O&G Flashcards

1
Q

What does a CTG measure and how?

A
  • Foetal HR using ultrasound

- Uterine contractions by measuring the tension of the maternal abdominal wall

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2
Q

CTG mnemonic - DR C BRAVADO

A
DR – Determine Risk
C – Contractions
BR – Baseline rate
A – Accelerations
V – Variability
D – Decelerations 
O – Overall assessment
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3
Q

Why is an abnormal antenatal CTG more worrying than an abnormal labour CTG?

A

In the antenatal period, the baby is not in a stressful situation, so abnormality will indicate that it is compromised for other reasons

(however, abnormal labouring CTG also needs action)

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4
Q

Why is interpretation of CTG important?

A

Misinterpretation of the CTG can lead to hypoxia and irreversible brain damage

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5
Q

CTG - Define Risk

A

Pregnancies can be considered high risk due to:

  1. Maternal illness – gestational diabetes, hypertension, asthma
  2. Obstetric Complications – multiple gestation, post-date gestation, Previous CS, IUGR, PROM, congenital malformations, oxytocin induction/augmentation of labour, pre-eclampsia.
  3. Other risk factors – absence of prenatal care, smoking, drug abuse.
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6
Q

CTG - Contractions

A

Record the number of contractions present in a 10-minute period

Assess contractions for the following:

  1. Duration: How long do the contractions last?
  2. Intensity: How strong are the contractions (assessed using palpation)?
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7
Q

CTG - Baseline Rate

A

= the mean level of the FHR when this is stable

Normal range = 110 – 160 bpm

Gestational appropriateness – the baseline rate lowers as foetal age advances and the nervous system matures.

Identify foetal tachycardia or bradycardia

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8
Q

What is considered foetal tachycardia?

What are the causes?

A

= a baseline heart rate greater than 160 bpm

Causes of foetal tachycardia include:
•	Maternal tachycardia, dehydration and pyrexia – always suspect intrauterine infection.
•	Foetal hypoxia
•	Chorioamnionitis
•	Hyperthyroidism
•	Foetal or maternal anaemia
•	Foetal tachyarrhythmia
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9
Q

What is considered foetal bradycardia?

When is this normal?

What are more worrying causes?

A

= a baseline heart rate of less than 110 bpm

It is common to have a baseline heart rate of between 100-120 bpm in the following situations:

  • Postdate gestation
  • Occiput posterior or transverse presentations

Severe prolonged bradycardia (more than 3 minutes) indicates severe hypoxia.

Causes of prolonged severe bradycardia include:

  • Prolonged cord compression
  • Cord prolapse
  • Epidural and spinal anaesthesia
  • Maternal seizures
  • Rapid foetal descent
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10
Q

What should be done if severe foetal bradycardia >3 mins?

A

emergency buzzer, requires immediate actions and preparation for delivery to prevent irreversible damage from hypoxia.

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11
Q

CTG - accelerations

A

An abrupt baseline rate increase of 15 beats or more, for 15 secs or more

The presence of 2 or more in a 20-minute period is reassuring

Accelerations occurring alongside uterine contractions is a sign of a healthy foetus.

Accelerations are absent when foetus is sleeping, in chronic hypoxia, drugs and infection

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12
Q

CTG - variations

A

Bandwidth variation of the baselines – excluding accelerations and decelerations

  • Normal – 5-25 bpm (reassuring)
  • Reduced – <5 bpm (non-reassuring)
  • Saltatory (Increased) – >25 bpm – (non-reassuring)
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13
Q

Causes of reduced variability on CTG

A
  • Foetal sleeping (most common cause) – this should last no longer than 40 minutes
  • Foetal acidosis (due to hypoxia) – more likely if late decelerations are also present
  • Foetal tachycardia
  • Drugs – opiates, benzodiazepines, methyldopa and magnesium sulphate
  • Prematurity – variability is reduced at earlier gestation (<28 weeks)
  • Congenital heart abnormalities
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14
Q

CTG - decelerations

A

= an abrupt decrease in the baseline foetal heart rate of greater than 15 bpm for greater than 15 seconds

Can be classified as early, variable or late

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15
Q

Early decelerations on CTG

A

“Baroreceptor Decelerations”

Start when the uterine contraction begins and recover when uterine contraction stops.

Due to increased foetal intracranial pressure causing increased vagal tone.

These are PHYSIOLOGICAL, not pathological.

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16
Q

Variable decelerations on CTG

A

= fall in baseline FHR with a variable recovery phase

Variable in their duration and may not have any relationship to uterine contractions

Most often seen during labour and in patients with reduced amniotic fluid volume

Usually caused by umbilical cord compression

Any accelerations before and after a variable deceleration are known as the SHOULDERS of deceleration.
=> Their presence indicates the foetus is not yet hypoxic and is adapting to the reduced blood flow

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17
Q

Late decelerations on CTG

A

“Chemoreceptor Decelerations”

Begin at the peak of the uterine contraction and recover after the contraction ends.

Indicates there is insufficient blood flow to the uterus and placenta – causing foetal hypoxia and acidosis.

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18
Q

When is a deceleration of FHR considered prolonged?

A

= a deceleration that lasts more than 2 minutes.

If it lasts between 2-3 minutes, it is classed as non-reassuring.

If it lasts longer than 3 minutes, it is immediately classed as abnormal

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19
Q

Sinusoidal CTG pattern

A

smooth, regular, wave-like pattern

rare, but very concerning

associated with high rates of foetal morbidity and mortality

usually indicates one or more of the following:

  • Severe foetal hypoxia
  • Severe foetal anaemia
  • Foetal/maternal haemorrhage
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20
Q

CTG - Overall impression

A

is the overall impression either reassuring, suspicious or abnormal?

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21
Q

What generates the CTG FHR features

A
  1. Autonomic Nervous System – involuntary
    - Generates a baseline
    - Interplay between sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems generates variability.
  2. Somatic Nervous System – voluntary
    - Transient activity causes changes to HR
    - Generates accelerations.
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22
Q

Decelerations in antenatal CTG

A

reflect hypoxic insult – always abnormal in antenatal CTG

  • Poor placental perfusion
  • Maternal complications
  • Acute events – abruption/cord prolapse
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23
Q

What is the rough total weight gained in pregnancy?

A

= ~12 kg.

Most of this in the last 20 weeks

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24
Q

What contributes to weight gain in pregnancy?

A
  • Foetus ~3.5kg,
  • Placenta ~600g,
  • Uterus ~900g,
  • Breasts ~400g,
  • Blood ~1.2kg,
  • Fat ~2.5kg,
  • Extracellular fluid ~2.6kg
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25
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - the uterus

A

Undergoes Hypertrophy and Hyperplasia
=> 50 Grams to 950 Grams

Distension after 20th week
=> Leaves pelvis and enters abdominal cavity.
=> Abdominal content is displaced
=> After 38th week fundus descends to prepare for delivery.

Vessels undergo Hypertrophy and coiling

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26
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - cervix and vagina

A

Softening of cervix

Cervical mucous plug
=> Acts as a “seal” for the uterus – protect from ascending infection

Vagina:

  • Mucosa thickens
  • Increased vaginal discharge
  • Increased blood supply
  • Becomes more elastic in 2nd trimester

Increased infections – e.g. Candidiasis

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27
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - CV changes

A

Increased blood volume

Physiological anaemia – RBCs diluted due to the increase in plasma volume (no change in MCV)

Heart rate increases (normally not beyond 100bpm)

Increased cardiac output = increased HR x increased SV

Decrease in Systemic Vascular Resistance

  • Vasodilatory effect of progesterone
  • 10-15mmHg decrease in both SBP and DBP initially
  • Tends to return to baseline in the 2nd half of pregnancy
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28
Q

What % increase in maternal blood volume is there when pregnancy reaches term?

A

~45-50% increase at term

Plasma increase of 50% and RBC 30%

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29
Q

How much as cardiac output increased by the time a pregnancy reaches term?

A

CO = 30-50% above baseline by term

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30
Q

Normal CVS Signs in Pregnancy

A
Tachycardia, collapsing pulse
Distended neck veins, JVP is normal
Oedema
Displaced, diffuse apex beat
Loud S1 and S3
Systolic ejection murmurs
Ectopics (Atrial and Ventricular)
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31
Q

Abnormal CVS Signs in Pregnancy

A
Apex displaced by 2 cm
Diastolic murmurs
Pan-systolic murmurs
Ejection systolic murmurs that are grade 2/6 or greater
Raised JVP
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32
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - haematological changes

A

Mild pro-thrombotic state created – less chance of bleeding during birth, but increased chance of VTE

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33
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - respiratory changes

A

Increased AP and transverse diameters of thoracic cage

Upward displaced diaphragm (due to enlarging uterus)

Progesterone causes bronchodilation

Increased oxygen demand (due to increased maternal metabolism and foetal demands)

Decrease in:

  • Residual Volume
  • Total lung capacity

Increase in:

  • RR (by 1-2 breaths, tachypnoea is a red flag in pregnancy)
  • Tidal Volume

Slight decrease in PaCO2, increase in PaO2, slight change in pH (respiratory alkalosis)

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34
Q

Why is there a change in PaCO2/PaO2 in pregnancy?

A

This facilitates the transfer of oxygen from mother to foetus and the transfers of carbon dioxide from foetus to mother.

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35
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - renal changes

A

Increased renal blood flow by 75%

Increased GFR

Physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis
=> Predisposes to infection

Physiological proteinuria and oedema

Renin, EP and 1,25 DHCC increase

In the third trimester when the foetus starts to engage in the pelvis, there is an increased frequency of urination and there can be incontinence.

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36
Q

What happens as a result of increased glomerular filtration which occurs in pregnancy?

A

=> Increased creatinine clearance, protein/albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion

=> Serum creatinine and albumin levels fall

=> Proteinuria

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37
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - GI changes

A

Progesterone causes smooth muscle relaxation which slows down GI motility and decreases lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) tone.
=> Constipation and Reflux.

Nausea and vomiting (“morning sickness”)

Haemorrhoids

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38
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - Thyroid changes

A

Beta-HCG causes thyroid stimulation, due to its structural similarity with TSH.
=> Causes a decrease in serum TSH in 1st trimester.

Increased renal clearance and foetal uptake induce a relative deficiency in circulating iodide.

Increased thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)

Increased total T4 and T3 (but normal Free T4 & Free T3)

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39
Q

Importance of maternal thyroid function in pregnancy

A

The foetal thyroid begins concentrating iodine and synthesizing thyroid hormones after 12 weeks of gestation

=> Before this time any thyroid hormones are supplied by maternal reserves, in order to promote the physiological foetal brain development.

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40
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - Adrenal changes

A

Increase in:

  • Corticosteroid-binding globulin, Total and Free cortisol
  • Renin, Angiotensin II, and Aldosterone

No change in:

  • Catecholamine levels
  • Normal diurnal variation of ACTH
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41
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - Pituitary changes

A

Increase in:

  • Gland volume
  • Prolactin Levels
  • Placental GH and Human placental lactogen (hPL)

Undetectable LH and FSH

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42
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - changes in calcium metabolism

A

Increased placental flux of Ca2+ to meet foetal requirements

Increased Ca2+ absorption from gut

Increased DHCC and PTH

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43
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy - skin changes

A

General darkening and glowing

Breast enlargement and preparation for lactation

Montgomery tubercles
=> Sebaceous (oil) glands that appear as small bumps around the dark area of the nipple.

Increased areola pigmentation

Spider naevi

Chloasma of pregnancy

Linea Nigra

Striae Gravidarum

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44
Q

what is Chloasma of pregnancy ?

A

= Hypermelanosis of sun-exposed areas

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45
Q

What is linea nigra?

A

Linear hyperpigmentation that commonly appears on the abdomen

Attributed to increased melanocyte-stimulating hormone made by the placenta

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46
Q

What are the “3 P’s” of normal delivery?

A
  1. Passage (pelvis of the mother) must be adequate in terms of size and shape
  2. Powers (contractions) should be regular and strong
  3. Passenger (foetus) should be in the correct position, well flexed and not too large in relation to the maternal pelvis.
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47
Q

How does the pelvic width vary?

A

Pelvic inlet = widest in its transverse direction.

Mid-cavity = circular

Pelvic outlet = widest in the antero-posterior direction

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48
Q

Importance of the pubic arch in obstetrics

A

important to measure as if it is too narrow then vaginal delivery will be difficult/impossible.

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49
Q

Importance of the sacral promontory in obstetrics

A

Measuring the distance between this and the pubic symphysis is known as the obstetric conjugate and should be ~10cm

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50
Q

Importance of the ischial spine in obstetrics

A

used as a reference point to determine the station of the foetal head (or presenting part)

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51
Q

Foetal skull - anterior fontanelle

A
  • Diamond shaped.
  • Bound by the frontal and parietal bones.
  • The frontal, coronal and sagittal sutures come together at this fontanelle.
  • The anterior fontanelle is the anterior boundary of the vertex of the foetal skull.
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52
Q

Foetal skull - posterior fontanelle

A
  • Triangular in shape.
  • Bound by the occipital and parietal bones.
  • The sagittal and lambdoidal sutures come together at this fontanelle.
  • It is the posterior landmark for the vertex of the foetal skull
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53
Q

What is caput?

What might this indicate?

A

swelling on the scalp of foetus

may suggest labour is obstructed

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54
Q

What is moulding?

What might this indicate?

A

crossing of the foetal parietal bones

may suggest labour is obstructed

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55
Q

Occiput presentation of foetal head

A

classified according to the position of the occitput in relation to the maternal pelvis – e.g. occipto-anterior, occipito-transverse

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56
Q

What part of the foetal skull most commonly presents?

A

the vertex

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57
Q

Brow presentation of foetal head

A

on VE - can very easily feel the orbital ridges above the foetal eyes.

This presentation cannot deliver vaginally unless the foetus extends its head to become a face presentation or flexes to become a vertex presentation

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58
Q

Face presentation of foetal head

A

the position is classified according to the position of the chin (mentum) in relation to the maternal pelvis e.g. mento-anterior, mento-posterior

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59
Q

What is the most favourable position of the foetal head for delivery?

A

Occipitoanterior = most favourable

You can deliver in the occipitoposterior position, but this is more difficult as the diameter of the head in this position is larger.

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60
Q

What are the signs of labour?

A

CONTRACTIONS
Regular, painful uterine contractions – every 2-3 mins, lasting 45-60 seconds.

RUPTURED MEMBRANES
SROM = spontaneous rupture of membranes

DILATED CERVIX
identified on vaginal examination

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61
Q

Reasons for admission when labour is starting

A
  • Established labour (regular contractions)
  • ROM
  • Bleeding
  • Green discharge
  • Mother feels unwell
  • Foetal movements stop
  • Strong urge to push
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62
Q

Reasons for staying at home until labour is fully established

A

to reduce iatrogenic risk/unnecessary interventions

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63
Q

What are the stages of labour

A

Latent phase - dilatation <4cm

1st stage - from established labour to full dilatation

2nd stage - from full dilatation to delivery of the baby

3rd stage - from delivery of baby to separation and delivery of placenta and membranes

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64
Q

What happens in the latent phase of labour?

A

Irregular contractions

Can be short lasting and not as painful

Cervical change, with dilatation <4cm

May stop and start, can last for a number of days

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65
Q

What happens in the 1st stage of labour?

What is the expected progress?

A

Regular, painful contractions (3-4 every 10 mins)

Cervical dilatation 4cm => 10cm

Expected progress – 0.5cm (Primips) or 1cm (Multips) cervical dilatation per hour.

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66
Q

What happens in the 2nd stage of labour?

How long does it last?

A

Passive = no pushing, to allow further descent of the head.

Active = pushing

No longer than 2 hours (primips) or 1 hour (multips) active second stage.

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67
Q

What happens in the 3rd stage of labour?

How long does it last?

A

Delivery of placenta
(meanwhile: cord clamping, skin to skin, neonatal vitamin K, early feeding).

  • Physiological = no drugs
  • Active = IM syntometrine (oxytocin analogue) to induce placental separation.

Normally ~15 mins (no longer than 60 mins if physiological, or 30 minutes if active = retained placenta).

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68
Q

How is cervical dilatation monitored in labour?

What is the expected progression of dilatation?

A

regular vaginal examination every 4 hours (up to 7cm, more frequently after 7cm) to ensure adequate progress.

Progress should be at least:

  • 0.5cm per hour for primps
  • 1cm per hour for multips
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69
Q

Maternal monitoring in labour

A

Low-risk pregnancy – suitable for midwifery-led care.
High-risk pregnancy – requires consultant-led care

All women will have regular observations in labour (every 4 hours) – BP, RR, temperature, urine output

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70
Q

Foetal monitoring in labour

A

FHR is recorded every 15 minutes as part of the basic observations, and also monitored after contractions

=> If low-risk, offer intermittent auscultation of the foetal heart
=> If high-risk, offer continuous cardiotocograph (CTG).
=> Foetal scalp electrode if needed

Liquor colour – check for meconium

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71
Q

What factors put the foetus at high risk and CTG should be offered?

A
Foetal growth restriction, 
Reduced movements, 
Maternal medical conditions, 
Smoking, 
etc.
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72
Q

What factors might lead to a CTG being started later in labour?

A

abnormal FHR,
labour >5 hours,
high risk labour,
meconium

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73
Q

What factors when monitoring the foetus in labour might indicate the need for emergency C-section?

A

Bradycardia >3mins = C-section

pH <7.20 or BE

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74
Q

Process of normal birth

A

Head free in maternal abdomen before engagement.

Foetal head flexes and contractions allow descent of foetus.

As the head descends it will undergo INTERNAL ROTATION to occipitoanterior (OA).

As the foetal head is delivered though the pelvic outlet, it will undergo extension.

Once the head has delivered, the foetus undergoes restitution (EXTERNAL ROTATION) where the head realigns with the body.

Delivery of anterior shoulder, followed by posterior shoulder and the rest of the baby with the next contraction.

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75
Q

What pain relief options are there in labour?

A

Entonox (gas and air)

TENS

Systemic opioids (Morphine/pethidine)

  • Given IM by midwife/doctor
  • Mild analgesia, fairly rapid onset

Epidural (fentanyl and bupivacaine)

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76
Q

What are the side effects of systemic opioids in labour?

A

N&V, sedation, crosses placenta (respiratory depression in baby)

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77
Q

Where is an epidural injected?

What does this achieve?

A

Injected by anaesthetist into epidural space between L3 and L4.

Achieves complete sensory (except pressure) & partial motor blockade from injection site downwards

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78
Q

What problems are associated with an epidural?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Itching/toxicity
  • Urinary retention (due to reduced sensation)
  • Poor mobility
  • CSF tap (if inserted too far), causes headache
  • Complete spinal analgesia
  • Reduced ability to push.
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79
Q

What are indications for an epidural?

A
  • Long labour
  • Twins
  • Pre-eclampsia (reduces BP)
  • For instrumental delivery/C-section
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80
Q

What are contraindications for an epidural?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Coagulopathy
  • Spinal abnormalities/neurological disease
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81
Q

Bishop’s score

A

indicates likelihood of IOL success

  • High score – cervix favourable, associated with an easier/shorter induction
  • Low score – cervix unfavourable, takes longer and more likely to fail. May end in LSCS
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82
Q

Indications for induction of labour

A
Term +10
Multiples
Pre-eclampsia
Diabetes/GDM
IUGR
PROM = prelabour term ROM
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83
Q

Methods of induction of labour

A

Membrane Sweep – use fingers to separate membranes from cervix/uteris

Prostaglandin E2 gel (Propess) – into posterior vaginal fornix.

