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ATPL Meteorology > Practice Exam Q's > Flashcards

Practice Exam Q's Flashcards

1
Q

If a mature cyclone is moving east in the Southern Hemisphere, the most destructive quadrant is the -

A. South east
B. North east
C. South west
D. North west

A

B. North east

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2
Q

When atmospheric conditions are unstable -

A. The ELR exceeds the DALR but the SALR exceeds the ELR
B. The ELR exceeds the DALR and the SALR
C. The ELR is less than the DALR and the SALR
D. The ELR is less than the DALR but greater than the SALR

A

B. The ELR exceeds the DALR and the SALR

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3
Q

A surface inversion is formed by -

A. Heating of air near the surface by radiation
B. Cooling of air in the upper levels by conduction
C. Heating of air in the upper levels by conduction
D. Cooling of air near the surface by conduction

A

D. Cooling of air near the surface by conduction

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4
Q

The most severe turbulence associated with a thunderstorm is usually encountered -

A. Just below the base of the cloud
B. In the middle part of the storm around the freezing level
C. In the updrafts of the cumulus stage of the storm
D. In the downdrafts of a mature storm

A

B. In the middle part of the storm around the freezing level

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5
Q

A thunderstorm is reported 200nm north east of Darwin at 4am local January 5th

The most likely trigger mechanism of the storm development is -

A. Intense surface heating forming a heat low during the wet season
B. Increased instability due to radiation of heat from tops of existing cumulus clouds
C. Convergence in a trough assisted by a sea breeze
D. Cold stream effect from a cool moist air associated with the south east trade winds

A

B. Increased instability due to radiation of heat from tops of existing cumulus clouds

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6
Q

The cloud type (if any) associated with a low level jet is -

A. Cumulus
B. Lenticular
C. Alto cumulus castellatus
D. None, the sky is usually clear

A

D. None, the sky is usually clear

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7
Q

A ground based inversion is characterised by -

A. Cold temperatures
B. Poor visibility
C. Convection currents at the surface
D. Overcast skies

A

A. Cold temperatures

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8
Q

The minimum surface temperature during a 24hr period normally occurs -

A. Soon after sunrise
B. About 1 hr before sunrise
C. At midnight
D. 2000hrs

A

A. Soon after sunrise

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9
Q

Area QNH is -

A. A reported average QNH updated every hour
B. A forecast QNH updated every 3 hours
C. A forecast QNH issued on the hour and half hour
D. A reported average QNH updated every 3 hours

A

B. A forecast average QNH updated every 3 hours

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10
Q

A feature of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is -

A. Strong up draughts
B. Severe vertical turbulence
C. Downdraughts
D. Formation of the anvil

A

C. Downdraughts

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11
Q

An atmosphere in which the environmental lapse rate is negative is said to be -

A. Conditionally stable
B. Unstable
C. Stable
D. Neutral

A

C. Stable

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12
Q

The cloud type the largest size water droplet is -

A. Stratus
B. Cumulus
C. Stratocumulus
D. Nimbostratus

A

D. Nimbostratus

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13
Q

A subsidence inversion is produced by -

A. Terrestrial radiation
B. Insolation
C. Adiabatic compression
D. Expansion

A

C. Adiabatic compression

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14
Q

The ambient wind at 5000ft AGL in the Southern Hemisphere is northerly at 30kts

The surface wind would be closest to -

A. 330/10
B. 000/10
C. 010/20
D. 030/10

A

D. 030/10

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15
Q

Conditional stability is said to exist when -

A. The ELR is less than the DALR but greater than the SALR
B. The ELR is less than the SALR but greater than the DALR
C. The ELR is greater than both the DALR and the SALR
D. The ELR is less than both the SALR and the DALR

A

A. The ELR is less than the DALR but greater than the SALR

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16
Q

The prerequisites for the formation of a low level jet are -

A. Anticyclonic conditions, a surface inversion and a mountain barrier
B. Cyclonic circulation, a subsidence inversion and a mountain at right angles to the flow
C. Anticyclonic circulation, a subsidence inversion and an unstable upper layer
D. Cyclonic circulation, unstable lower layer and a mountain barrier

