children begin to display:
    • Holophrastic Speech
    • Telegraphic Speech
A
  • Holophrastic Speech: 12-18 months
  • Telegraphic Speech: 18-24 months
155
Q
  • At what age to children begin to display:
    • Self-Conscious emotions (empathy, jealousy, embarrassment)
    • Pride, Shame, Guilt
A
  • Self-Conscious emotions (empathy, jealousy, embarrassment): 18-24 months
  • Pride, Shame, Guilt: ~30 months
156
Q

Describe the difference between Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Preventions

A
  • Primary preventions are aimed at reducing the development and incidence of mental disorders.
  • Secondary preventions target individuals who have just begun to exhibit symptoms of a disorder in order to prevent the disorder from becoming more serious.
  • Tertiary preventions are aimed at individuals who have already developed a disorder.
    • Their goal is to reduce the risk for chronicity and relapse and any other problems related to the disorder.
157
Q

Howard et al.’s (1986) phase model proposes that a client’s progress in therapy occurs in three predictable phases. These are:

A

remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation

158
Q

Girls and boys from ______ families are both at _____ risk for _____ than girls and boys from dual-parent families.

A
  1. single-parent
  2. higher
  3. suicide
159
Q

Premack Principle entails

A

reinforcing a low-frequency behavior with a high-frequency behavior or activity.

160
Q

WAIS-IV Full Scale IQ has a mean of ____and standard deviation of ___

A
  • 100
  • 15