Amniotomy (+ oxytocin if no induction after 2 hours)

Oxytocin (following amniotomy OR if membranes are already ruptured)

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84
Q

Complications of IOL

A
  • Slow labour (insufficient uterine activity)
  • Cord prolapse
  • Infection
  • Postpartum haemorrhage
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85
Q

Contraindications to IOL

A
  • Abnormal lie
  • Placenta Praevia
  • Pelvic obstruction
  • Previous C-section(s)
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86
Q

What can cause poor progress in labour?

A
POWER
Dehydration/ketosis
Maternal exhaustion
Epidural/other medication
Overactive uterus
PASSENGER
Twins (or more)
Abnormal presentation (breech/brow)
Abnormal position (OP/OT)
Macrosomia

PASSAGE
Size & shape of pelvis
Pelvis deformities
Cervical abnormalities

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87
Q

What is the most common cause of slow progress in labour?

A

Insufficient uterine activity

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88
Q

Augmentation in Labour

A

If dilation <1cm/hour in active phase:

  1. Amniotomy (AROM) using amniohook.
  2. Oxytocin Drip
  3. C-section – if failed to reach 10cm after 12 hours.

If pushing for >1 hour (multips) or >2 hours (primips) and delivery not imminent:

  1. Assisted Vaginal Delivery
  2. C-section – after 2 failed attempts of assisted delivery.
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89
Q

Indications for assisted vaginal delivery

A
  • Prolonged second stage
  • Acute bradycardia at full dilatation
  • Pathological CTG at full dilatation
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90
Q

What are the pre-requisites for an assisted vaginal delivery?

A
  • Fully dilated
  • > 34 weeks
  • Cephalic presentation
  • Head below the ischial spines
  • Maternal consent gained
  • Adequate analgesia (epidural, spinal or pudendal nerve block)
  • Usually requires episiotomy
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91
Q

Types of assisted vaginal delivery

A

NON-ROTATIONAL - if head in OA position
=> Neville barnes forceps
=> Ventouse

ROTATIONAL - not in OA position
=>Ventouse
=> Manual rotation (using the hand of the assistant) followed by forceps

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92
Q

Complications of C-section delivery

how are these managed?

A
  • Haemorrhage – G&S, XM, transfusion ready
  • Infection – prophylactic Abx
  • VTE – Prophylactic thrombolysis + TED stockings
  • Post-op pain and immobility
  • Damage to visceral organs/foetus
  • Cannot drive for 4-6 weeks
  • Future problems due to adhesions and scarring – risk of placenta previa/uterine rupture
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93
Q

Elective C-Section

  • when?
  • why?
A

Usually done at ~39 weeks

Indications: breech, placenta previa, severe IUGR, multiples, diabetes, severe pre-eclampsia

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94
Q

Indications for emergency C-section

A

failure to progress in labour,

foetal distress

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95
Q

Benefits of C-section

A

Lowers risk of scar rupture if previous C-section
Lowers risk of perineal trauma
Lowers risk of HIE
Can plan delivery date

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96
Q

Disadvantages of C-section

A

Longer recovery
Increased risk of bleeding and infection
Increased chance will need C-Section in future.

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97
Q

Benefits of VBAC

A
  • Quicker recovery
  • No anaesthetic risk
  • Reduced risk of bleeding, infection, VTE
  • Increased chance of normal vaginal delivery in future pregnancies.
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98
Q

Risks of VBAC

A
  • Rupture of previous uterine scar – needs emergency C-section
  • Increased risk of perianal trauma
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99
Q

Problems with repeat C-section

A
  • Increased complications with adhesions

* Increased risk of placenta previa in future pregnancies

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100
Q

Management of VBAC

A

• Consultant-led care

•	Hospital delivery with:
	Continuous CTG monitoring
	Maternal Obs 
	IV access & FBC
	Pool birth not recommended (but can be discussed with consultant)

• Avoid IOL due to increased chance of scar rupture

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101
Q

Presentation of foetus

A

= part of foetus occupying lower section of uterus.

  • Cephalic
  • Breech
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102
Q

Lie of foetus

A

= relationship of foetus to long axis of uterus

  • Longitudinal
  • Transverse

Unstable lie = continually changing position

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103
Q

Causes of Abnormal Lie

A

Preterm labour

Increased room to turn
- Polyhydramnios, high parity (stretched uterus)

Decreased room to turn
- Uterine/foetal abnormalities, multiple pregnancy, oligohydramnios

Prevention of engagement
- Placenta praevia, pelvic tumour

Foetal abnormalities
- IUGR/macrosomia, short cord, hydrocephaly

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104
Q

Management of abnormal lie

A

< 36 weeks - no action needed (may spontaneously turn)

> 37 weeks – admission and USS to exclude polyhydramnios/ placenta praevia

(External Cephalic Version between 36-38 weeks if expert)

Continued abnormal lie to 41 weeks/labour – C-section

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105
Q

Risk factors for breech presentation

A
  • Previous breech presentation
  • Pre-term labour/prematurity
  • RFs for abnormal lie
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106
Q

Complications of breech presentation

A
  • Foetal structural/neurological abnormalities
  • Cord prolapse
  • Late detection of trapped head => foetal hypoxia and death
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107
Q

Management of breech presentation

A
  1. External Cephalic Version (ECV): attempt after 37 weeks, 50% successful
  2. Elective C-Section: advised if ECV failed or contra-indicated.
  3. Vaginal Breech Birth: if patient chooses over C-section
    => Increased risk of foetal compromise and cord prolapse
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108
Q

External Cephalic Version

A

No analgesia, but uterine relaxant (tocolytic)

USS-guided manipulation of foetus with hands on abdomen

CTG-monitoring and Anti-D given immediately after

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109
Q

Contraindications to external cephalic version

A
multiple pregnancy, 
foetal distress, 
recent APH/active PV bleed, 
ruptured membranes, 
uterine abnormality
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110
Q

Risks of external cephalic version

A

bleed, foetal distress, uterine rupture, placental abruption

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111
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

When normal downwards traction fails to deliver the shoulders after the head
=> anterior shoulder caught on pubic symphysis

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112
Q

Risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A
LARGE baby (>4kg)
Previous shoulder dystocia
High maternal BMI
Maternal diabetes
IOL/instrumental delivery
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113
Q

Complications of shoulder dystocia

A

Baby – brain damage, damaged brachial plexus (Erb’s Palsy)

Mum – perineal injury, uterine rupture, PPH

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114
Q

Management of shoulder dystocia

A

= RAPID SKILLED INTERVENTION

  1. McRobert’s Manoeuvre – hyperextend legs + suprapubic pressure
  2. Wood’s Screw manoeuvre – manual internal rotation of shoulders (need episiotomy)
  3. Grasp posterior arm – gently pull down and rotate body as it follows
  4. Last resorts – symphysiotomy, Zavanelli manoeuvre, C-section (often too late for this)
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115
Q

SOAPS skilled intervention in obstetrics

A
  • Senior Midwife
  • Obstetrician
  • Anaesthetist
  • Paediatrician
  • Scribe
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116
Q

Cord prolapse

A

When the cord descends below the presenting part

Felt on VE/pathological CTG signs

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117
Q

Risk factors for cord prolapse

A
  • Preterm labour/low birth weight
  • Breech/OP/abnormal lie
  • Multiples (2nd twin)
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Multiparous
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118
Q

Complications of cord prolapse

A

cord compression/spasm => foetal hypoxia

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119
Q

Management of cord prolapse

A

GET HELP (SOAPS) + Prepare for C-section

  1. Stop cord compression
  2. If cord is outside, keep warm and moist but do not force back inside
  3. Delivery – keep patient on all 4s while prepare for safest delivery
    => C-section usually, but sometimes instrumental.
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120
Q

Uterine Rupture

A

De novo tear OR opening of previous scar

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121
Q

What predisposes to uterine rupture?

A
  • Scarred uterus
  • Neglected obstructed labour
  • Congenital uterine abnormalities
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122
Q

Management of uterine rupture

A
  1. Maternal resuscitation – IV fluids and blood

2. If blood loss too fast – urgent laparotomy to deliver foetus and repair/remove uterus

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123
Q

Amniotic Fluid Embolism

A

Liqour enters maternal circulation, causing anaphylaxis

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124
Q

Risk factors for amniotic fluid embolism

A

Polyhydramnios
Very strong contractions

Typically occurs at ROM, C-section or TOP

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125
Q

Complications of amniotic fluid embolism

A
  • Dyspnoea, hypoxia, hypotension
  • Seizures, cardiac arrest, acute heart failure
  • DIC, pulmonary oedema, respiratory distress

All above can cause death

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126
Q

Management of amniotic fluid embolism

A

Maternal resuscitation – IV fluids, O2, blood and FFP for transfusion

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127
Q

Incidence of twin/triplet pregnancies

A

Twins – 1/80 pregnancies

Triplets – 1/1000 pregnancies

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128
Q

Risk factors for multiple pregnancy

A

Fertility treatments/ovarian hyperstimulation
Increasing maternal age
Higher parity
Genetics

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129
Q

How are Dizygotic Twins formed?

How common is this form?

A

fertilisation of 2 different oocytes by 2 different sperm

80% of twins

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130
Q

How are monozygotic Twins formed?

How common is this form?

A

miotic division of a single oocyte (varies depending on when division occurs)

20% of twins

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131
Q

Different types of monozygotic twin

A

Dichorionic Diamniotic (DC/DA) = 2 placentas, 2 amnions

Monochorionic Diamniotic (MC/DA) = 1 placenta, 2 amnions

Monochorionic Monoamniotic (MC/MA) = 1 placenta, 1 amnion

Incomplete division – conjoined twins

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132
Q

Twin USS - Lambda-sign

A

= triangular appearance to chorion insinuating between the layers of the inter twin membrane

Strongly suggests a dichorionic twin pregnancy

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133
Q

Twin USS - T-sign

A

= absence of lambda-sign

suggests monochorionic twin pregnancy

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134
Q

Maternal complications of multiple pregnancy

A

Gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, anaemia = more common

Spontaneous miscarriage

Preterm labour

Malpresentation of a baby at labour

Prolonged labour

APH/PPH

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135
Q

Foetal complications of multiple pregnancy

A
Increased mortality/stillbirth
Increased chance of handicap
Congenital abnormalities (more common in MC twins)
IUGR (usually one twin is smaller)
IUFD of one foetus
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136
Q

What are some specific complications of Monochorionicity?

A
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion (TRAP)
Selective Foetal Growth Restriction
Co-twin Death
Monoamniotic Twin entangled cords
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137
Q

What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?

What are the outcomes?

A

Occurs in MCDA only.

Unequal blood distribution through anastomoses in placenta

=> Donor twin – volume depletion, anaemia, IUGR, oligohydramnios
=> Recipient twin – volume overload, polycythaemia, cardiac failure, polyhydramnios

Outcomes:

  • Severe pre-term delivery
  • IUFD
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138
Q

what is Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion (TRAP) ?

A

Foetal blood systems connected

One twin (pump) = normal

Other twin (acardiac) = abnormal/missing heart and upper limbs

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139
Q

Selective Foetal Growth Restriction of twins

A

Due to superficial artery-artery anastomoses
Intermittently absent or reversed blood flow to 1 twin
Can cause sudden IUFD

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140
Q

Co-twin Death

A

Death of one twin causes acute transfusion of blood

Results in hypovolaemia => death/neurological damage in surviving twin

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141
Q

Antenatal management of multiple pregnancy

A

= Consultant-led as high-risk.

  • Early USS to determine chorionicity
  • Regular USS checks for IUGR
  • Selective Reduction
  • Birth plan/method of delivery discussed
  • Education patient on signs of preterm labour and complications
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142
Q

Selective reduction in multiple pregnancy

A

Discussed at 12 weeks if triplets or more.

Reduces chance of preterm delivery and associated foetal death/handicap

Intra-cardiac injection of potassium chloride to leave behind only 2 foetuses

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143
Q

How often are USS checks for twins to check for IUGR?

A

DC twins – every 4 weeks from 28/40

MC twins – every 2 weeks from 12/40

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144
Q

Delivery management of multiple pregnancy

A

Timing:
=> DC twins = 37 weeks
=> MC twins = 36 weeks

Hospital delivery
=> Consultant, 2x midwives (1 senior), paediatrician

Continuous CTG
Epidural recommended

Mode of delivery!

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145
Q

Mode of delivery of twins

A

C-section commonly used for any multiple pregnancies (vaginal delivery has more risk for 2nd twin).

NVD = only viable if 1st twin is cephalic presentation

Foetal distress – speed delivery with ventouse or breech extraction.

After 1st twin is born, check lie of 2nd twin (2nd baby may need C-section)

Active 3rd Stage due to high risk of PPH

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146
Q

What are absolute indications for C-section in multiple pregnancy?

A
  • Malpresentation of 1st twin
  • Hx of antepartum complications
  • Triplets or more
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147
Q

When is the antenatal booking visit?

A

As early as possible in the pregnancy (before 10 weeks)

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148
Q

What happens at the antenatal booking visit?

A

Risk assessment

Full Hx taken from the patient by the midwife

Relevant examinations

Routine investigations

Discuss screening and give information

Arrange Dating Scan

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149
Q

What points are important in the booking visit history?

A

Past obstetric Hx/disorders

Gynaecological Hx – e.g. recurrent miscarriage, uterine surgery

Medical conditions increasing the risk of problems (including psychiatric disorders)

DHx – stop if contraindicated in pregnancy, vits/folate

SHx – smoking, alcohol, illicit drugs, housing/support, safe at home?

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150
Q

What examinations are relevant at the booking visit?

A

BMI (low or high?)
BP
Urine dip (glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites)

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151
Q

Dating Scan

A

Between 11-13 +6weeks

Check gestation, detect multiple pregnancies

Screen for trisomies (13, 18, 21)

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152
Q

What routine investigations are done at the booking visit?

A

Blood screen – FBC, blood group & Anti-D antibodies, glucose tolerance, syphilis, rubella immunity, HIV & Hep B, Hb electrophoresis.

Other tests – infection screening (e.g. chlamydia), urinalysis, urine MC&S

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153
Q

When do the regular antenatal visits occur?

A

16-28 weeks – monthly

28-36 weeks – fortnightly

36 weeks onwards – weekly

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154
Q

What occurs at the regular antenatal visits?

A

History:

  • Brief review
  • Physical and mental health check up
  • Foetal movements

Examination:

  • BP & urinalysis
  • Pregnant abdo exam – FHR, lie and presentation
  • Symphysio-fundal Height
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155
Q

What occurs at the 28-week antenatal visit?

A

BP + urine dip
SFH measured
FBC & antibodies checked

OGTT if indicated (e.g. raised BMI, glycosuria)

Anti-D given if rhesus negative

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156
Q

What occurs at the 34, 36, 38, 40 Weeks antenatal visits?

A

BP + urine dip
SFH measured
Foetal lie and presentation checked

Info given on birth plan and labour
Info give on caring for newborn, etc.

USS – Presentation and Placental location

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157
Q

What occurs at the 41-week antenatal visit?

A
Offer membrane sweep
Discuss IOL (offered at 42 weeks)
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158
Q

Antenatal lifestyle advice

A

Well-balanced diet, approx.. 2500 kcal.

Avoid unpasteurised milk, soft cheese etc. (risk of salmonella, listeria, toxoplasmosis)

Avoid alcohol (especially in first 12 weeks)
Avoid smoking

Exercise – avoid contact sports but swimming, etc. is advised.

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159
Q

Antenatal medication advice

A

Avoid in first trimester if possible

Folic acid supplementation – 400mcg/day until week 12

VitD supplementation – 10mcg/day if BMI >30 / low sun exposure

Iron supplementation – if anaemic

Vaccines – flu and whooping cough

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160
Q

When is 5mg folate indicated in pregnancy?

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Diabetes
  • BMI >30
  • Hx of baby with spina bifida
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161
Q

When do the routine antenatal USS scans occur?

A

12 weeks – dating (gestation and nuchal translucency)

20 weeks – foetal anomaly scan

(+36/38 weeks if low lying placenta at 20 week scan)

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162
Q

Why and when do the antenatal serial growth scans occur?

A

Take place if high risk

4 weekly from 28 weeks – (28, 32, 36 weeks)
2 weekly if monochorionic twins

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163
Q

When can Rhesus sensitisation of Rh -ve mother occur ?

A

Rh -ve mother and Rh +ve foetus can cause the mother to develop IgG antibodies against foetal RBCs

Can occur after previous birth, amniocentesis, APH/vaginal bleeds, miscarriage, TOP, ectopic, trauma (e.g. fall)

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164
Q

How can Rhesus sensitisation be prevented?

A

Give Anti-D at 28-weeks +/- within 72 hours of sensitisation event

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165
Q

Risks of alcohol in pregnancy

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Reduced birth weight/IUGR
  • Intellectual impairment
  • Foetal alcohol syndrome
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166
Q

Foetal alcohol syndrome

A

Small head/eyes, saddle nose, thin lips,

Cerebral palsy, Learning difficulties,
Behaviour/attention problems,
Hearing/vision problems,

Cardiac defects

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167
Q

Risks of Smoking in pregnancy

A
  • Low birth weight/foetal growth restriction
  • Preterm delivery
  • Miscarriage/stillbirth
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168
Q

Risks of illicit drugs in pregnancy

A
  • Low birth weight/foetal growth restriction
  • Preterm delivery
  • Cardiac defects (ecstasy)
  • Sudden infant death syndrome
  • Neonatal withdrawal syndrome (especially opiates and BZDs)
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169
Q

Antenatal blood screening

A

Blood group and Rhesus Status

Antibodies

Haemoglobinopathies
=> Thalassaemia
=> Sickle cell (depending on ethnic background)

Anaemia

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170
Q

Antenatal infection screening

A

Rubella immunity
Syphilis
HIV
Hepatitis B

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171
Q

Foetal congenital abnormalities - screening tests

A

Blood tests
- AFP, b-hCG, PAPP-A, oestriol.

USS:

  • Combined test – nuchal translucency, blood hCG and PAPP-A
  • Triple test (>14 weeks) – AFP, b-hCG, oestriol
  • Foetal anomaly scan at 20 weeks
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172
Q

Foetal congenital abnormalities - what might raised AFP indicate?

A

NTDs
Abdominal Wall defects
Multiple pregancy

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173
Q

Foetal congenital abnormalities - what might low AFP indicate?

A

Down’s (trisomy 21)
Edward’s (trisomy 18)
Maternal DM

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174
Q

What might a large nuchal translucency indicate?

A

= larger risk of structural abnormalities

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175
Q

Foetal congenital abnormalities - non-invasive diagnostic tests

A

Foetal MRI – diagnose intracranial lesions

3D/4D USS – better visualisation of abnormality

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (if IVF)

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176
Q

Foetal congenital abnormalities - invasive diagnostic tests

A

Amniocentesis

Chorionic Villus Sampling

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177
Q

Amniocentesis - process and risks

A
  • 1% risk of miscarriage
  • Removal of amniotic fluid via fine-gauge needle and USS
  • Safest after 15 weeks’ gestation
  • Diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities, infection, inherited disease
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178
Q

Chorionic Villus Sampling

A
  • 1-2% risk of miscarriage
  • Take sample of placental cells via fine gauge needle.
  • Done between 11-13 weeks’ gestation (early enough for TOP)
  • Diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities, inherited disease.
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179
Q

What is the risk of invasive tests for congenital abnormalities?