A

A. Anticyclonic conditions, a surface inversion and a mountain barrier

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17
Q

Isobars on a mean sea level analysis chart represent lines of equal pressure -

A. At ground surface level
B. Reduced to sea level
C. At a given atmospheric pressure altitude
D. At zero pressure altitude

A

B. Reduced to sea level

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18
Q

When saturated air moves downhill, it’s temperature increases -

A. At a slower rate than dry air because vaporisation requires heat
B. At a slower than dry air because condensation releases heat

A

A. At a slower rate than dry air because vaporisation requires heat

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19
Q

The maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm can be found-

A. Infront of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell
B. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud
C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell
D. On the northern side

A

C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell

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20
Q

Pressure altitude will be equal to true altitude when -

A. Indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
B. Standard atmospheric conditions exist
C. The atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches of Mercury
D. Local QNH is correctly set on the subscale

A

B. Standard atmospheric conditions exist

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21
Q

Clear air turbulence in association with a jet stream is most likely -

A. On the equatorial side
B. Above the level of the jet
C. If the jet is curved
D. With a polar front jet

A

C. If the jet is curved

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22
Q

As part of the general circulation, the winds over SA and southern parts of WA are known as the -

A. South east trades
B. North east trades
C. Mid latitude easterlies
D. Mid latitude westerlies

A

D. Mid latitude westerlies

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23
Q

The temperature inside a cumuloform cloud is -

A. Colder than the environment
B. Warmer than the environment
C. Warmer than environment in low levels but colder in upper levels
D. At same temp as environment

A

B. Warmer than the environment

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24
Q

In lower levels of atmosphere, surface friction causes wind to flow across isobars into a low because surface friction -

A. Decreases pressure gradient force
B. Creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure
C. Decreases wind speed and Coriolis effect
D. Decreases wind speed and increases Coriolis effect

A

C. Decreases wind speed and Coriolis effect

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25
Q

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that -

A. A layer of warmer air exists above
B. Ice pellets at higher alts have changed to rain in warmer air below
C. A climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing
D. A layer of colder air exists above

A

A. A layer of warmer air exists above

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26
Q

If precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight, the temp is -

A. Warm above with colder air below
B. Above freezing at flight altitude
C. Above freezing at higher altitudes
D. Above freezing at lower altitudes

A

B. Above freezing at flight altitude

27
Q

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, the density altitude compared to pressure altitude is -

A. Lower than pressure altitude
B. Impossible to determine
C. Higher than pressure altitude
D. Equal to pressure altitude

A

C. Higher than pressure altitude

28
Q

The condition likely to result in the formation of frost is -

A. Temp of the collecting surface below dew point and dew point below freezing
B. Temp of collecting surface at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture falling
C. Dew collecting on surface and then freezing because surface temp is lower than air temp
D. Temp of the collecting surface at or below freezing and small snowflakes falling

A

A. Temp of the collecting surface below dew point and dew point below freezing

29
Q

After an aircraft passes through a front in to colder air in the Southern Hemisphere the -

A. Wind direction shifts to right
B. Temp/dew point spread decreases
C. Atmospheric pressure increases
D. Atmospheric pressure decreases

A

C. Atmospheric pressure increases

30
Q

A shear thunderstorm is most likely to form -

A. In the tropics
B. At a frontal boundary
C. At an inversion
D. At high latitude

A

B. At a frontal boundary

31
Q

The cloud type commonly associated with an approaching idealised (fast moving) cold front is -

A. Broken Cumulus
B. Nimbostratus
C. Stratus
D. Altostratus

A

A. Broken Cumulus

32
Q

When atmospheric conditions are unstable -

A. The ELR exceeds the DALR but the SALR exceeds to ELR
B. The ELR exceeds the DALR and the SALR
C. The ELR is less than the DALR and the SALR
D. The ELR is less than the DALR but greater than the SALR