A

miscarriage, rhesus sensitisation, infection, foetal trauma

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180
Q

What are some chromosomal abnormalities which can be detected ?

A
Down's syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Edward's Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
Turner's Syndrome
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181
Q

Foetal Hydrops

A

excess fluid in 2 or more areas;
(including ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and skin oedema)

can result from rhesus antibodies, chromosomal/structural abnormalities, anaemia

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182
Q

Obstetric Haemorrhage - minor blood loss

A

500 - 1000 mL

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183
Q

Obstetric Haemorrhage - major blood loss

A

> 1000 mL

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184
Q

What is antepartum haemorrhage?

A

= bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks gestation until labour.

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185
Q

Causes of APH

A

COMMON
Undetermined
Placental abruption
Placenta praevia

RARER
Genital tract pathology
Uterine rupture
Vasa praevia

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186
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

When the placenta is totally or partially inserted in the lower uterine segment (<2cm from internal cervical os):

=> Minor – placenta not covering os
=> Major – placenta partially/fully covering os

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187
Q

Risk factors for placenta praevia

A
Twins
High parity
Increased maternal age (>40)
Scarred uterus – previous C-section/surgery, previous placenta praevia
Smoking
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188
Q

Placenta accreta

A

= when the placenta attaches itself too deeply and too firmly into the uterus

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189
Q

Placenta increta

A

placenta accreta, where the placenta attaches itself even more deeply into the muscle wall of uterus

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190
Q

Placenta percreta

A

= when the placenta attaches itself and grows through the uterus, sometimes extending to nearby organs, such as the bladder

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191
Q

Stage I placenta praevia

A

Placenta reaches lower segment but not the internal Os

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192
Q

Stage II placenta praevia

A

Placenta reaches internal os, but does not cover it

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193
Q

Stage III placenta praevia

A

Placenta covers the os before dilatation, but not when dilated

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194
Q

Stage IV placenta praevia

A

Placenta completely covers the os, even when dilated

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195
Q

Symptoms of placenta praevia

A

Intermittent, PAINLESS bleeds (increasing in frequency and intensity)

Abnormal foetal presentation – e.g. breech, transverse lie, foetal head not engaged

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196
Q

What is a cause of PAINLESS bleeding during pregnancy?

A

placenta praevia

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197
Q

What should you not do to examine suspected placenta praevia?

A

AVOID VAGINAL EXAMINATION – can provoke massive bleed

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198
Q

Placenta praevia - investigations

A

TV USS to diagnose

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199
Q

Management of placenta praevia

A

Presentation without bleeding (asymptomatic) – delivery between 36-37 weeks.

Presentation with bleeding – ADMIT and consider late preterm delivery

Delivery:
=> Elective CS (earlier if severe bleeding)
=> If placenta accreta/percreta – Rusch balloon compression/total hysterectomy after C-section to decrease bleeding.

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200
Q

Placental Abruption

A

= part or all of the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery of the foetus.

~1% of pregnancies

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201
Q

Risk factors for placental abruption

A
Hx of placental abruption 
Pre-eclampsia/pre-existing HTN
IUGR
Multiple pregnancy
High parity
Autoimmune
Smoking/cocaine use
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202
Q

Symptoms of placental abruption

A

PAINFUL, dark bleeds (amount does not equal severity)

Tender, contracting uterus

If severe – “woody-hard” uterus, hypotension, tachycardia

Decreased foetal movements
Signs of hypovolaemic shock

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203
Q

Concealed placental abruption

A

Pain without any bleeding

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204
Q

What is a cause of PAINFUL bleeding during pregnancy?

A

Placental abruption

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205
Q

Management of APH

A

ADMIT

  • FBC, clotting screen, XM (4-6 units), U&Es, Kleihauer test (if mum Rh -ve)
  • Hx, including SHx to rule out domestic abuse.
  • A-E Assessment (including urine dipstick)
  • Abdominal examination
  • Speculum/vaginal examination – assess amount of bleeding, cervical appearance

Stabilise the mum before assessing the foetus.
=> CTG for foetal wellbeing

Anticipate PPH
=> Prepare for active 3rd stage to reduce risk

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206
Q

Management of Placental Abruption

A

No foetal distress, >36 weeks – IOL with amniotomy

No foetal distress, <36 weeks – monitor on antenatal ward, steroids if <34 weeks.

Foetal distress = urgent C-section
=> Intra-operative/PP haemorrhage common

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207
Q

Vasa Praevia

A

When foetal blood vessels run in the membranes in front of the presenting part, near the cervix.

When the membranes rupture, the foetal vessels do too, leading to a massive foetal bleed.

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208
Q

Symptoms of vasa praevia

A

Moderate, PAINLESS vaginal bleed when/after membranes rupture (amniotomy or spontaneous)

Severe foetal distress

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209
Q

Management of vasa praevia

A

Urgent C-section (usually too slow to save foetus)

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210
Q

Uterine Rupture as a cause of APH

A

Occasionally rupture occurs before labour in women with scarred/congenitally abnormal uterus.

=>	Signs of hypovolaemia
=>	Sudden onset abdo pain
=>	High foetal presenting part
=>	Uterine contractions may cease
=>	Bleeding (can be concealed)
=>	Haematuria (scar can involve the bladder)
=>	Pathological CTG

= obstetric emergency

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211
Q

APH - Bleeding of Gynaecological Origin

A
  • Cervical carcinoma – suspect if small recurrent/post-coital bleeding
  • Cervical polyps
  • Ectropions
  • Vaginal lacerations
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212
Q

Primary PPH

A

= Loss of >500mL blood within 24 hours of delivery

or >1000mL after C-section

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213
Q

What are the 4T’s as causes of PPH?

A

TONE – uterine atony (90% of PPH)

TRAUMA – vaginal/cervical tears, episiotomy

TISSUE – retained placenta, retained blood clots, placenta accreta

THROMBIN (coagulopathies) – congenital disorders, anticoagulation, DIC, pre-eclampsia

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214
Q

What are the risk factors for uterine atony?

A
prolonged labour, 
grand multiparity, 
fibroids, 
overdistension (multiples, polyhydramnios), 
muscle relaxants
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215
Q

Prevention of PPH

A

Identify high-risk women in antenatal visits

Active management of 3rd stage of labour – Syntometrine for placental delivery

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216
Q

Management of primary PPH

A
  1. GET SENIOR HELP (obstetric emergency)
  2. Resuscitation – O2, XM and FBC
    => Transfuse blood as soon as possible (activate obstetric major haemorrhage call)
    => Catheter to monitor input and output
  3. Identify cause – abdo palpation, VE, examine placenta, USS
  4. Treat cause:
    - Retained placenta – remove manually if bleeding/not delivered in 60 minutes
    - Uterine atony – IV oxytocin/ergometrine to contract uterus; PGF2A if persists
    - Persistent haemorrhage – surgery
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217
Q

Secondary PPH

A

= Excessive blood loss between 24 hours and 12 weeks after delivery.

Caused by endometritis +/- retained placental fragments.

Sometimes can be due to poor healing of a perineal tear

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218
Q

What is the agent of choice in managing PPH?

A

Syntometrine/Syntocinon

=> 5 unit slow IV bolus
=> Sustained effect use with 40u infusion (in 500ml saline)

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219
Q

Side effects of syntometrine

A

Vasodilation (hypotension) and reflex tachycardia

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220
Q

Use of Ergometrine in PPH

A

125mcg-500mcg IV or IM

SEs – Nausea and vomiting, HTN, coronary spasm, ischaemic pain

Contraindicated in hypertensive patients

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221
Q

Surgical management of PPH

A

Treat cause and early transfer to theatre if needed.

No statistical difference among the outcomes of the various available surgical methods

  • Uterine balloon tamponade
  • Compression sutures
  • Arterial ligation
  • Aortic clamping
  • Hysterectomy/Subtotal hysterectomy
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222
Q

Transexamic acid in PPH

A

Effective anti-fibrinolytic;

Consider in cases where blood loss is major and ongoing

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223
Q

The HPG-axis

A

Hypothalamus secretes GnRH

GnRH promotes the release of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary.

LH and FSH travel in the bloodstream to the ovaries. When LH and FSH bind to the ovaries they stimulate the production of oestrogen and inhibin

Increasing levels of oestrogen, progesterone and inhibin have a negative feedback effect on the pituitary and hypothalamus

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224
Q

What is the role of progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

A

Progesterone stimulates the endometrium to become receptive to the implantation of a fertilised ovum

ALSO:
- negative feedback causing decreased LH and FSH (both needed to maintain the corpus luteum)

  • an increase in the woman’s basal body temperature
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225
Q

What is the role of LH in the menstrual cycle?

A

causes the Graafian follicle to change into the corpus luteum, which begins to produce progesterone

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226
Q

What is the role of FSH in the menstrual cycle?

A

Stimulates the development of ovarian follicles at the begining of the menstrual cycle

The follicle most sensitive to FSH becomes the dominant Graafian follicle

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227
Q

How does pregnancy cause the cessation of menstruation?

A

If a woman becomes pregnant oestrogen and progesterone levels cause GnRH, FSH and LH to remain inhibited, thereby causing menstruation to cease

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228
Q

What are the phases of the menstrual cycle?

A
Follicular Phase (day 0-14)
Ovulation (day 14)
Luteal Phase (day 15-28)
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229
Q

Which follicle becomes the dominant one?

A

The one with the most FSH-receptors - becomes the most sensitive to FSH

When inhibin reduces release of FSH, the other follicles die (leaving just the dominant one)

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230
Q

What is the role of oestrogen in the menstrual cycle?

A

The Graafian follicle secretes increasing amounts of oestrogen to cause:

  • endometrial thickening
  • thinning of the cervical mucus to allow easier passage of sperm
  • INHIBITION of LH production by the pituitary gland

Eventually oestrogen surpasses threshold level and STIMULATES LH production, resulting in a spike in LH levels around day 12

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231
Q

LH surge

A

~ day 12 of cycle

oestrogen surpasses threshold level and stimulates LH production

high amounts of LH cause the membrane of the Graafian follicle to become thinner.

Within 24-48 hours of the LH surge, the follicle ruptures releasing a secondary oocyte

The mature ovum is then released into the peritoneal space and is taken into the fallopian tube via fimbriae (finger-like projections)

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232
Q

Luteal Phase - no fertilisation

A

After ovulation, LH and FSH stimulate the remaining Graafian follicle to develop into the corpus luteum.

corpus luteum then begins to produce the hormone progesterone

As the levels of FSH and LH fall, the corpus luteum degenerates.

Degeneration of the corpus luteum results in loss of progesterone production.

The subsequent falling level of progesterone triggers menstruation and the entire cycle begins again

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233
Q

Luteal Phase - fertilisation

A

If an ovum is fertilised it produces hCG which is similar in function to LH.

hCG prevents degeneration of the corpus luteum (resulting in the continued production of progesterone).

Continued production of progesterone prevents menstruation.

The placenta eventually takes over the role of the corpus luteum (from 8 weeks gestation).

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234
Q

Two layers of endometrium

A

Functional layer: this grows thicker in response to oestrogen and is shed during menstruation

Basal layer: this forms the foundation from which the functional layer develops (i.e. it is not shed)

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235
Q

Phases of uterine cycle

A

Proliferative Phase
Secretory Phase
Menstrual Phase

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236
Q

Phases of uterine cycle - Proliferative

A

Driven by the endometrium being exposed to increasing levels of oestrogen

Oestrogen stimulates repair and growth of the functional endometrial layer allowing recovery from the recent menstruation (increasing endometrial thickness, vascularity and the number of secretory glands).

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237
Q

Phases of uterine cycle - Secretory

A

Begins once ovulation has occurred.

This phase is driven by progesterone

Results in the secretion of various substances by the endometrial glands, making the uterus a more welcoming environment for an embryo to implant.

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238
Q

Phases of uterine cycle - Menstrual

A

the corpus luteum degenerates (if no implantation occurs).

The loss of the corpus luteum results in decreased progesterone production.

The decreasing levels of progesterone cause the spiral arteries in the functional endometrium to contract.

The loss of blood supply causes the functional endometrium to become ischaemic and necrotic.

As a result, the functional endometrium is shed and exits through the vagina as menstruation.

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239
Q

Group I ovulation disorders

A

hypogonadotropic, hypogonadal anovulation

~10% of ovulation disorders

  • Hypothalamic/pituitary failure.
  • Low gonadotrophins and oestrogen deficiency
  • E.g. brain surgery, eating disorders/reduced calories.
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240
Q

Group II ovulation disorders

A

normal gonadotrophins, normal oestrogen, problem within the ovary causing anovulation

~85% of women with ovulation disorders

Dysfunction of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis.

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241
Q

Group III ovulation disorders

A

hypergonadotrophic, hypo-oestrogenic anovulation

~5% of ovulation disorders

Caused by ovarian failure

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242
Q

Parameters of “normal” menstrual cycle

A

24-38 days cycle length

≤ 7-9 days difference between shortest to longest cycles

≤ 8 days of bleeding

blood loss that does not interfere with a woman’s physical, social, emotional and/or quality of life.

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243
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding

A

Absent/infrequent/frequent periods

Irregular cycle lengths

IMB, PCB, prolonged duration of bleeding

Heavy or light bleeding (subjective)

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244
Q

Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

A

= excessive menstrual blood loss (MBL) that interferes with the physical, social, emotional and/or material quality of life.

objective criteria of blood loss of >80 mL/cycle

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245
Q

Intermenstrual bleeding (IMB)

A

Bleeding between clearly defined cyclic and predictable menses

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246
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding (PMB)

A

Genital tract bleeding that recurs in a menopausal woman at least one year after cessation of cycles

= RED FLAG

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247
Q

Postcoital bleeding (PCB)

A

Non-menstrual genital tract bleeding immediately (or shortly after) intercourse

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248
Q

Chronic AUB

A

AUB has been present for the majority of the past 6 months

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249
Q

Acute AUB

A

Excessive AUB bleeding that requires immediate intervention to prevent further blood loss.

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250
Q

Amenorrhoea

A

Absence of uterine bleeding

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251
Q

How should Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) be described?

A
  • regularity should be specified as irregular, regular or absent
  • frequency should be specified as frequent, normal or infrequent
  • duration should be specified as prolonged, normal or shortened
  • volume should be specified as heavy, normal or light
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252
Q

Assessment of AUB

A
  1. Exclude pregnancy.
  2. Gynaecological history and examination.
    => Amount and timing of bleeding.
    => Signs of anaemia, palpation of masses, pelvic tenderness
  3. Establish if chronic AUB (>6 months) or acute AUB (urgent intervention required).
  4. Use history to screen for coagulopathy.
  5. Investigations:
    => Full blood count (FBC), cervical smear, pelvic infection swabs and pelvic ultrasound (and coagulation screen if indicated).
    => TV USS – exclude masses/detect polyps
  6. Referral to secondary care if malignancy is suspected.
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253
Q

Coagulopathy Screen for AUB

A

Structured history – positive screen if:

  •  Excessive menstrual bleeding since menarche, or
  •  One of the following:
  • Postpartum haemorrhage,
  • Surgery-related bleeding,
  • Bleeding associated with dental work

• Two or more of the following:

  • Bruising greater than 5 cm once or twice/month,
  • Epistaxis once or twice/month,
  • Frequent gum bleeding,
  • Family history of bleeding symptoms
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254
Q

Gynaecological Red Flags

A

Suspected gynaecological cancer:

  • Post-coital bleeding
  • Post-menopausal bleeding
  • Inter-menstrual bleeding
  • Pelvic mass
  • Cervix lesion
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255
Q

Causes of heavy menstrual bleeding (PALM-COEIN):

A
1.	Structural:
•	Polyp (AUB-P)
•	Adenomyosis (AUB-A)
•	Leiomyoma (AUB-L)
•	Malignancy and Hyperplasia (AUB-M)
2.	Non-structural:
•	Coagulopathy (AUB-C)
•	Ovulatory dysfunction (AUB-O) 
•	Endometrial (AUB-E) 
•	Iatrogenic (AUB-I) 
•	Not yet classified (AUB-N)
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256
Q

Iatrogenic causes of AUB

A

exogenous sex steroid administration (combined oral contraceptives, progestins, tamoxifen),

intrauterine contraceptive device,
traumatic uterine perforation

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257
Q

Coagulopathy as cause of AUB

A

thrombocytopenia,
von Willebrand’s disease,
leukaemia,
warfarin

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258
Q

Ovulatory dysfunction as cause of AUB

A
PCOS, 
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, 
Hypothyroidism, 
Cushing's disease, 
Hyperprolactinaemia
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259
Q

Treatment of HMB - first steps

A

All medical!

1st line - IUS

2nd line tranexamic acid/NSAIDs/COCP

3rd line - progesterones/GnRH

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260
Q

Why is IUS used first-line for treating HMB?

A

High rate of reducing HMB

generates more quality-adjusted life years than other medical treatments (tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, COCP) and at a lower cost

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261
Q

Treatment of HMB - further steps

A

Hysteroscopic/laparoscopic Myomectomy
Endometrial ablation
Resection of endometrium

Abdominal myomectomy
Hysterectomy

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262
Q

How does the Mirena-IUS work?

A

Intrauterine dose of 20 microgram/24 hours with little systemic absorption.

Inhibits endometrial proliferation, thickens cervical mucus and suppresses ovulation

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263
Q

What is the mirena-IUS licensed for?

A

Contraception, HMB, progesterone component of HRT

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264
Q

What are the requirements to be eligible for endometrial ablation?

A

Uterine cavity >10 cm length

No large fibroids/polyps distorting the cavity

No previous endometrial ablation

No active infective process

Myometrium is at least 10 mm if using the microwave ablation

Family is complete!

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265
Q

Why must the family be complete if a woman undergoes endometrial ablation?

A

Low chance of success of achieving pregnancy

If pregnancy achieved, high chance of miscarriage/infiltrating placenta.

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266
Q

Indications for hysterectomy for HMB

A
  • Other treatment options have failed or are inappropriate
  • Women have completed their families
  • There is a wish for amenorrhoea
  • Women (who have been fully counselled) request it or other forms of further treatment are contraindicated.
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267
Q

Types of hysterectomy

A
  1. Abdominal hysterectomy (AH)
  2. Vaginal hysterectomy (VH)
  3. Laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy (LAVH).
  4. Total laparoscopic hysterectomy (TLH)
  5. Subtotal hysterectomy (STH)
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268
Q

Causes of IMB

A
  1. Ovarian: 1-2% ovulation spotting, oestrogen secreting tumours
  2. Uterine: iatrogenic (contraception), infection, structural benign or malignant
  3. Cervical: iatrogenic (examination, smear), infective, structural benign or malignant
  4. Vaginal: infective, structural benign or malignant
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269
Q

Management of IMB

A

Medical:

  • IUS/COCP
  • Progesterones
  • HRT (if irregular bleeding during menopause)

Surgical – same as for HMB, but ablation is less effective.

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270
Q

Dysmenorrhoea

A

= painful periods

High prostaglandin levels cause painful uterine contractions and ischaemia

classified as primary or secondary

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271
Q

Primary dysmenorrhoea

A

Occurs with the start of menstruation

No organic cause

Tx: NSAIDs, COCP

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272
Q

Secondary dysmenorrhoea

A

Precedes and relieved by menstruation

Caused by pelvic pathology
=> fibroids, adenomyosis, endometriosis, PID, malignancy

Ix – pelvic USS, hysteroscopy

Tx depends on cause

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273
Q

Post-coital bleeding

A

= Vaginal bleeding after intercourse that is not menstrual loss.

Always abnormal (unless 1st intercourse)

ALWAYS exclude cervical cancer

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274
Q

Causes of post-coital bleeding

A

Cervical carcinoma – MUST EXCLUDE
=> Cervical inspection and smear.
=> If no obvious cause, colposcopy to exclude malignancy.

Cervical ectropions/eversion

Benign cervical polyps

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275
Q

Hypertension at booking visit

A

NOT pre-eclampsia
=> Essential or secondary HTN

Need:
• Careful history & physical examination
• U&Es
• Urine microscopy/renal USS/urinary catecholamines

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276
Q

When does pre-eclampsia occur?

A

After 20 week’s gestation

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277
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

= an endothelial cell disorder involving an excessive inflammatory response to pregnancy

it is CAUSED by pregnancy and CURED by delivery (of the placenta)

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278
Q

What are the features of pre-eclampsia?

A

Hypertension
Proteinuria
Oedema

Multiorgan involvement
Foetal compromise
Significant maternal morbidity

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279
Q

What are risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A
  • Extremes of reproductive age
  • Socio-economic status
  • Ethnic groups
  • Genetic factors
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Primigravida
  • Assisted conception
  • Previous pre-eclampsia
  • Obesity
  • Chronic renal disease
  • Chronic hypertension
  • DM
  • Connective tissue diseases
  • Certain thrombophilias
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280
Q

Pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia

A
  1. Abnormal Placentation
  2. Endothelial Cell Dysfunction
  3. Organ Hypoperfusion
  4. Plasma Volume Loss
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281
Q

Pre-Eclampsia - abnormal placentation

A
  • Failure of invasion of trophoblast cells
  • Maternal spiral arteries continue to have thick muscular walls
  • Reduced maternal perfusion of placenta and possible vasospasm
  • Placental damage leading to increased apoptosis (cell death)
  • Release of circulating factors or placental syncytial fragments
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282
Q

Pre-Eclampsia - Endothelial Cell Dysfunction

A
  • Tissue oedema (increased endothelial cell permeability)
  • Hypertension (altered production of vasodilator substances)
  • Clotting dysfunction (abnormal production of procoagulants by endothelial cells)
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283
Q

Pre-Eclampsia - Organ Hypoperfusion

A
  • Due to chronic/acute vasoconstriction

* Underperfusion/focal ischaemia in kidneys, liver, brain

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284
Q

Pre-Eclampsia - Plasma Volume Loss

A
  • Intravascular compartment becomes constricted and underfilled.
  • May be considerable tissue oedema
  • Low intravascular volume contributes to poor organ perfusion (including of the fetoplacental unit)
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285
Q

Foetal complications of pre-eclampsia

A
IUGR 
Intrauterine hypoxia
Prematurity
Increased risk of placental abruption
Stillbirth/intrauterine death
HTN/IHD/metabolic disease later in life
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286
Q

Maternal complications of pre-eclampsia

A

Eclampsia - Grand mal seizures due to cerebral vasospasm

Cerebrovascular Haemorrhage
Retinal detachment
DIC
Thromboelbolism
Renal failure
Pulmonary oedema
HELLP Syndrome (liver failure)
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287
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

H - Haemolysis (low grade, rarely enough to cause severe anaemia)

EL - Elevated liver enzymes (transaminases, lactate dehydrogenases, bilirubin)

LP – Low platelets

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288
Q

What is used for treatment of eclamptic seizures?

A

Mg Sulphate

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289
Q

Umbilical artery - absent end diastolic flow

A

can be normal in early pregnancy (up to 16 weeks)

mid to late pregnancy it usually occurs as a result of placental insufficiency

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290
Q

Umbilical artery - reduced end diastolic flow

A

Indicates significant increase in resistance to blood flow within the placenta

Associated with significant perinatal mortality

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291
Q

Indications for delivery in Pre-eclampsia

A

Hypertension remaining uncontrolled despite maximal antihypertensives

Eclampsia

Renal, hepatic or coagulation impairment

Pulmonary oedema

Foetal distress

Milder pre-eclampsia at term

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292
Q

Which antihypertensive medications are used in pregnancy?

A
Labetalol
Nifedipine
Methyldopa
Prazosin/Doxazocin
Atenolol

Hydralazine in emergencies

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293
Q

Which antihypertensive medications are avoided in pregnancy?

A

ACEis and diuretics

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294
Q

Involution of the Uterus

A

= Return of the uterus to pre-pregnant size

Normally firm and in midline

Fundus at the level of the umbilicus post-partum Day 1

Descends one finger breadth (1 cm) a day for 10 days

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295
Q

What are possible post-partum problems?

A
PPH (primary or secondary)
Haematoma
Infection 
VTE
Mood disturbance
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296
Q

Symptoms of post-partum haematoma

A
Severe pain
Mass felt on vaginal examination
Flank pain
Abdominal distension
Shock
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297
Q

Management of post-partum haematoma

A

Conservative (if small)
Surgery – incision and drainage
Vaginal pack
Catheter

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298
Q

Puerperal infection

A

= infection of the genital tract that occurs at any time between the onset of rupture of the membranes or labour and the 42nd day post-partum (or post-termination).

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299
Q

Predisposing factors for puerperal infection

A
Poor nutrition
Low socio-economic group
Hx of infections
Anaemia
Immunodeficiency
Prolonged labour
PROM
Poor aseptic technique
Birth trauma / Episiotomy
Multiple VEs
C-section

Manual removal of placenta
Haemorrhage
Retained products

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300
Q

Endometritis

A

= infection of the uterus (endometrium, myometrium, or parametrium)

Ascends from lower genital tract

usually occurs within 10 days of delivery/miscarriage/termination

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301
Q

Risk factors for post-partum endometritis?

A

Most important factor is mode of delivery
=> 1-3 % risk after NVD, 15-40% after Caesarean section

Also:
PROM, multiple vaginal examinations, UTI, GBS carrier, DM, poor nutrition, poor health, catheterisation

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302
Q

Signs and symptoms of endometritis

A

Fever, abdominal pain, offensive discharge

Pyrexia, tachycardia, lower abdominal tenderness, offensive discharge, uterine and adnexal tenderness

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303
Q

Endometritis - investigations

A

Bloods – FBC, CRP, (+/- U&E, coagulation)

Cultures – bloods, swabs (+/- MSU)

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304
Q

Endometritis - management

A

Antibiotics (broad spectrum)

Analgesia

Drain any collection

Consider Sepsis 6 bundle (blood cultures, IV Abx, fluid, serum lactate, oxygen, catheter)

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305
Q

What is mastitis?

When does it develop post-partum?

A

= Infection of breast tissue

Develops after breast milk is established, 2-4 weeks postpartum

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306
Q

Causes of mastitis

A
Bacteria enters through cracks in nipple
Milk stasis
Poor hand washing
Breast not dry or wet breast pad
Incorrect placement of baby causes sore nipples
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307
Q

Risk factors for mastitis

A

ineffective or infrequent breast feeding or milk stasis from engorgement, skipping a breast

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308
Q

What are common pathogens causing mastitis?

A

E. Coli or Staph. aureus

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309
Q

Signs and symptoms of mastitis

A

Fever, chills, malaise, painful, warm, red area of breast

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310
Q

Management of mastitis

A

Supportive bra

Breast feed frequently
Warm compress before feeding
Cold packs between feedings

Analgesia
Antibiotics (flucloxacillin or erythromycin)
Increase fluids

Drain any abscess

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311
Q

Post-partum UTI

A

Bladder hypotonia post-delivery and residual urine and reflux leads to increased risk of UTI

Most commonly caused by E. coli

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312
Q

Risk factors for post-partum UTI

A

Frequent VE, catheterisation, birth trauma

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313
Q

Sites of Post-partum Wound Infection

A

Incision (Caesarean),

Perineum (episiotomy or laceration)

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314
Q

Signs and symptoms of wound infection

A

Erythema, bruising, oedema, purulent drainage, wound edges not approximated, pain, tenderness, pyrexia and signs of sepsis

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315
Q

Management of wound infection

A
Wound and blood cultures
Sutures/staple removal
Antibiotics (broad spectrum)
Analgesics
Wound dressing (involve specialists)
Drain purulent material
Surgery

Sepsis bundle if necessary

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316
Q

Causes of VTE in pregnancy?

A

Hypercoagulability of blood (↑ factor VIII, IX, X thrombin),(↓ fibrinolytic activity protein S)

Venous stasis

Endothelial injury

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317
Q

Prevention of VTE

A
Avoid dehydration 
Avoid trauma to legs (lithotomy)
Early postpartum mobilisation
Leg exercises to support venous return
Avoid smoking
TED stockings

Prophylactic anticoagulants
RCOG VTE assessment tool

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318
Q

what is a Positive Homan’s sign ?

What might it indicate?

A

pain in the calf is produced by passive dorsiflexion of the foot

indicates possible DVT

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319
Q

Diagnosis of DVT

A

Doppler USS

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320
Q

Treatment of CVT

A

LMWH (start before diagnosis confirmed)
(+/- warfarin in the post-natal period).

=> Duration: 3 months

Elevate leg and TEDS

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321
Q

Symptoms/signs of PE

A
  • Sudden, sharp, pleuritic chest pain
  • Shortness of breath/tachypnoea
  • Cough/Haemoptysis
  • Tachycardia
  • Sweating
  • Pyrexia
  • Hypotension/Collapse
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322
Q

Investigations for suspected PE

A
  • Blood gases: hypoxia
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • V/Q scan
  • CTPA
  • Leg Doppler if symptomatic
323
Q

Management of PE

A

= MEDICAL EMERGENCY

  • Anticoagulation (LMWH) prior to confirming diagnosis
  • Analgesia
  • Oxygen
  • (Thrombolysis / Embolectomy)

Any woman with VTE in pregnancy/puerperium will require AN and PN thromboprophylaxis in subsequent pregnancies.

324
Q

Baby blues

A

~70% of women (very common)

Occurs a few days after birth (day 3-4 PN), but self-limiting (days, up to 2 weeks)

Transient feelings of tearfulness, fatigue, anxiety and irritability; Mild depression with interspersed happier feelings

No association with previous psychiatric history.

325
Q

Postnatal Depression - onset

A

Onset between birth and 1 year post-natal

Highest risk in first 3 months

326
Q

how common is Postnatal Depression?

A

Common – 10-15% of women

327
Q

Risk factors for post-natal depression

A

• Primiparity

  • Personal history of depression or substance misuse.
  • Depression during pregnancy
  • Family history of depression
  • Lack of support/ single parent
  • Marital or financial stress
  • Birth complications
  • Pre-term birth
328
Q

DDx for post-natal depression

A

puerperal psychosis, postpartum thyroiditis, anaemia

329
Q

Treatment of post-natal depression

A

Medication – SSRI

Counselling/cognitive therapy

Support groups

330
Q

How common is Puerperal Psychosis?

When does it normally occur?

A

Less common: 0.1 - 0.2% of births

Usually occurs 3-6 weeks after delivery (up to 1 year)

331
Q

Who is at highest risk of puerperal psychosis?

A

People with:

  • bipolar disorder,
  • previous puerperal psychosis
  • schizo-affective disorder
332
Q

Symptoms of puerperal psychosis

A

Symptoms of depression

In addition, there can be:

  • Agitation
  • Restlessness
  • Obsessive thoughts about baby
  • Rapid mood swings (mimic bipolar)
  • Delusions/ Hallucinations
  • Paranoia
  • Suicidal or homicidal thoughts
333
Q

Treatment of puerperal psychosis

A

= Medical emergency (suicide/infanticide risk)

Hospitalisation (psychiatric mother and baby unit: voluntary or under MHA)

Antipsychotic medication

Psychotherapy

334
Q

Hormonal control of spermatogenesis

A

LH causes testosterone production in Leydig cells

Testosterone and FSH control synthesis and transport of sperm in Sertoli cells

335
Q

Definition of infertility

A

= the inability to conceive after 1-year unprotected vaginal sexual intercourse, without any known cause of subfertility in a woman of reproductive age.

336
Q

How many couples will conceive within 1 year of trying?

A

~80%

337
Q

What is the impact of infertility?

A
Sense of failure
Marital disharmony
Psychological illness
Financial implications – IVF treatment
Anxieties – can continue during pregnancy, if it is achieved.
338
Q

Potential Causes of Subfertility

A
  1. Unexplained
    => A large proportion occur due to defective implantation.
  2. Male factors
  3. Ovulation dysfunction
  4. Tubal damage
  5. Endometriosis
  6. Coital problems
  7. Cervical factor
339
Q

What are the possible causes of male infertility?

A

Primary Testicular Failure
Hypogonadotrophic (Secondary Testicular Failure)

Androgen Resistance (Testicular Feminisation)

Genital Tract Obstruction - CF, absence of vas deferens, chlamydia/gonnorhoea

Immotile Sperm
Problem with Coitus
Uncertain Aetiology
Systemic Illness
Lifestyle Factors
340
Q

What are lifestyle factors that can affect fertility?

A

Drugs/ toxins – Therapeutic, occupational, recreational

Smoking
Alcohol intake
Caffeine
Weight
Stress/sleep dysfunction
341
Q

How can sleep disturbances/stress affect male fertility?

A

Testosterone secretion follows a diurnal pattern and increased with REM sleep.

342
Q

What are causes of Primary Testicular Failure?

A

Congenital - e.g. Klinefelter’s

Acquired - e.g. Mumps orchitis, testicular torsion, trauma, inguinal/scrotal surgery, radiotherapy

343
Q

Causes of Secondary Testicular Failure?

A

Idiopathic

Acquired - e.g. cranial space occupying lesions, trauma, meningitis

344
Q

What are causes of female infertility?

A
Anovulation
Thyroid Dysfunction
Tubal Damage
Uterine Problems
Cervical Problems
Increasing age
Lifestyle factors
Implantation defects
Embryo development issues
Metabolic disorders, immunological and genetic factors
345
Q

Causes of anovulation

A
  1. PCOS
  2. Hyperprolactinaemia
  3. Hypothalamic Hypogonadism
  4. Premature ovarian failure
346
Q

Sx of PCOS

A

infertility,
oligomenorrhoea,
hirsutism

347
Q

Risk factors for PCOS

A

genetics,
high BMI,
T2DM

348
Q

what occurs in Hypothalamic Hypogonadism in women?

What causes it?

A

Decreased GnRH release = decreased LH/FSH and oestrogen.

Causes – anorexia nervosa/reduced BMI, athletes, stress, Kallman Syndrome

349
Q

Kallmann syndrome

A

lack of production of certain hormones that direct sexual development

Causes delayed or absent puberty and an impaired sense of smell

350
Q

How does hyperprolactinaemia cause anovulation?

A

Increased prolactin causes decreased release of GnRH

351
Q

What can cause tubal damage?

A
  1. Infection - PID, STIs
  2. Endometriosis
  3. Previous Pelvic Surgery
352
Q

What uterine problems can affect fertility?

A

Submucous fibroids
Intrauterine adhesions
Polyps
Anatomical abnormalities

353
Q

What Cervical Problems can affect fertility?

A

Cervical mucous hostility/anti-sperm antibodies
=> Kills sperm

Loop excision of TZ of cervix.
=> No mucous for sperm to travel in

354
Q

What investigations are done for male infertility?

A

Semen Analysis
Sperm DNA Fragmentation Test

Blood tests – FSH, LH, TSH, testosterone, prolactin
Testicular examination
Genetic – Karyotype, CF screening

355
Q

How is semen analysis performed?

A

Sample produced by masturbation after 2-7 days abstinence

Analysed within 1-2 hours, repeat abnormal results in 12 weeks

Values measured = Volume, Total sperm, Sperm conc., Total motility, Morphology, Vitality, pH

356
Q

What is the normal volume of ejaculate?

A

> 1.5 mL

357
Q

What is a normal sperm count?

A

> 15 million/mL

358
Q

Azoospermia

A

= no sperm in ejaculate

359
Q

Oligospermia

A

= low sperm count in ejaculate

<15 million/mL, severe if <5 million/mL

360
Q

Asthenospermia

A

= sperm count where motility is poor.

361
Q

What investigations are done for female infertility?

A
Rubella Status
Cervical swabs
Follicular Phase Hormone Profile
Endocrine Profile (if indicated)
Ovulation Detection
Tests of tubal latency
USS scan of anatomy
362
Q

Follicular Phase Hormone Profile

A

Day 1-5 if regular periods, any time if irregular/absent

Measure FSH, LH, oestradiol

363
Q

Follicular phase - FSH levels

A
  • FSH raised in ovarian failure
  • FSH low in hypothalamic failure
  • FSH normal in PCOS
364
Q

Ovulation Detection

A

Luteal progesterone
=> day 21 should be mid-luteal increase (if 28-day cycle)

USS ovulation tracking to detect follicle size/rupture

Basal Body temperature

365
Q

Management of male infertility

A

Lifestyle changes:

  • Reduce or stop smoking/alcohol/drug exposure
  • Weight management
  • Testicles below body temperature (loose clothing/cooling methods).

Hormonal – gonadotrophins
Varicocoele – surgery

Intrauterine Insemination with donor/husband semen

Assisted contraception techniques

366
Q

Management of female infertility

A

General Measures:

  • Folic acid/Vitamin D
  • Diet and weight advice
  • Reduce or stop smoking/alcohol/drug exposure
  • Cervical smear

Ovulation Induction

Assisted contraception techniques

367
Q

What is the 1st line for Ovulation Induction?

How does it work?

A

Clomifene - used for ~6-9 cycles

Acts to decrease oestrogen levels, so the brain releases more GnRH => More FSH, LH for follicle development.

368
Q

What are other mechanisms (apart from clomifene) to induce ovulation ?

A

Gonadotrophins

Metformin (insulin sensitisation in PCOS, often used combined with clomifene)

Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor)

Laparoscopic ovarian drilling

Dopamine agonists (for hyperprolactinaemia)

369
Q

Risks of ovulation induction

A

If >1 follicle develops, there is risk of multiple pregnancies

Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

370
Q

what is Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

A

Exposure of hyperstimulated ovaries to hCG leads to the production of pro-inflammatory mediators

increased vascular permeability leads to loss of fluid into the third space

Sx – abdominal discomfort/pain (+/- oedema, ascites, SoB, hypovolaemia)

RFs - gonadotrophins, IVF, <35yo, PCOS

Management is supportive treatment

371
Q

Indications for assisted conception:

A
  • All other methods have failed
  • Male factor subfertility
  • Unexplained subfertility >2 years
  • Endometriosis/tubal blockage
  • Genetic disorders
372
Q

Intrauterine Insemination

A

15-20% success

Insert sperm into uterus (often following ovarian stimulation)

Cheaper than IVF but need patent fallopian tubes

Useful if cervical factors/endometriosis

373
Q

In Vitro fertilisation

A

35% success per cycle (10% if >40 years old)

Consider after 2 years of trying to conceive

Sperm and oocyte mixed in petri dish

Needs normal oocyte production (not possible in ovarian failure)

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis if >37yo mother/high risk of genetic conditions

374
Q

Steps of IVF

A
  1. Follicular development
  2. Ovulation induction
  3. Egg collection (transvaginal aspiration with USS guidance)
  4. Fertilisation and transfer
375
Q

Risks of IVF

A
haemorrhage on egg collection, 
failure, 
multiple pregnancy, 
OHSS, 
ectopic pregnancy
376
Q

Why is cardiac disease a major cause of maternal mortality during pregnancy?

what are important symptoms?