A

B. The ELR exceeds the DALR and the SALR

33
Q

The cloudy type with the largest water droplet size is -

A. Stratus
B. Nimbostratus
C. Cumulus
D. Stratocumulus

A

B. Nimbostratus

34
Q

Wind which blows parallel to curved isobars is termed -

A. Isobaric
B. Gradient
C. Geostrophic
D. Coriolis

A

B. Gradient

35
Q

As part of general circulation, the winds over SA and southern WA are known as the -

A. South east trades
B. North east winds
C. Mid latitude easterlies
D. Mid latitude westerlies

A

D. Mid latitude westerlies

36
Q

The primary cause of all changes in the earths weather is -

A. Variations in solar energy at the earths surface
B. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas
C. Changes in air pressure over the earth’s surface
D. Movement of pressure systems from WEST to EAST

A

A. Variations in solar energy at the earths surface

37
Q

A feature associated with a temperature inversion is -

A. air mass thunderstorms
B. An unstable layer of air
C. A stable layer of air
D. Cumuliform cloud

A

C. A stable layer of air

38
Q

In lower levels of the atmosphere, surface friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a LOW because surface friction -

A. Decreases pressure gradient force
B. Creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure
C. Decreases wind speed and Coriolis effect
D. Decreases wind speed and increases Coriolis effect

A

C. Decreases wind speed and Coriolis effect

39
Q

When the ELR is between the DALR and the SALR then -

A. Conditions will be stable for dry air but unstable for saturated air
B. Conditions will be stable for saturated air but unstable for dry air
C. Conditions will be unstable
D. Conditions will be stable

A

A. Conditions will be stable for dry air but unstable for saturated air

40
Q

You are flying in cloud with an OAT of -6c. A build up of ice sufficient to reduce your speed slightly and make a change of level desirable.

The level icing encountered would be reported as -

A. Light
B. Moderate
C. Heavy
D. Severe

A

B. Moderate

41
Q

The condition likely to result in the formation of frost is -

A. Temperature of the collecting surface below the dew point and the dew point also below freezing
B. The temperature of the collecting surface at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture falling
C. Dew collecting on the surface and then freezing because the surface temp is lower than the air temp
D. The temp of the collecting surface at or below freezing and small snowflakes falling

A

A. Temperature of the collecting surface below the dew point and the dew point also below freezing

42
Q

Virga creates instability in the lower troposphere by what means (or mechanism)?

A. Temperature of latent heat to the Earths surface
B. Cooling of the sub-cloud layer
C. Saturation of the sun-cloud layer with water vapour
D. ‘Splitting’ the surface layer within 500hPa

A

B. Cooling of the sub-cloud layer

When the rain drops evaporate, they absorb latent heat to change state. This significantly cools the surrounding air. This air will then sink rapidly creating instability

43
Q

During normal conditions what direction does the trade wind blow between northern Australia and South America?

A. West to east
B. East to west
C. South west to north east
D. North west to south east

A

B. East to west

44
Q

When marked mountain wave activity exists, the rotor zones that are bound to occur are most commonly to be found:

A. Beneath any lenticular (LC) cloud that may form
B. In the troughs of the waves
C. Directly above the wave crests
D. Directly above the mountain range

A

A. Beneath any lenticular (LC) cloud that may form

45
Q

The winds between the ITCZ and the subtropical ridge in the southern hemisphere are the -

A. Southeast trade winds
B. Northwest trade winds
C. Northeast trade winds
D. Southwest trade winds

A

A. Southeast trade winds

46
Q

When should pilots cruise on area QNH?

A. Below 10000ft and within 100nm of departure aerodrome
B. Below 10,000ft and not within 50nm of departure aerodrome
C. Below 10,000ft and not within 100nm of departure aerodrome
D. Below 10,000ft and within 50nm of departure aerodrome

A

C. Below 10,000ft and not within 100nm of departure aerodrome

47
Q

Is the ISA lapse rate conditionally stable or unstable?