A

a damaged heart copes less well with the increased demand during pregnancy.

It is often difficult to differentiate pathological cardiac symptoms from physiological ones in pregnancy

=> Persistent tachycardia and orthopnoea are important and should be fully investigated

377
Q

When does maternal cardiac disease cause the most problems in pregnancy?

A

> 28 weeks

OR

During labour:

  1. 1st stage – sympathetic response to pain and anxiety, supine position.
  2. 2nd stage – BP increases with pushing, venous return decreases with pushing.
  3. 3rd stage – up to 1L of blood returns to circulation
378
Q

Management of pregnancy with maternal cardiac disease

A

Consultant-led care

Treat conditions before pregnancy if possible.

Review medications and stop contraindicated drugs (e.g. warfarin, ACEI)

Regular checks – BP, anaemia, foetal abnormalities

379
Q

Management of labour/birth with maternal cardiac disease

A
  • CTG monitoring
  • Epidural (Pain control and reduces maternal tachycardia)
  • Position – avoid supine
  • Vaginal birth is recommended, unless obstetric indications for C-section (Less rapid haemodynamic changes)
  • Depending on severity, pushing (active 2nd stage) may be avoided and forceps/ventouse used to facilitate delivery.
380
Q

Problems associated with epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Seizure control is decreased (especially in labour or when sleep deprived)

Morning sickness can affect medication

Seizures can be associated with foetal hypoxia.
Recurrent tonic-clonic seizures can cause IUGR

There is increased risk of NTDs and also congenital heart defects, urinary tract/skeletal abnormalities and cleft palate due to medication

381
Q

Antenatal management of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Consultant-led care

Seizure control (aim for seizure free)
=> As few drugs as possible, at the lowest dose.
=> Involve the neurology team – DO NOT change drugs without their advice.
=> Sodium valproate is contraindicated unless no alternative therapies.
=> Safest drugs – carbamazepine, lamotrigine

Folic acid supplementation – 5mg OD pre-conception

Vitamin K supplementation – 10mg OD from 36 weeks

Offer high resolution USS for anomalies (18-20 weeks) and serial growth scans

382
Q

Intrapartum management of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Hospital delivery

Continue AEDs during labour

Appropriate care/analgesia to minimise risk factors for seizures (such as insomnia, stress and dehydration).
=> But avoid pethidine, as it increases seizure frequency.

383
Q

Postnatal management of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

Continue AEDs (may require dose adjustment)

Support to minimise triggers for seizures (sleep deprivation, stress, pain)

Safety strategies for minimising risk to baby during seizures

Contraception – will depend on which AEDs the patient is taking.

384
Q

Obesity - maternal risks

A
Thromboembolism
Pre-eclampsia
GDM
C-section 
PPH
Wound infection 
Epidural failure/aspiration during GA
Difficult IV access
385
Q

Obesity - foetal risks

A
Congenital abnormalities
Increased mortality 
Miscarriage/stillbirth
NTDs
Macrosomia (causing shoulder dystocia)
386
Q

Antenatal management of maternal obesity

A

Lifestyle advice – diet, exercise, weight loss

Consultant-led care

5mg folic acid and VitD

Thromboprophylaxis

Monitor for GDM and HTN
=> OGTT at 28 weeks
=> Serial growth scans

387
Q

Intrapartum/Postnatal management of maternal obesity

A
IOL if large baby
Continuous CTG in labour
May need to use FSE if difficult contact with CTG
Thromboprophylaxis
Active management of 3rd stage
388
Q

Glycaemic changes in pregnancy

A
  1. Increased peripheral resistance to insulin due to hormones
    => Higher post-prandial glucose
    => Resistance increases with gestation.
  2. Transplacental glucose transport to the foetus – lowers fasting glucose.
    => Reflects maternal levels (hyperglycaemia means more transported to foetus)
389
Q

Complications of Hyperglycaemia in Pregnancy

A

= Related to glucose levels, so usually less severe in GDM.

MATERNAL:
Hypoglycaemia/ketoacidosis
Infection 
Pre-eclampsia
Deterioration of pre-existing disease (e.g. retinopathy/nephropathy)
FOETAL:
Hypoglycaemia
Respiratory distress syndrome 
Congenital abnormalities (glucose = teratogenic)
IUGR/IUFD
Macrosomia
Polyhydramnios
Preterm labour
Stillbirth
Birth complications
390
Q

How can maternal hyperglycaemia cause foetal macrosomia?

A

High maternal blood glucose crosses the placenta and stimulates foetal insulin production, which acts as a growth promotor (bone, muscle, adipose).

391
Q

Management of pre-existing DM in pregnancy

A

Pre-pregnancy:

  • Optimise glycaemic control
  • Folic acid 5mg OD

During pregnancy:

  • Increase insulin dose to maintain normoglycaemia
  • Aspirin 75mg daily to reduce pre-eclampsia risk
  • Regular BM, HbA1c, BP and renal monitoring.
  • Regular foetal monitoring (20-week USS and regular growth scans)

Delivery by 39 weeks.

392
Q

What is GDM?

What causes it?

A

= Glucose intolerance first diagnosed in pregnancy (may or may not resolve after).

occurs if pancreatic beta-cells are unable to produce sufficient insulin to counteract the normal glycaemic changes in pregnancy

393
Q

Risk factors for GDM

A
PMHx/FHx of GDM
1st degree relative with DM
BMI >30
Ethnicity (Black Caribbean, south Asian) 
Previous large foetus (>4.5kg)
Previous unexplained stillbirth
394
Q

Screening for GDM

A

Booking appointment – screen for risk factors

28 weeks if RFs (or ASAP if previous GDM/DM) – OGTT

OGTT any time if detect pregnancy risk factors (polyhydramnios, persistent glucosuria)

395
Q

Antenatal Management of GDM

A
  1. Lifestyle advice – diet and exercise
  2. Oral agents – e.g. metformin
  3. Insulin
  4. 75mg aspirin (prophylaxis for pre-eclampsia)
  5. Folic acid 5mg
  6. Regular foetal growth scans
  7. Further Ix:
    - HbA1c (rule out T2DM)
    - Abdominal palpation (SFH, lie, pain)
    - USS & foetal artery dopplers
396
Q

Post-partum management of GDM

A

Educate on increased lifetime risk of DM
Educate on increased recurrence of GDM
Carefully monitor foetus for 24 hours

397
Q

What is menopause?

A

= the permanent cessation of menstruation due to loss of ovarian activity after the natural depletion of oocytes

398
Q

Perimenopause

A

= from first onset of symptoms to 12 months after last menstrual period.

399
Q

Post-menopause

A

= the period after 12 months since last menstrual period

400
Q

What is the average age of menopause?

When is menopause considered premature?

A

= 51 years

= menopause before 40 years old

401
Q

How is menopause diagnosed?

A

If healthy and >45, diagnosis is based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods.

If <45, then blood tests to measure FSH are required for diagnosis.

402
Q

Symptoms of menopause

A

Vasomotor symptoms – hot flushes and night sweats

Urinary problems – frequency, urgency, nocturia, incontinence, infection.

Vaginal atrophy – dyspareunia, itching, burning, dryness

Loss of libido

Psychological symptoms (e.g. anxiety/depression, reduced concentration, mood swings, forgetfulness)

Risk of CVD

Risk of osteoporosis (fractures)

403
Q

Menopause - what investigations may be needed?

A
  1. Check ovarian reserve - FSH levels
  2. Rule out other causes of symptoms (TSH, catecholamines)
  3. DEXA scan to check for osteoporosis/fracture risk
  4. Investigations to check suitability for HRT
404
Q

What will FSH levels be during the menopause?

A

raised due to loss of -ve feedback from oestrogen

405
Q

What is a pre-requisite for oestrogen-only HRT for the menopause?

A

Patient must not have a uterus (risk of endometrial ca)

406
Q

Menopause - Benefits of HRT

A

Treats vasomotor, vaginal and urinary symptoms
Reduces risk of osteoporosis and fractures
Reduces risk of colorectal cancer
Prevents dementia and preserve cognition

407
Q

Menopause - Risks of HRT

A

Oestrogen only – endometrial cancer
Combination – breast cancer

Increased risk of VTE/CVA
Increased risk of gallbladder disease

408
Q

Side effects of HRT

A
Headaches, nausea, 
Mood swings, 
Abnormal PV bleeds, 
Fluid retention, breast tenderness, 
Dyspepsia.
409
Q

How long is HRT provided for the menopause?

A

5 years at the lowest effective dose, and then review the risk vs. benefit.

410
Q

What type of HRT regime is used for perimenopausal women?

A

CYCLICAL combined HRT

= daily oestrogen and 14 days of progesterone (either monthly or 3-monthly, to induce bleed).

411
Q

What type of HRT regime is used for postmenopausal women?

A

CONTINUOUS combined HRT

= daily oestrogen and progesterone (amenorrhoea)

412
Q

What non-HRT options are available for managing symptoms of menopause?

A

Lifestyle measures – meditation, stop smoking, reduce alcohol intake, exercise.

Hot flushes/night sweats – SSRIs, clonidine

Vaginal atrophy – lubricants, creams, moisturisers

Osteoporosis – lifestyle factors, bisphosphonates, calcium/vitD, raloxifene, denosumab

413
Q

What is a normal Symphysial Fundal Height ?

A

Normal = gestation +/- 2cm

Not usually measured before ~20 weeks

414
Q

What may make SFH inaccurate?

A

BMI >35
Large fibroids
Polyhydramnios

415
Q

what should women be offered if foetal AC or EFW is <10th centile, or there is evidence of reduced growth velocity?

A

women should be offered serial assessment of fetal size and umbilical artery Doppler

416
Q

Symmetrical SGA

A

= small HC and AC,

occurs from early pregnancy

~20% of SGA cases

417
Q

Asymmetrical SGA

A

= normal HC, small AC

occurs later in pregnancy

~80% of SGA cases

418
Q

Small for gestational age (SGA)

A

= a statistical observation

Definitions vary – generally foetus <10th centile for gestational age (WHO)

419
Q

When can SGA be normal?

A

Can be constitutionally small – no pathology is present.

=> Contributing factors include ethnicity, sex, and parental height.

420
Q

Foetal Growth Restriction (FGR)

A

= Failure of foetus to reach its genetic growth potential – due to a pathological process.

Growth velocity slows down or stops because of inadequate nutrition supply and utilisation and/or oxygenation

421
Q

Causes of FGR - placenta-mediated

A
  • Utero-placental insufficency

- Pre-eclampsia

422
Q

Causes of FGR - non-placenta mediated

A
  • Chromosomal abnormality
  • Congenital anomaly
  • An error in metabolism
  • Foetal infection – varicella, CMV, rubella, syphylis, toxoplasmosis, (malaria)

Maternal factors:

  • Nutrition
  • Smoking, Alcohol
  • Drugs – cocaine, heroin, beta-blockers.
  • Maternal disease
423
Q

What determines how many growth scans a woman will have during pregnancy?

A

Women with 1 major risk factor – serial growth scans

Women with ≥3 minor risk factors – uterine artery doppler at 20-24 weeks to decide if additional scans warranted and how frequently

424
Q

Prevention of FGR

A

Aspirin (small effect - increase placental blood flow)

Stop smoking

425
Q

Management of FGR

A

Optimal surveillance method and frequency:

  • Foetal biometry and amniotic fluid volume
  • Umbilical artery Doppler +/- regional Dopplers
  • Foetal medicine surveillance may be recommended

Timing of delivery = dependent on doppler results.

  • Caesarean if abnormal umbilical Doppler (AEDF/REDF)
  • Steroids to promote lung development if pre-term delivery.
  • Continuous monitoring in labour
  • Neonatologist at delivery
426
Q

Foetal Macrosomia

A

(also LGA)

= EBW >90th centile for gestational age
= Birth weight > 4000g or 4500g

427
Q

Risk factors for foetal macrosomia

A

Previous macrosomia

Foetal sex (male)
Genetic factors - taller, heavier patients tend to have larger babies

Maternal diabetes / Obesity
Excessive maternal weight gain

Post-dates pregnancy

Multiparity

Congenital anomalies (hydrops)

Genetic disorders (e.g. Beckwith-Wiedermann)

428
Q

What labour/post-partum complications can occur due to macrosomia?

A
  • Prolonged first stage of labour => need for augmentation
  • Prolonged second stage of labour => need for instrumental delivery
  • Shoulder dystocia and birth trauma (nerve damage, fractures, birth asphyxia)
  • Emergency caesarean section
  • Perineal trauma
  • Post-partum haemorrhage
  • Neonatal hypoglycaemia
429
Q

What are the available options for unwanted pregnancy?

A
  • Continuation of pregnancy
  • Continuation and offer for adoption/fostering
  • Termination of pregnancy (not available in all countries!)
430
Q

Grounds for termination of pregnancy?

A

A. The continuation of pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated.

B. The termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical/mental health of the pregnant woman.

C. The pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and the continuation of pregnancy would involve risk greater than if the pregnancy were terminated to the physical/mental health of the pregnant woman.

D. The pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuation of pregnancy would involve risk greater than if the pregnancy was terminated to the physical/mental health of any existing children or the family of the pregnant woman.

E. There is substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical/mental abnormalities as to be seriously disabled.

431
Q

What is the most common ground for terminating a pregnancy?

A

C is the most common ground for termination, followed by E.

432
Q

ToP in under 16s

A

Explain limits of confidentiality – assess Gillick Competency/Fraser Guidelines

Safeguarding assessment

Explore support available

<13s unable to consent to sex = MUST refer to social care

433
Q

Referral to TOP

A
  1. Self-referral by contacting an abortion provider directly
  2. GP referral to an abortion service
  3. Sexual health clinic can redirect to abortion provider
434
Q

Medical TOP - drugs used

A
  1. Mifepristone (Antiprogesterone)
    • Dose = 200mg orally
    • Interrupts the pregnancy by encouraging placental detachment.
    • Induces cervical ripening and uterine contractions
  2. Misoprostol (Prostaglandin):
    • 24-48 hours after Mifepristone.
    • 1st Dose = 800mcg vaginally (can be done at home)
    • 2nd dose = 400mcg vaginally/orally after 4 hours.
    • Repeated dosage used 3 hourly for late MTOP
    • Uterotonic effects cause softening of the cervix and contraction of the uterus, causing expulsion of the products of conception.
435
Q

Timings of MTOP

A

Early MTOP = before 10 weeks.
Late MTOP = after 14 weeks

(Between 10-14 weeks, surgical TOP is required)

If >22 weeks, inject foetal heart/umbilical cord with KCl to prevent live birth.

436
Q

Contraindications to MTOP

A
  • Pulmonary HTN
  • Oral Steroid use
  • Bleeding disorder/anticoagulant use
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Severe asthma
  • Previous CVA
  • Breastfeeding
  • Anaemia
437
Q

Surgical TOP

A

Give pre-op Abx to cover against chlamydia and anaerobes.

Tends not to be used before 10 weeks (medical methods used).

Misoprostol can be given for cervical ripening before surgical TOP.

  • 7-13 weeks – suction curettage TOP (under GA or LA)
  • > 13 weeks – surgical TOP by dilatation and evacuation.
438
Q

Side effects of TOP

A
  • Dizziness, hot flushes
  • Diarrhoea and nausea
  • Period-like cramping
  • Vaginal bleeding
439
Q

Complications of MTOP

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • Infection (10%)
  • Failure (1%)
440
Q

Complications of surgical TOP

A
  • Haemorrhage
  • Infection (10%)
  • Uterine perforation
  • Cervical trauma
  • Risk of preterm delivery
  • Failure (0.2%)
441
Q

What is the impact of abortion on future pregnancies ?

A

Abortion does not affect future fertility

442
Q

Post-termination care

A

Analgesia and 24-hour support helpline.

Anti-D immunoglobulin to all non-sensitised Rh-negative women

ABX prophylaxis

Follow up after MTOP – rule out ongoing pregnancy/ectopic.
=> low sensitivity pregnancy test 2-3 weeks after medical TOP.

443
Q

TOP and retained products of conception

A

Hx of prolonged bleeding and pain

Bulky, soft uterus with open cervical os = clinical diagnosis

USS to r/o live pregnancy

Pregnancy test can remain positive for up to 6 weeks and is not diagnostic.

Managed expectantly, medically or surgically

444
Q

What are forms of LARC?

A

Implant
IUS
IUD
Injection

445
Q

What is the main action of the Progestogen Releasing Implant

A

Mainly prevents ovulation

Also thickens mucous and thins endometrium

446
Q

Implant - insertion

A

Time to effect = 7 days (use barrier contraception for 7 days).

Inserted sub-dermally, over the triceps muscle (under local anaesthetic)

447
Q

How long is the contraceptive implant licensed for?

A

3 years

448
Q

Implant - Cautions/Contraindications

A

current breast cancer, past breast cancer, CV event while using method, liver conditions.

449
Q

Implant - Advantages

A

Immediate return to fertility on removal

Compliance not an issue

450
Q

Implant - Side effects

A

Hormonal related – irregular bleeding/amenorrhoea, headaches, mood, breast tenderness

Procedural risks – bruising, infection at site, etc

451
Q

Copper IUD - mechanism of action

A

Acts by blocking fertilisation (toxic to sperm).

As emergency contraception, it prevents implantation

452
Q

What must be excluded before insertion of IUD/IUS?

A

MUST exclude pregnancy

also STI

453
Q

IUD - advantages

A
  • Time to effect = instant (immediate protection).
  • Unaffected by D&V
  • Rapid return to fertility
454
Q

IUD - contraindications/cautions

A
  • Unexplained HMB
  • Previous ectopic
  • Gestational trophoblastic disease
  • Cervical/endometrial cancer.
  • Active/recent pelvic infection
455
Q

IUD - side effects

A
  • Periods may be heavier, longer and more painful (but usually settles)
  • Risks associated with insertion – pain, bleeding, infection
  • Perforation of uterus
  • Can fall out (counsel to check threads after every period).
  • Ectopic pregnancy
456
Q

IUS - mode of action

A

prevents fertilisation and implantation

457
Q

How long does an IUD or IUS take to work?

A

IUD - instant effect

IUS - 7 days to effect

458
Q

IUS - advantages

A
  • Lighter, less painful periods (Mirena is only IUD licenced for HMB)
  • Less hormonal SEs as actions more localised
  • Unaffected by D&V
  • Rapid return to fertility.
459
Q

IUS - contraindications/cautions

A

The same as IUD, but also breast cancer

460
Q

IUS - side effects/risks

A
  • Irregular bleeding for 3-6 months
  • Hormonal-related effects – headaches, mood changes, breast changes.
  • Procedural risks
  • Perforation
  • Can fall out
  • Ectopic pregnancy
461
Q

Contraceptive injection - Mode of action

A

Prevents ovulation, also thickens mucous and thins endometrium

462
Q

Contraceptive injection - length to effect

A

7 days to take effect

463
Q

Why is the typical use failure rate for the contraceptive injection higher than other LARCs?

A

6% with typical use, 0.2% with perfect use

Relies on coming back for the injection every 12 weeks.

464
Q

Contraceptive injection - contraindications/cautions

A

Current breast cancer, osteoporosis risk, obesity

465
Q

Contraceptive injection - advantages

A
  • May have less painful, lighter periods.

- Unaffected by D&V

466
Q

Contraceptive injection - side effects/risks

A
  • Delay in return to fertility
  • Reversible effect on bone density
Also:
Hormonal side effects
Weight gain
Irregular bleeding/amenorrhoea
Cannot be removed
467
Q

COC - mechanism of action

A

Mainly inhibit ovulation,

Also thickens cervical mucous, thins endometrium

468
Q

How is the COC taken?

A

3 weeks on and 1 week off, or back-to-back.

469
Q

Effectiveness of COC?

A
  • Perfect use – failure rate 0.3%
  • Typical use – failure rate 8%

Time to effect = 7 days

470
Q

COC - advantages

A
  • Lighter and less painful periods.
  • Protective against endometrial, ovarian and bowel cancers.
  • Protective against fibroids, ovarian cysts, endometriosis
471
Q

COC - side effects/risks

A
  • Nausea, headaches, dizziness
  • Decreased libido
  • Breast tenderness
  • VTE, MI/CVD, CVA, migraine
  • HTN
  • Breast/cervical cancer
472
Q

COCP - contraindications/cautions

A
  • VTE, CVA, IHD
  • Migraine with aura
  • Breast/endometrial cancer
  • BMI >40
  • Pregnancy
  • > 40 years old (>35 if smoker)
473
Q

COC - missed pills

A
  • If D&V within 2 hours of taking the pill, take another.

- >2 missed pills = 7 days condom use

474
Q

POP - mechanism of action

A

inhibit ovulation, thickens cervical mucous, thins endometrium

475
Q

POP - time to effect

A

48 hours to take effect

476
Q

When can the POP be started after delivery?

A

immediately after

477
Q

POP - advantages

A
  • Can be used when COCP is contraindicated.
  • Periods may be less painful
  • Not affected by broad spectrum Abx
478
Q

POP - contraindications/cautions

A

Current breast cancer

considered safest method of contraception

479
Q

POP - side effects

A
  • Irregular menstrual bleeding
  • Breast tenderness
  • Acne
  • Mood changes, decreased libido
  • Ovarian cysts
480
Q

Contraception - barrier methods

A

Mechanism of action = prevent sperm from entering the cervix.

Only method provide STI protection.

High failure rate (12-18%)

481
Q

What are the options for emergency contraception?

A
  1. Emergency IUD
  2. Emergency Pill with Ulipristal Acetate (EllaOne)
  3. Emergency Pill with Levonorgestrel (Levonelle)
482
Q

Emergency IUD

A

Insert before implantation occurs! (e.g. up to 5 days after unprotected sex or ovulation day)

99% efficacy

Can be used as contraception going forward (immediate protection)

483
Q

Emergency Contraception - EllaOne

A

= 30 mg ulipristal acetate.

Within 5 days of UPSI (but it is better to take is ASAP)

95% efficacy

Progesterone receptor modulator
=> Interacts with progesterone (e.g. POP)

Cautions/CIs:
•	Previous ectopic
•	Severe malabsorption
•	Hepatic impairment
•	CYP450 inducing drugs
•	Progesterone (e.g. POP)
484
Q

Emergency Contraception - Levonelle

A

= Levonorgestrel 1500 mcg (synthetic progesterone)

Can be used within 3 days of UPSI (but better to take it ASAP).

90% efficacy

Cautions/CIs:
•	Previous ectopic
•	Pregnancy
•	Severe malabsorption
•	Hepatic impairment

If BMI >26 / taking CYP450 inducing drugs Levonelle may not work - need double dose

485
Q

Which emergency contraception may not work if BMI is too high?

A

Levonelle

486
Q

Which emergency contraception may not work if the patient is taking the COC/POP for contraception normally?

A

EllaOne

487
Q

Side effects of the morning after pills

A
  • N&V
  • Headaches
  • Skin changes
  • Menstrual cycle irregularities, next period earlier/later than expected
488
Q

Safety netting for morning after pills

A
  • If vomit within 3 hours, take another
  • Take a pregnancy test in 3 weeks to ensure it worked
  • Wait 7 days before restarting COC/POP
489
Q

What are other factors to consider when providing Emergency Contraception?

A

Consensual intercourse/domestic violence

STI risk – assessment and screening

Ensure they are not already pregnant before offering EC

Starting long-term contraception as well
=> Cannot quick-start hormonal contraception with EllaOne as progesterone decreases it efficacy

490
Q

What are some benign conditions of the vulva?

A
Bartholin’s Cyst
Sebaceous Cyst
Vulval Haematoma
Lipoma/Fibroma/Myoma
Condylomata Acuminata (genital warts)
Simple Mesonephric (Gartner’s) or Paramesonephric Cysts
Lichen Sclerosus
Hypertrophic Vulval Dystrophy
Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia
491
Q

Bartholin’s Gland

A

Situated within the vestibule, just lateral to the introitus

Normally function to secrete a lubricating fluid.

492
Q

Bartholin’s Cyst

A

Occurs when the duct of the gland becomes obstructed:

Palpable swelling (+/- pain)

493
Q

Bartholin’s Abscess

A

occurs when a Bartholin’s cyst becomes infected

=> Extreme pain, lymphadenopathy, erythema
=> In rare cases causes systemic upset.

494
Q

Management of Bartholin’s Abscess/Cyst

A
  • Incision and drainage under local anaesthetic
  • Abx for abscess
  • Surgery may be required in recurrent cases.
495
Q

Sebaceous Cyst of vulva

A

Infected sebaceous gland in the hair-bearing vulval skin.

Presents with a lump/swelling (+/- pain)

May require removal

496
Q

What is Vulval Haematoma? How is it managed?

A

A result of direct violence/trauma – common in childbirth

Treated by incision and drainage

497
Q

Simple Mesonephric (Gartner’s) or Paramesonephric Cysts

A

Represent embryologic remnants of the caudal end of the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct

498
Q

What is Lichen Sclerosis ?

How is it managed?

A

= an inflammatory skin condition which typically affects the genital and anal areas of the body.

more common in women (particularly post-menopausal)

Can lead to malignant changes (5% develop squamous cell carcinoma)

Treatment – symptom control with emollients and topical steroid

499
Q

Clinical features of lichen sclerosis

A
  • Leucoplakia (thin, shiny and white skin) and inflamed/red
  • Shrinkage and loss of labia minora
  • Itching and/or pain (potentially after urination/sexual intercourse)
  • Adhesions – can fuse labia together
500
Q

Hypertrophic Vulval Dystrophy

A

= Squamous cell hyperplasia

Causes raised, thickened lesions (white/grey or red, depending on inflammation)

Histologically appears as dystrophy with no atypia

Treatment = topical steroids

501
Q

Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia - presentation and risk factors

A

a pre-cancerous condition

Often asymptomatic, but there can be pruritis, pain, palpable lesions

RFs - HPV, HSV-2, smoking, immunosuppression, chronic vulvar irritation, lichen sclerosis

502
Q

What accounts for the majority of vulval malignancies?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (90%)

2nd most common = melanoma

503
Q

What is the single most prognostic marker for vulval cancers?

A

lymph node status

also depends on lesion size and histological grade

504
Q

Risk factors for vulval malignancy

A
HPV, 
VIN, CIN, 
Lichen sclerosus, 
Squamous hyperplasia, Immunodeficiency/immunosuppression, 
Hx genital warts,
Hx cervical/vaginal cancer
Smoking, alcohol
505
Q

Vulval malignancy - clinical presentation

A
  • Lump +/- lymphadenopathy
  • Itching
  • Vulval pain
  • Pain/dysuria
506
Q

Vulval malignancy - diagnosis

A

ANY vulval lesion warrants biopsy

507
Q

Vulval malignancy - Treatment

A
  • Wide local excision (stage Ia)
  • Radical local excision plus ipsilateral groin node dissection (stage Ib and II)
  • Radical vulvectomy
  • Surgery + radiotherapy and chemotherapy
508
Q

Bartholin Gland Carcinoma - diagnosis

A

rare;

often mistaken for benign cysts or abscesses

Honan’s criteria:

  • The tumour is in the correct anatomical position
  • The tumour is located deep in the labium majus
  • Overlying skin is intact
  • Some recognisable normal gland present
509
Q

Bartholin Gland Carcinoma - Mx

A

Radical vulvectomy with bilateral groin and pelvic LN dissection

If it involves adjacent structures, post-op radiation and chemotherapy.

510
Q

What are some benign cervical conditions?

A
  • Cervical ectopy/ectropion
  • Acute/chronic cervicitis
  • Cervical polyps
  • Nabothian Follicles
511
Q

Cervical Ectopy

A

= when the columnar epithelium of the endocervix is visible as a red area around the os on the surface of the cervix

  • Due to eversion
  • A normal finding in young women.
  • Can cause vaginal discharge/PCB
512
Q

Cervical Ectropion

A

= a more irregular redness, resulting in minor lacerations during childbirth.

  • Can cause vaginal discharge/PCB
  • Can be treated by cryotherapy, without anaesthetic.
513
Q

Cervical Polyps

A

= Benign tumours of endocervical epithelium.

Most common in women >40

May be asymptomatic or may cause IMB/PCB

Small polyps are avulsed without anaesthetic

514
Q

what is Acute Cervicitis?

A

= acute ulceration and infection of cervix

Rare; often results from STD

occasionally found in severe degrees of prolapse when the cervix protrudes or is held back with a pessary.

515
Q

What is chronic cervicitis?

How can it be managed?

A

= chronic inflammation and infection, often of an ectopy/ectropion.

Common cause of vaginal discharge

May cause “inflammatory smears”

Cryotherapy +/- Abx (depending on culture)

516
Q

Nabothian Follicles

A

Squamous metaplasia can lead to obstruction of cervical glands and retention cysts form (Nabothian follicles/cysts).

Linked to chronic cervicitis

517
Q

Why is cervical cancer considered preventable?

A

Long pre-invasive state

Cervical cytology screening programme

Treatment of pre-invasive lesions is effective

518
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer

A

age group 30-34 years = highest incidence

  • Early sexual debut and increased number of sexual partners
  • Parity
  • Smoking
  • Immunosuppression/deficiency
519
Q

Protective factors against cervical cancer

A

HPV vaccination before sexual activity

Barrier contraception

520
Q

HPV

A

HPV = circular, double-stranded DNA virus

80% of people will get HPV in their lifetime
More than 200 serotypes of HPV in total

Strongly associated with cervical cancer (Oncogenic HPV DNA is detected in >99% of cervical cancers)

521
Q

How does HPV cause cervical cancer?

A

Infection of the cell with HPV results in the loss of important cell control mechanisms and the cell is more susceptible to malignant changes.

522
Q

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia

A

Grade depends on amount of dyskaryosis (abnormal nuclei).

  • CIN I – atypical cells in 1/3 epithelium
  • CIN II – atypical cells in 2/3 epithelium
  • CIN III – atypical cells throughout

There is gradual progression from low-grade to high-grade without treatment.

523
Q

Epithelium of the cervix

A
  1. The upper cervix (endocervix) is lined by a simple columnar epithelium that contains mucous-secreting cells.
  2. In contrast, the lower cervix (ectocervix) is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium.
  3. The transition zone between these two epithelia (the external os) is an area of metaplasia where the columnar epithelium has been replaced by squamous.
524
Q

NHS cervical screening programme

A

Aim is to detect presence of HPV in the cervix

Starts at 25 years, then (if normal) every 3 years until age 49, then every 5 years until 64.

If HPV is found, the sample is then checked for abnormal cytology

=> If liquid cytology is normal, repeat screening in 12 months.
=> If liquid cytology is abnormal, then colposcopy is done to get a biopsy for histology.

525
Q

Management of CIN

A

CIN I – Punch biopsy and repeat screening in 12 months

CIN II/III – Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone (LLETZ)

526
Q

What happens in a LLETZ procedure?

What are the complications/risks?

A

= Excision of abnormal cells under LA (with diathermy to stop bleeding vessels)

Complications/risks:

  • Post-op haemorrhage
  • Cervical stenosis
  • Small increased risk of preterm labour and PROM
527
Q

Counselling post-LLETZ

A

Avoid tampons/intercourse/baths/swimming for 4 weeks.

One LLETZ treatment does not reduce fertility

May have some bleeding/brown discharge.

528
Q

Cervical Glandular Abnormalities

A

Difficult to distinguish from severe dyskaryosis

High incidence of malignancy and high-grade lesions
=> Warrants early referral for biopsy

529
Q

Types of Cervical Malignancy

A
  1. Squamous cell carcinoma (90%)
  2. Adenocarcinoma (10%)
  3. Other rarer types (melanoma, sarcoma, metastatic cancer, neuroendocrine cancer)
530
Q

Cervical Malignancy - presentation

A

Abnormal vaginal bleeding – PCB/PMB/IMB

Vaginal discharge
Pelvic pain

OE - abnormal appearance and feel of the cervix

531
Q

Staging of Cervical Cancer

A

I – Confined to cervix

II – Beyond cervix (but not lateral pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of vagina)

III – Pelvic wall / lower 1/3 of vagina

IV – Beyond true pelvis/bladder/rectum/distal mets

532
Q

Cervical cancer - diagnosis and management

A

Diagnosis = via cervical biopsy.
Radiological staging = MRI, CXR, CT scan

IA – cone biopsy (preserves fertility)

IB/IIA – radical hysterectomy / trachelectomy

IIB + (or +ve lymph nodes) – radical hysterectomy, pelvic lymphadenectomy, chemoradiotherapy

533
Q

Gynae cancers - palliative care

A
  1. Pain control
  2. N&V – antiemetics
  3. Heavy vaginal bleeding – high dose progesterones/radiotherapy
  4. Ascites/bowel obstruction – paracentesis, antiemetics, laxatives, antispasmodics
534
Q

Benign conditions of the uterus

A
Fibroids
Adenomyosis
Polyps
Endometriosis
Haematometra
Endometrial Hyperplasia
535
Q

what is Haematometra?

A

= menstrual blood accumulating in the uterus because of outflow obstruction.

536
Q

what is Endometrial Hyperplasia?

what is the main cause?

A

= Overflow of the glandular epithelium of the endometrial lining.

Usually occurs when a patient is exposed to UNOPPOSED OESTROGEN

Benign, but likelihood of malignancy increases in complex hyperplasia with atypia.

537
Q

What are fibroids?

Who is more at risk?

A

Benign tumours of the uterine cavity (myometrial origin)

Vary in size and location (intramural, subserosal or submucosal)

More common in peri-menopausal women, afro-caribbean women, people with FHx of fibroids

538
Q

What is the difference between uterine fibroids and polyps?

A

Fibroids = myometrial origin

Polyps = endometrial origin

539
Q

Growth of fibroids

A

Growth is oestrogen and probably progesterone dependent

  • Increases in pregnancy and with combined contraceptives.
  • Slow/calcify after menopause (but HRT may maintain growth)
540
Q

Fibroids - clinical presentation

A

~50% are asymptomatic and discovered only on pelvic/abdo examination or scan.

Sx: HMB (30%), IMB, dysmenorrhoea, urinary frequency/urinary retention, subfertility

541
Q

Fibroids - investigation

A
  • History and examination – palpable, solid mass in pelvis/abdo
  • TV USS – shows mass continuous with uterus
  • MRI/laparoscopy – distinguish from ovarian mass and adenomyosis
  • Hysteroscopy – assess uterine distortion
  • Bloods – Hb may be low if HMB, or high if fibroid secretes EPO.
542
Q

Fibroids - management

A

If Asymptomatic – no treatment needed

Medical: preserves fertility
• GnRH and add-back HRT – temporary shrinkage
• Often used for 2-3 months pre-surgery

Surgical
• Myomectomy (if want to preserve fertility).
• Hysterectomy = most effective, but loss of fertility.
• Uterine artery embolization

543
Q

Complications of fibroids

A

Torsion

Degenerations:
• RED – painful, haemorrhage, necrosis
• HYALINE/CYSTIC – liquified and soft
• CALCIFICATION – post-menopausal

Small risk of malignancy – leiomyosarcoma (0.1%)

544
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

= presence of endometrium with its underlying stroma within the myometrium.

545
Q

Adenomyosis - clinical presentation

A
  • Sx may be absent
  • Painful, regular HMB is common
  • OE – uterus is mildly enlarged and tender
546
Q

Adenomyosis - management

A

IUS/COCP +/- NSAIDs to manage HMB/dysmenorrhoea

Often an indication for hysterectomy

547
Q

What are uterine polyps?

Who is more at risk?

A

= small, benign tumours of the uterine cavity (endometrial origin)

RFs - women age 40-50 years, high oestrogen (e.g. tamoxifen)

548
Q

Uterine polyps - clinical presentation and investigations

A

HMB, IMB
May prolapse through cervix

TV USS
Hysteroscopy

549
Q

Uterine polyps - management

A

Hysteroscopic resection with diathermy

Avulsion (twist and tear off polyp with forceps)

550
Q

what is Endometriosis?

Where does it occur?
What does it result in?

A

= endometrial tissue growth outside of the uterus.

Can occur anywhere in the pelvis
=> Most common = uterosacral ligaments & on/behind ovaries

Results in inflammation, progressive fibrosis, and adhesions.

551
Q

Where is the most common location for endometriosis tissue?

A

uterosacral ligaments & on/behind ovaries

552
Q

Risk factors for endometriosis

A

Oestrogen dependent – regresses after menopause

Risk factors:

  • 30-45 years
  • Nulliparous
  • Genetics
553
Q

Endometriosis - symptoms

A
  • May be asymptomatic if mild
  • Chronic pelvic pain (often cyclical, or can be constant)
  • Dysmenorrhoea before menstruation (peaks day 1)
  • Deep dyspareunia
  • Pain on passing stools (dyschezia)
  • Subfertility – ovarian problems, adhesions, tubal problems, peritoneal factors, endometrial factors.
554
Q

Endometriosis - signs

A
  • Retro-uterine/adnexal tenderness and/or thickening
  • Uterus may be retroverted and immobile
  • Nodule of endometrial tissue may be palpable on VE
555
Q

Endometriosis - complications

A

Chocolate cyst (endometrioma) – accumulated, dark brown blood in ovaries

Frozen pelvis – pelvic organs immobile due to adhesions (very severe cases)

556
Q

Chocolate cyst

A

= endometrioma

accumulated, dark brown blood in ovaries

occurs in endometriosis

557
Q

Endometriosis - investigations

A
  • History and physical examination
  • Laparoscopy +/- biopsy gives definitive diagnosis
  • MRI – to r/o adenomyosis
  • Barium studies – to assess ureteric, bladder, bowel involvement.
558
Q

Endometriosis - management

A

No treatment if asymptomatic

Medical (no improvement in fertility):

  • Analgesia
  • Back-to-back COCP/POP/GnRH/IUS

Surgical (may improve fertility):

  • Laparoscopic ablation of lesions
  • Adhesiolysis
  • Drainage/removal of chocolate cysts
  • TAHBSO
559
Q

How common is Endometrial Cancer?