A

Conditionally unstable

48
Q

The most commonly observed storm types (convective cells) are classified as the:

A. Single cell, the multi cell and the super cell
B. Ordinary cell, the multi cell and the supercell
C. Ordinary cell, the dual cell and the supercell
D. Single cell, the dual cell and the super cell

A

B. Ordinary cell, the multi cell and the supercell

49
Q

An AIRMET will be issued for the occurrence or expected occurrence of isolated or occasional thunderstorms affecting the layer below __?__ if the thunderstorms have not previously been mentioned in a current forecast

A. FL150
B. FL250
C. 10000ft
D. 5000ft

A

C. 10000ft

50
Q

A thunderstorm formed as a result of the instability of two colliding air masses is known as a:

A. Frontal thunderstorm
B. Orographic thunderstorm
C. Equatorial thunderstorm
D. Air mass thunderstorm

A

A. Frontal thunderstorm

51
Q

In relation to a thunderstorm, hail is more likely to occur

A. Behind the storm in the trailing anvil
B. To the left of the storm in the anvil
C. Ahead of the storm in the forward anvil
D. To the right of the storm in the anvil

A

C. Ahead of the storm in the forward anvil

52
Q

A dry microburst occurs in areas with

A. Weak vertical wind-shear, dry low levels and moist mid levels
B. Weak vertical wind-shear, moist low levels and dry mid levels
C. Strong vertical wind-shear, dry low levels and moist mid levels
D. Strong vertical wind-shear, moist low levels and dry mid levels

A

A. Weak vertical wind-shear, dry low levels and moist mid levels

53
Q

In regards to a thunderstorms lifecycle, the up drafts and down drafts associated with the developing, mature and dissipating stage would be

A. Updraft, downdraft, updraft
B. Updraft, updraft & downdraft, downdraft
C. Updraft, updraft, downdraft
D. Downdraft, updraft & downdraft, downdraft

A

B. Updraft, updraft & downdraft, downdraft

54
Q

A supercell thunderstorm can persist for

A. Over in hour
B. Several hours
C. 30-60 minutes
D. 30-90 minutes

A

B. Several hours

55
Q

Most thunderstorm’s are

A. None of the below
B. Supercells
C. Singe cellular
D. Multicellular

A

D. Multicellular

56
Q

At what latitude does the subtropical jet stream generally preside?

A. 60 degrees south or more
B. 30 degrees south or less
C. 30 degrees south or more
D. 60 degrees south or less

A

B. 30 degrees south or less

57
Q

In the southern hemisphere sub tropical jet streams are at an altitude of

A. 22000ft to 42000ft
B. 25000ft to 41000ft
C. 16000ft to 32000ft
D. 33000ft to 52000ft

A

D. 33000ft to 52000ft

58
Q

The atmospheric region most susceptible to CAT is the altitudes of around

A. 43000 to 59000ft
B. 13000 to 29000ft
C. 33000 to 49000ft
D. 23000 to 39000ft

A

D. 23000 to 39000ft

59
Q

Kelvin-Helmholtz billow cloud

A. May develop in waves in a region of marked vertical windshear
B. Indicates an area of light turbulence
C. Is only ever associated with marked MTW activity
D. Is only ever likely to form within inversions lying in the middle levels of the troposphere

A

A. May develop in waves in a region of marked vertical windshear

60
Q

If the temperatures are colder than ISA, the altimeter will indicate

A. Higher pressures and higher altitude
B. Higher pressures and a lower altitude
C. Lower pressures and a higher altitude
D. Lower pressures and a lower altitudes

A

C. Lower pressures and a higher altitude

61
Q

The minimum surface temperature during a 24 hour period normally occurs -

A. Soon after sunrise
B. About 1 hour before sunrise
C. At midnight
D. 2000hrs

A

A. Soon after sunrise

62
Q

Isobars on a MSL analysis chart represent lines of equal pressure -

A. At ground surface level
B. Reduced to sea level
C. At a given atmospheric pressure altitude
D. At zero pressure altitude

A

B. Reduced to sea level

63
Q

A feature of a quasi-stationary front is -

A. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface
B. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone
C. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather
D. Surface winds tend to flow perpendicular to the frontal zone

A

B. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone

64
Q

The maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm can be found -

A. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the SW wide of the cell
B. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud
C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell
D. On the northern side

A

C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell

ATPL Meteorology (14 decks)

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