What is the most common type?

A

= 4th commonest female cancer (after breast, lung and bowel).

incidence is increasing
uncommon before age 40

Adenocarcinoma (columnar endometrial glands) account for 90%.

560
Q

What % of PMB patients will have endometrial cancer?

A

~10%

but 90% of endometrial cancer cases present with PMB

561
Q

Risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

Main cause = exposure to UNOPPOSED oestrogens.

Risk Factors:

  • Early menarche (< age 12)
  • Late menopause (> age 52)
  • Infertility or nulliparity
  • Obesity / Diabetes
  • Treatment with tamoxifen for breast cancer
  • Oestrogen replacement therapy after menopause
  • Age >40
  • Caucasian women
  • FHx endometrial cancer or HNPCC
  • PMHx of breast/ovarian cancer
  • Prior radiation therapy for pelvic cancer
562
Q

What factors reduce the risk of getting endometrial cancer?

A
  • COCP – 50% reduction rate (but actual reduction is small because uncommon in women of child-bearing age).
  • Tobacco smoking (smokers have lower levels of oestrogen and lower rate of obesity)
  • Avoid weight gain
563
Q

Endometrial cancer - presentation

A

Non-menstrual bleeding/discharge (especially PMB)

564
Q

Endometrial cancer - Diagnosis and Staging

A

TV USS
Pelvic examination
Endometrial biopsy

Hysteroscopy – staging
MRI/CXR – assess spread

565
Q

Endometrial cancer - stages

A

Pre-malignant = atypical hyperplasia.

I. Confined to uterine body

II. Involves cervix

III. Involvement of serosa, tubes/ovaries, vagina, parametrium, pelvic and paraaortic nodes.

IV. Bladder/bowel mucosa, distant mets

566
Q

Endometrial cancer - management

A

Stage 1 – TAH BSO (+ post-op radiotherapy if high risk LN involvement)

Stage >1 – debulking surgery/radiotherapy.

567
Q

Endometrial cancer - prognosis

A

Poor prognosis in advanced disease.

High recurrence rates

40% end up with chest mets

568
Q

Ovary - anatomy

A

Outer cortex – germinal epithelium.

Inner medulla – connective tissue and blood vessels.

Cortex – follicles:

  • Granulosa cells – secrete oestrogen
  • Theca cells – also secrete oestrogen
569
Q

Benign ovarian tumours

A
  • 2 types – physiological and pathological
  • May arise from any ovarian tissue.
  • Most are cystic (fluid-filled), a few are solid.
570
Q

What are physiological ovarian cysts?

A

Follicular Cyst

Luteal Cyst

571
Q

physiological ovarian cysts - follicular

A
  • Lined by oestrogen producing granulosa cells

- Can secrete oestrogen – cause menstrual disturbances and endometrial hyperplasia

572
Q

physiological ovarian cysts - luteal

A
  • Formed when corpus luteum does not regress

- Occurs on days 20-26 of cycle

573
Q

What type of pathological ovarian cysts are more common in older or younger women?

A

Coelomic epithelium = more common in older women

Germ cell = more common in younger women

574
Q

dermoid cyst/cystic teratoma

A

Derived from pluripotent germ cells.
Contain hair/skin/teeth
Asymptomatic.

Malignant form = solid teratoma

575
Q

Serous cystadenoma

A

= Most common ovarian cyst

Thin, serous fluid content
Epithelial lining (cuboidal/columnar)
576
Q

Mucinous cystadenoma

A

Contain mucin

Can become enormous (cause pressure Sx on bladder and bowel)

Can rupture

5% become malignant

577
Q

Ovarian cyst - Brenner cell tumour

A

Secrete oestrogen

Presents with asymptomatic vaginal bleeding.

578
Q

Meig’s syndrome

A

= ovarian Fibroma + pleural effusion + ascites

579
Q

Presentation of Benign Ovarian Cysts

A

Asymptomatic

Abdo/pelvic mass
Pressure Sx
Pain (variable)

Cyst Accidents

  • Ruptur
  • Torsion
580
Q

Ovarian cyst - investigation

A
  • Abdominal and pelvic exam – adnexal mass
  • USS
  • Tumour markers – Ca-125, beta-hCG, LDH, AFP, inhibin
  • CT scan
  • MRI
581
Q

Ovarian cyst - management

A

Spontaneous resolution = most common

  • Conservative/monitoring by scan +/- analgesia
  • Laparoscopy – if cysts persist/presents acutely
  • Ovarian cystectomy/oophorectomy
  • Laparotomy +/- salpingo-oophorectomy +/- TAHBSO
582
Q

How common is ovarian cancer?

What is the most common type?

A

30% of ovarian masses after menopause will be malignant

90% are epithelial carcinomas
=> of which 75% serous and 25% mucinous
=> In women <30, germ cell tumours are the most common

583
Q

Ovarian cancer - risk factors

A
  • Increased ovulation
  • Low parity/nulliparous
  • Early menarche
  • Late menopause
  • FHx BRCA1 and/or 2
  • FHx HNPCC
584
Q

what are some factors which protect against ovarian cancer?

A

Anything which decreases ovulation:

=> OCP, lactation, pregnancies

585
Q

Ovarian cancer - signs and symptoms

A

• Most women are asymptomatic.

• Symptoms are often vague and non-specific – bloating, abdominal discomfort, pressure, nausea.
=> Similar to IBS Sx!!

  • Mass, genital prolapse, ascites.
  • Late – secondaries.
586
Q

Ovarian cancer - diagnosis

A

A high index of suspicion.

USS abdo/pelvis

Ca-125
=> if under 40 years, assess AFP, beta-hCG and LDH in case germ cell tumour.

CT abdo/pelvis to assess spread

587
Q

Ovarian cancer - staging

A

I. One/both ovaries only
II. Pelvic extension
III. Extra-pelvic extension
IV. Distant metastases

588
Q

Ovarian cancer - management

A

Staging laparotomy and optimal debulking.

Aim to leave no macroscopic disease after surgery.

Stage 1c and above – LN dissection and post-op chemo.

If advanced/unfit for surgery – palliative care.

589
Q

What is a pelvic organ prolapse?

What is the cause?

A

= protrusion of pelvic organs into vaginal canal

Caused by weakness of the surrounding structures

590
Q

Types of pelvic organ prolapse

A
  1. Apical – uterus, cervix and upper vagina.
  2. Anterior vaginal wall:
    - Cystocoele (bladder)
    - Urethrocoele (urethra)
    - Cysto-urethrocoele
  3. Posterior vaginal wall:
    - Rectocoele (rectum)
    - Enterocoele (pouch of douglas)
591
Q

Prolapse - risk factors

A
  • Vaginal Delivery/pregnancy – large baby, long labour, instrumental
  • Weakness of pelvic floor – inherited disease of collagen (e.g. Ehler’s Danlos), post-menopause, perineal damage, neuropathy/nerve damage
  • Chronic increased intra-abdominal pressure – obesity, chronic cough/constipation, heaving lifting, pelvic mass
  • Iatrogenic – pelvic surgery
592
Q

Prolapse - presentation

A
  • Lump/bulge/dragging sensation – worse at the end of the day/when standing
  • Vaginal irritation/dryness/ulcers
  • Need to push vagina back after straining
  • Problems with sexual intercourse
  • Bladder symptoms – frequency, urgency, voiding difficulties, recurrent cystitis.
  • Bowel problems – obstruction of defecation, constipation, incomplete bowel emptying, faecal incontinence.
593
Q

What factors may be important to ask in a Hx for someone with suspected prolapse?

A
  • Any urinary/bowel symptoms?
  • Sexually active?

Gynae Hx - Pre-/postmenopausal, contraception

Obstetric Hx

PMHx - chronic cough, obesity

DHx

594
Q

Prolapse - investigations

A

Abdo examination – pelvic mass?

Pelvic examination – bimanual, speculum, vaginal mucosa

(Pelvic USS) – may be done to r/o pelvic mass or to investigate any PMB

595
Q

Stages of uterine prolapse

A

Stage I – the uterus is in the upper half of the vagina.

Stage II – the uterus has descended nearly to the opening of the vagina.

Stage III – the uterus protrudes out of the vagina.

Stage IV – the uterus is completely out of the vagina.

596
Q

Prolapse - management

A

CONSERVATIVE

  • Lifestyle changes – weight loss, stop smoking
  • Pessary (changed every 6-9 months)
  • Pelvic floor exercises.

SURGICAL:
Fixation/ repair/ hysterectomy.

597
Q

What does urinary continence rely on?

A

Bladder compliance

Efficient urethral sphincter

Efficient urethral support by pelvic floor and transmission of abdominal pressure.

Leakproof mucosal seal

598
Q

What are the types of incontinence?

Which is the most common?

A

Stress incontinence (most common)
Overflow Incontinence
Urge Incontinence

599
Q

What causes Stress Incontinence?

A

Caused by relaxed pelvic floor or increased abdominal pressure, often multifactorial:

  • Pregnancy, obesity, age
  • Vaginal delivery (long labour, forceps)
  • Prolapse, hysterectomy
  • Muscular diseases
600
Q

Stress incontinence - presentation

A

Hx of leakage on exertion (e.g. cough/sneeze)

because increased IAP causes bladder pressure > urethral pressure

601
Q

What causes overflow Incontinence?

A

Obstruction – pelvic surgery/strictures, BPH/prostate tumour, bladder calculi.

Detrusor failure – neurological, medication, DM.

602
Q

Overflow incontinence - presentation

A

Hx of leakage on exertion or continuous flow/dribble

Occurs due to bladder distension

603
Q

What causes urge incontinence?

A

Causes:

  • Idiopathic
  • Detrusor overactivity/overactive bladder – spinal cord injury/MS
  • Previous pelvic surgery
604
Q

Urge incontinence - presentation

A

Hx of urgency, frequency, nocturia (+/- stress incontinence).

Because detrusor contraction causes bladder pressure > urethral pressure.

605
Q

What DHx might be particularly relevant in an incontinence history?

A

Diuretics, anticholinergics, anxiolytics/sedatives

Also: alcohol and caffeine intake

606
Q

Examination of Incontinence

A

General – is the patient fit for surgery?

BMI

Abdominal exam – palpable mass/bladder?
Neurological exam

Pelvic exam:

  • Bimanual – assess pelvic floor tone
  • Speculum
  • Vaginal mucosa – atrophy?
607
Q

Incontinence - investigations

A

Urine dip - infection/DM?

Urinary diary

Post-micturition USS

CT urogram
Cystoscopy
Cystometry (bladder pressure studies)

608
Q

How is cystometry performed?

A

Bladder pressure measured via catheter,

Abdominal pressure measured via rectum

609
Q

Stress incontinence - management

A

Lifestyle – Weight loss, Pelvic floor exercises

Medical – duloxetine (SNRI for increased sphincter activity), injectable bulking agents

Surgical – colposuspension

610
Q

Urge/overactive bladder incontinence - management

A

Lifestyle – decrease fluids and caffeince, medication review, bladder retraining

Medical – anticholinergics (to decrease detrusor activity), botulinum toxin A (to block neuromuscular transmission), intravaginal oestrogens.

611
Q

What anticholinergics are used in incontinence?

What are side effects if these drugs?

A

e.g. oxybutynin, tolterodine, solifenacin

Side effects – dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, cognitive dysfunction, CV effects

612
Q

Overflow incontinence - management

A

Intermittent self-catheterisation

Treat underlying cause (e.g. BPH)

613
Q

What is required for consent to be valid?

A

Patient must:

  1. Be competent to make a particular decision
  2. Have received sufficient information to make the decision
  3. Not be acting under duress, coercion or deceit.
614
Q

What are the four parts to consent process?

A
  1. Understanding
  2. Retaining
  3. Deciding / weighing
  4. Communicating
615
Q

Gillick Competence

A

minors of any age who are able to understand what is proposed and have sufficient discretion to be able to make a wise choice in their best interests, are competent to consent for medical treatment.

616
Q

Fraser Guidelines

A

Apply specifically to sexual health and contraception

  1. The young person cannot be be persuaded to inform their parents or carers that they are seeking this advice or treatment (or to allow the practitioner to inform their parents or carers).
  2. The young person understands the advice being given.
  3. The young person’s physical or mental health or both are likely to suffer unless they receive the advice or treatment
  4. It is in the young person’s best interests to receive the advice, treatment or both without their parents’ or carers’ consent.
  5. The young person is very likely to continue having sex with or without contraceptive treatment.
617
Q

What counts as domestic abuse?

A

= any incident / pattern of incidents of controlling, coercive or threatening behaviour, violence or abuse between those aged 16 or over who are or have been intimate partners or family members, regardless of gender or sexuality.

618
Q

Disclosing cases of domestic abuse

A

The doctor cannot inform the police about cases of marital violence unless specific consent is obtained from the patient.

However, cases of DA can be shared without consent if it protects a child or public interest.

619
Q

How does HIV infect cells?

What does this lead to?

A

HIV is a retrovirus, infecting lymphocytes with CD4 receptors.

The virus binds to the CD4 receptor and enters the cell.

It uses enzymes and the host DNA to make copies of itself and the CD4 cell gets destroyed in the process.

10 billion new HIV virions can be produced per day, with up to 2 billion CD4 cells killed each day. The decline in CD4 cells leads to immunosuppression.

620
Q

Stages of HIV infection

A
  1. Acute HIV infection syndrome
    => patient is non-specifically virally unwell
    => viral load high; no anti-HIV antibodies
  2. Stable, asymptomatic phase
    => viral load low; anti-HIV antibodies; stable CD4.
  3. Symptomatic
    => signs of damaged immune system
    => Low CD4, any viral load
621
Q

How long can the stable, asymptomatic phase of HIV last?

A

can last ~5-10 years for an average patient

622
Q

HIV - monitoring disease

A

CD4 Count – a measure of immune function
• Predicts risk of opportunistic infection
• Normal range = 600-1200
• <200 = risk of opportunistic infection

Viral Load – a measure of viral replication
• Predicts rate of disease progression
• Aim for <50 copies/mL on treatment

623
Q

At what CD4 count is opportunistic infection more likely?

A

CD4 <200

624
Q

What is the aim for HIV viral load on treatment?

A

<50 copies/mL

625
Q

HIV Transmission

A

Sexual transmission
=> Anal > vaginal > oral

IV drug use

Contaminated blood products

Vertical transmission
=> Mother to child

626
Q

Why is testing for HIV important?

A
  • Long asymptomatic stage of HIV infection – increased risk of transmission
  • Treatment is very effective – near-normal life expectancy if treated early.
  • Late diagnosis after the immune system is damaged leads to poorer prognosis
627
Q

What is considered a late HIV diagnosis?

A

CD4 count <350 when diagnosed.

628
Q

What is the most important predictor of morbidity and mortality in HIV?

A

CD4 count

629
Q

HIV testing - consent

A

Consent is required before a HIV test.

Very few scenarios where it is appropriate to test for HIV without someone’s consent.

630
Q

In what scenario is there universal offer for HIV testing

A

in specific clinical settings or with clinical indicator conditions.

=> Antenatal clinics, drug dependency programmes, TB services, blood-borne viruses, lymphoma, etc.

631
Q

In what scenario is there universal HIV testing in GP practices?

A

Universal testing of GP registrants/acute admissions in high prevalence areas (>2 per 1000 population).

Regardless of symptoms and actual/perceived risk factors.

632
Q

In what scenario is there targeted HIV testing offered?

A

based on demographics - people with potential risk factors

=> Regardless of symptoms

633
Q

In what medical conditions is an HIV test indicated?

A

Anyone with one of the AIDs defining indicator conditions

634
Q

HIV - 4th Generation test

A

Combined antibody and P24 antigen (part of the virus).

=> Window period of 6.5 weeks (45 days) – where someone has HIV but the test cannot detect it.

All positive tests confirmed with 2nd sample!

635
Q

HIV - Point-of-care tests (POCTs)

A

4th generation POCTs

Drop of blood on test, wait 15 minutes.
=> Control result +/- positive HIV result.

All positive tests confirmed with 2nd sample!

636
Q

HIV test result discussion

A

For most people – text message suggesting result is negative
=> Consider “window period” and re-test
=> Discuss ways of reducing risk

Face-to-face discussion if positive result or if negative but vulnerable/high risk/ difficulties understanding.

637
Q

When is HIV treatment offered?

A

Anti-retroviral treatment is recommended for anyone with HIV

When CD4 count <200, prophylaxis against PCP (usually co-trimoxazole) is recommended.

638
Q

90-90-90 UNAIDS target

A

90% with HIV are aware of HIV status.

90% of these people are on treatment

90% of those on treatment have an undetectable viral load.

639
Q

what does Undetectable = untransmissible mean?

A

a person living with HIV who has an undetectable viral load does not transmit the virus to their partners.

640
Q

Principles of HIV anti-retroviral therapy

A

A combination therapy to control the virus and minimise the chance of resistance.
=> Use of 2 or 3 drugs

Choose drugs that target at least 2 different stages of virus life cycle

Aim to maximise compliance - as few tablets as possible!

641
Q

HIV therapy and drug interactions

A

Many of the antiretrovirals have quite significant drug interactions

642
Q

HIV therapy side effects

A
  • GI upset – nausea, diarrhoea
  • Rashes and allergies
  • Renal toxicity
  • Liver toxicity
  • Reduced bone mineral density
  • Lipodystrophy and weight gain
  • Increased cardiovascular risk/ blood pressure/ lipids/ blood sugars
  • Peripheral neuropathy
643
Q

HIV contact tracing

A

Aim = to break the chain of transmission by identifying those who may be at risk of an infection

For HIV, ideally all partners since the last negative test should be contacted.

644
Q

HIV Prevention

A

Sexual Transmission

  • Condoms
  • PEP and PrEP
  • Treatment as prevention (TasP) – undetectable = untransmissible

IVDU
- Needle exchanges

Vertical Transmission

  • Appropriate ante- and post-natal care.
  • If viral load is undetectable then vaginal delivery is possible!
  • PEP for baby

Blood products
- Screening for HIV in blood products

645
Q

Access to the genitourinary medicine service

A

GUM = branch of medical science concerned with diseases of the genital and urinary tract.

  • Open access – no referral required.
  • Strictly confidential – discrete building, separate patient records, etc.
646
Q

Aims of GUM service

A
  • Immediate diagnosis
  • Effective, free treatment
  • Partner notification
  • Information/Sexual health education
647
Q

Who is at risk of STIs?

A

Everyone!

Rates are higher in younger population (<25 years) and in MSM

648
Q

Management of ?STI

A

History

Establish the diagnosis

  • Examination
  • Investigations

Treatment
- On the day where possible, stat doses

Counselling, education, health promotion

Partner notification

649
Q

?STI - History

A

Symptoms

PMHx
- Including past STIs

DHx, allergies

Women – menstrual cycle, obstetric Hx, contraception, cervical cytology, HPV vaccine.

SHx – recreational drugs, alcohol, smoking, domestic violence, chemsex

Sexual Hx

BBV risk assessment

650
Q

What is chemsex?

A

Use of drugs in a sexualised context, leading to more sexually disinhibited behaviour

651
Q

STI Sx - Male

A
Discharge
Dysuria
Urinary frequency/haematuria
Testicular pain/swelling
Rashes/ulcers/lumps
Rectal symptoms in MSM
--
Asymptomatic screening
STI contact
652
Q

STI Sx - Female

A
Unusual discharge
Dysuria/Urinary frequency/haematuria
Itching/soreness
Pelvic/lower abdominal pain
Dyspareunia (superficial/deep)
Rashes/ulcers/lumps
IMB and PCB
--
Asymptomatic screening
STI contact
653
Q

What is the most prevalent bacterial STI in the UK?

A

chlamydia

654
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Intracellular gram-negative bacteria
Infects columnar and transitional epithelium

Can infect the cervix, urethra, rectum, conjunctivae and pharynx.

Sexual transmission (vaginal, anal, oral sex) is most common route of infection, but vertical transmission is also possible.

655
Q

RFs for chlamydia infection

A
  • Condomless sex
  • New partner within the last year
  • Age <25
656
Q

Chlamydia - presentation

A

Often asymptomatic (especially pharyngeal and rectal infections)

Women:
•	Increased discharge (watery/milky)
•	AUB
•	Cervicitis 
•	Dysuria

Men:
• Dysuria
• Urethral discharge

657
Q

Chlamydia - complications

A

PID (chronic pelvic pain, subfertility)

Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy,
Reiter’s Syndrome,
Neonatal conjunctivitis.

658
Q

Reiter’s Syndrome

A

= urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis.

659
Q

Chlamydia - diagnosis

A

Men – first catch urine (FCU) for NAAT analysis.

Women – endocervical/vaginal swab for microscopy.

660
Q

Chlamydia - management

A
  • Doxycycline PO 7 days o.d.

- OR azithromycin PO stat dose.

661
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoea

A

gram-negative intracellular diplococcus

Infects the mucous membranes of the urethra, endocervix, rectum, pharynx and conjunctiva.

Transmission occurs by direct transmission from one infected mucous membrane to another – primarily through sexual contact, but vertical transmission also occurs.

662
Q

Gonorrhoea - presentation

A

Often asymptomatic

White/yellow discharge (M&F)
Urethritis
Bartholinitis
Cervicitis

663
Q

Super-gonorrhoea

A

multi-drug resistant gonorrhoea

664
Q

Gonorrhoea - complications

A

bacteraemia,
acute septic arthritis,
PID,
neonatal conjunctivitis.

665
Q

Gonorrhoea - diagnosis

A

Men – FCU for NAAT analysis

Women – endocervical swab for microscopy (looking for gram -ve diplococcus).

!!Culture to check ABX sensitivities!!

666
Q

Gonorrhoea - management

A

Treatment = IM ceftriaxone.

Alternative = ciprofloxacin, but resistance is common.

667
Q

trichomonas vaginalis

A

a flagellated protozoan

Can be found in the vagina, paraurethral glands, sub-preputial sac and penile lesions.

Main transmission is through vaginal intercourse.

668
Q

Trichomoniasis - RFs

A

> 90% of diagnoses in women

=> Rates are highest in women of black ethnicity.

669
Q

Trichomoniasis - Presentation

A

May be asymptomatic

Vaginal discharge

  • Vary in colour and texture
  • Grey/green/yellow
  • Offensive smell

Vulval itching or pain

Dysuria (M&F)

670
Q

Trichomoniasis - Complications

A

preterm/LBW child,
post-partum sepsis,
HIV transmission.

671
Q

Trichomoniasis - Diagnosis

A

High vaginal swab

Wet film microscopy

672
Q

Trichomoniasis - Management

A

Treatment = metronidazole PO stat dose.

673
Q

treponema pallidum

A

a spirochete bacterium, causing syphilis infection

Transmitted by sexual contact, vertical transmission from mother to child or transmission by infected blood products.

674
Q

Early syphilis

A

= when the person has been infected within the last 2 years.

It can be asymptomatic (early latent) or symptomatic (primary or secondary).

675
Q

Late syphilis

A

= when the person has been infected for >2 years.

It can be asymptomatic (late latent) or symptomatic (tertiary).

676
Q

Syphilis - RFs

A

MSM

677
Q

Syphilis - Presentation

A

Primary syphilis – chancre (painless genital/mouth ulcer).

Secondary syphilis:

  • Fever, myalgia, headache, lethargy, malaise, anorexia.
  • Rash (soles/palms)
  • Warty genital and peri-oral growths (condylomata lata)
  • Multi-organ problems

Tertiary Syphilis:

  • CV system – aortic regurgitation
  • Skin/bony swellings (gummata)
  • Neurological – Dementia, Tabes dorsalis
678
Q

Syphilis - diagnosis

A

Serological tests.

679
Q

Syphilis - management

A

Treatment – IM/IV penicillin.

10-14 days PO doxycycline if penicillin allergic.

680
Q

What causes genital warts?

A

HPV type 6 and 11 cause most genital warts (responsible for >75% of warts but are low-risk strains).

Transmitted by skin-to-skin contact (usually sexual)

681
Q

Do condoms reduce the risk of transmission of genital warts?

A

condoms reduce the risk of transmission by ~30-60%.

682
Q

Genital warts - presentation

A

Multiple warts

  • Varied appearance,
  • External or internal
  • Flesh-coloured or pigmented
683
Q

Genital warts - diagnosis

A

Diagnosed on inspection.

684
Q

Genital warts - management

A

Topical podophyllin/imiquimod cream
Cryotherapy

Prevention – HPV vaccination

685
Q

What causes genital herpes?

A

Caused by HSV 1 and 2

Transmitted by skin-to-skin contact (vaginal/anal/oral sex or genital-to-genital contact).

Can be transmitted when individuals have no symptoms (asymptomatic shedding).

686
Q

Genital herpes - presentation

A

Can be asymptomatic (1/3 develop symptoms).

Multiple, small, painful vesicles.

Dysuria and itchy genitals
Malaise, fever, headache
Local lymphadenopathy.

687
Q

Genital herpes - complications

A

secondary bacterial infection,
acute urinary retention,
neonatal herpes (high mortality).

Can lie dormant in dorsal root and reactivate at a later time

688
Q

Genital herpes - diagnosis

A

Diagnosed by inspection and PCR of viral swabs.

689
Q

Genital herpes - management

A

Treated with acyclovir.

690
Q

What is Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

this is NOT an STI.

Caused by a disturbance in the normal vaginal bacteria – makes the vagina slightly less acidic than normal and this encourages the growth of anaerobic bacteria and fewer normal lactobacilli.

691
Q

BV - presentation

A

grey/white discharge with fishy odour

692
Q

BV - complications

A

preterm labour

693
Q

BV - diagnosis

A

high vaginal swab,
raised pH,

“clue cells” on microscopy

694
Q

BV - management

A

Metonidazole 400 mg twice a day for 5-7 days.
OR topical metronidazole gel for 7 days

Or topical/PO clindamycin

695
Q

What is candidiasis/thrush?

A

This is NOT an STI.

Caused by candida albicans

696
Q

Candidiasis - RFs

A

immunocompromise,
diabetes,
pregnancy,
ABX use

697
Q

Candidiasis - presentation

A
often asymptomatic, 
“cottage-cheese” discharge, 
vulval itching, 
dyspareunia,
dysuria.
698
Q

Candidiasis - diagnosis

A

high vaginal swab for culture

699
Q

Candidiasis - management

A

antifungal pessary/cream (clotrimazole)

or oral fluconazole (NOT if pregnant).

700
Q

What is the window period for STI testing?

A

= the time from infection to the time detectable by testing.

Gonorrhoea and chlamydia – 2 weeks
Blood-borne viruses – 6 weeks.

701
Q

Menstrual Hx

A

Duration of bleeding and length of cycle

Frequency/regularity of periods

Volume of bleeding:

  • Heavier than normal?
  • Soaking through pads?
  • Impacting day to day life?

Menarche

Contraception

702
Q

Gynae Hx

A

Previous gynae problems?

Previous gynae surgery?

Cervical screening:

  • Confirm date of last smear test
  • Confirm HPV vaccination status

Contraception
Menstrual Hx

703
Q

Obstetric Hx

A

Gravidity and Parity
Outcome of pregnancies

Gather key details about the patient’s current pregnancy (if relevant)

  • Gestation
  • Sx associated with pregnancy (e.g. N&V, back pain)
  • Complications
  • Recent scan results
704
Q

Sexual History

A

Last sexual contact:
- Timing – when?

  • Consensual?
  • Regular sexual partner or casual?
  • Clarify the sex and country of origin of the partner
  • Clarify the type of sex involved (Vaginal/anal/oral)
  • Contraception (Barrier and other forms)

Ask about other sexual partners in the last 3 months.

705
Q

BBV risk assessment

A

“Have you ever had a partner who is known to be HIV positive?”

“Have you ever had sex with a bisexual man/engaged in male homosexual activity?”

“Have you ever had sex with someone abroad, or who was born in a different country?”

“Have you ever injected drugs?”

“Are you aware of any of your previous partners having ever injected drugs?”

“Have you ever paid someone for sex, or been paid for sex?”

706
Q

What extra components are there in an O&G history?

A
  • Menstrual History
  • Obstetric History
  • Contraception
  • Date of last cervical smear

+/- Sexual History

707
Q

Gravidity

A

= number of times a woman is/had been pregnant (regardless of pregnancy outcome).

708
Q

Parity

A

= number of pregnancies reaching a viable gestational age [24 weeks] (including live and stillbirths)

709
Q

When should you start asking about foetal movements?

A

After 20 weeks

710
Q

What is the definition of chronic pelvic pain?

A

= intermittent or constant pain in lower abdomen or pelvis of at least 6 months duration, not occurring exclusively with menstruation or intercourse and not associated with pregnancy.

711
Q

Chronic pelvic pain - Cyclical pain

A

Related to reproductive system (endometriosis/ adenomyosis)

Respond to ovarian suppression

712
Q

Chronic pelvic pain - Non-cyclical pain

A
  • Adhesions
  • PID
  • Malignancy
  • GI/urological/neurological/MSK
713
Q

Chronic Pelvic Pain - Diagnosis

A

History

Examination

  • BMI
  • Abdominal exam
  • Vaginal exam
  • Triple swabs for infection screening

Investigations

  • Transvaginal USS
  • MRI
  • Laparoscopy = GOLD-STANDARD but 2nd line
714
Q

Chronic Pelvic Pain - Management

A

Therapeutic options depend on diagnosis:

  • Appropriate analgesia
  • IBS – trial of antispasmodics/diet
  • Cyclical pain – Trial with COCP/ GnRH analogue for 3-6 months
  • Psychological – counselling and psychotherapy
  • Referral to pain management team/pelvic pain clinic/other specialities
715
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

= infection of the cervix, uterus, tubes and contiguous structures.

716
Q

Causes of PID

A

Usually caused by ascending bacteria from sexually transmitted infection.

Uterine instrumentation or retained products of conception are non-sexually transmitted causes.

717
Q

PID - Presentation

A

Often asymptomatic until complications present.

  • BILATERAL lower abdo pain
  • Abnormal PV bleeding/discharge
  • N&V
  • Deep Dyspareunia

• RUQ pain (Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome – perihepatic irritation).

718
Q

PID - Diagnosis

A

OE:
• Pyrexia, Tachycardia
• Abdominal rigidity/peritonism
• Tender uterus and bilateral adnexae, cervical excitation

Ix:
• Pregnancy test – r/o ectopic
• WCC and CRP – raised
• Blood cultures if pyrexial
• Endocervical swabs – gonorrhoea and chlamydia
• Pelvic USS – r/o abscess/ovarian cyst
• Laparoscopy + fimbrial biopsy & culture = GOLD STANDARD

719
Q

PID - Management

A

• Analgesia

• ABX
=> IM Ceftriaxone + PO doxycycline + PO metronidazole (empirical)

Review at 24 hours

If septic – admission and sepsis 6 and senior review

720
Q

PID - Complications

A

Abscess/Pyosalpinx
Tubal obstruction/subfertility
Chronic pelvic infection/pain
6x increased risk of ectopic pregnancy

721
Q

Important points for early pregnancy scanning

A

We do not expect to see anything meaningful on a scan until 6 weeks of pregnancy

Interpreting scan results in the context of the patient’s history, examination findings and blood results is vital.

722
Q

Definition of miscarriage

A

when the foetus dies or delivers dead before 24 weeks.

Usually occurs before 12 weeks.

723
Q

How common is miscarriage?

What is the most common cause?

A

Occurs in ~15% of pregnancies

Cause is significant chromosomal abnormality in ~60% of cases.

724
Q

Miscarriage - Sx

A
  • Lower abdominal pain (crampy, “period-like”)

- Vaginal bleeding (often before pain)

725
Q

Miscarriage - Investigations

A

Speculum – open os suggestive of miscarriage.

TV USS – shows if foetus is intrauterine/viable or any retained products of conception.

48-hour serum hCG – rise >66% in viable pregnancies, low in miscarriage.

Check FBC, Rhesus Status, G&S
CRP – often raised in miscarriage

726
Q

crown-rump Length (CRL) <7.2mm on 1st scan

A

this could either be a very early pregnancy OR a miscarriage.

=> Re-scan in 7-10 days.

727
Q

CRL >7.2mm and no cardiac activity on 1st scan

A

miscarriage is diagnosed (at this size a heartbeat should be present).

728
Q

Threatened miscarriage

A

Os Closed,
Uterus normal for date
Foetus still alive (only 25% miscarry)

729
Q

Inevitable miscarriage

A

Os Open
Pain, heavy bleeding
Foetus may/may not be alive

730
Q

Incomplete miscarriage

A

Os open
USS – some RPOC

Pain, bleeding
Some foetal parts passed

731
Q

Complete miscarriage

A

Os closed
USS – no RPOC

Slowed bleeding
ALL foetal parts passed

732
Q

Missed Miscarriage

A

Os closed
Uterus small for date

May be asymptomatic
Often found on routine scan where no FHR is detected

733
Q

Septic miscarriage

A

Uterine tenderness
Endometritis

Pain
Offensive vaginal loss
+/- fever

734
Q

management of miscarriage

A

Anti-D prophylaxis needs to be given if Rh -ve and pregnancy >12 weeks’ gestation, as miscarriage is a sensitising event.

  1. Conservative/Expectant – wait to see if the miscarriage occurs naturally (~80% success)
  2. Medical:
  3. Surgical

Inevitable, incomplete, and missed miscarriages can be managed with all 3 options.

Septic miscarriage is managed with antibiotics and surgical management

735
Q

Miscarriage - conservative management

A

Review after 14 days.

No bleeding/pain – pregnancy test at 3 weeks to confirm miscarriage.

Still bleeding/pain – consider medical/surgical management.

736
Q

Miscarriage - medical management

A

PO/PV misoprostol and mifepristone
Also analgesia and anti-emetics PRN

Pregnancy test at 3 weeks to confirm miscarriage

Risks – bleeding, infection, failure

737
Q

Miscarriage - surgical management

A

Vacuum aspiration and histological examination to exclude molar pregnancy

Complications - infection, partial removal of endometrium, perforation/scarring of uterus (causing Asherman’s Syndrome)

738
Q

What is considered recurrent Miscarriage?

A

3 or more miscarriages in succession – affects ~1% of couples.

739
Q

Causes of recurrent miscarriage

A
  • Antiphospholipid antibodies
  • Chromosomal defects
  • Uterine abnormalities – e.g. LLETZ, fibroids
  • Hormonal – e.g. thyroid problems, uncontrolled diabetes.
  • Other – obesity, smoking, PCOS, higher maternal age
740
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

= a pregnancy that is growing anywhere outside the uterus.

Most common location is the fallopian tubes/ampulla.

741
Q

ectopic pregnancy - Risk factors

A

= anything that can scar the tubes:

  • Advanced maternal age
  • Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • IVF pregnancy
  • PMHx chlamydia/pelvic infection/PID
  • Previous abdo/tubal surgery
  • Use of POP or IUD
742
Q

Ectopic pregnancy - presentation

A

Can be variable/vague/asymptomatic

Lower abdominal pain
Rebound tenderness
Uterine and adnexal tenderness

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

Signs of intraperitoneal blood loss

Amenorrhoea 4-10 weeks

Uterus small for date and closed cervical os.

743
Q

What can be signs of intraperitoneal blood loss

A
  • Dizziness
  • Shoulder-tip pain (referred)
  • Syncope/collapse
744
Q

Ectopic pregnancy - Investigations

A

In a woman of child-bearing age, abdominal pain and abnormal PV bleed = ectopic until proven otherwise
=> MUST do a urine pregnancy test!

  1. Urine hCG pregnancy test (+ve in ectopic)
  2. TV USS
  3. Serum beta-hCG to distinguish early and ectopic pregnancies
  4. Laparoscopy
    => Most sensitive, but invasive – rarely used.
745
Q

How to differentiate early pregnancy and ectopic pregnancy with serum beta-hCG?

A

Early pregnancy – increase by >60% in 48 hours.

Ectopic – slower increase or decrease.

If already >1000 IU/mL, you would see the pregnancy in the uterus unless it was ectopic.

746
Q

Ectopic pregnancy - management

A
  1. Admit to hospital – A-E assessment, IV access, X-match, Anti-D if Rh -ve.
  2. Medical = methotrexate (if small, un-ruptured)
  3. Surgical
  4. Counselling
747
Q

What are the requirements of an ectopic pregnancy to be suitable for medical management?

How is medical management done?

A

if unruptured, no cardiac activity and hCG <3000 IU/mL

Single dose methotrexate (15% need 2nd dose, 10% need surgical escalation)

Followed by serial hCG level monitoring.

748
Q

Surgical management of ectopic pregnancy

A

Laparoscopic salpingectomy (tube removal)

Consider salpingostomy (remove ectopic and leave tube) if other tube is damaged, for future conception.

749
Q

Counselling for ectopic pregnancy

A

Explain the need for serial hCG levels to confirm removal of ectopic.

Make aware of warning signs of rupture – severe abdo pain, pale/clammy, tachycardic, LOC/collapse.

Information about increased risk of ectopic (but reassure that many go on to have successful pregnancy in the future).

Emotional support/counselling.

750
Q

Definition of Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A

Severe N&V in pregnancy that leads to:

  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte disturbances
  • Weight loss
  • Ketosis
751
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - presentation

A

Excessive vomiting

Symptoms suggestive of dehydration (e.g. oliguria and syncopal episodes)

752
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - risk factors

A
  • Multiparous
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Molar pregnancy
753
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - DDx

A
  • UTI
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Trophoblastic Disease
754
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - Investigations

A

BP and Pulse – ?hypovolaemia

Urine dip:
=> Ketonuria suggests dehydration/starvation
=> (r/o UTI)

FBC, U&E, LFT

Calcium
=> r/o hypercalcaemia (can cause vomiting)

Pelvic USS
=> Check viability of pregnancy
=> Check for situations where hyperemesis is more likely.

755
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - Management

A

Dehydration:
=> IV fluids (Hartmann’s/saline)

N&V:
=> Antiemetics – promethazine, cyclizine, metoclopramide, ondansetron (IV/IM/SL if oral intake not tolerated)

Close monitoring – BP, pulse, renal function

756
Q

What is Gestational Trophoblastic Disease?

A

Occurs when the trophoblastic tissue of the blastocyst proliferates more aggressively than normal.

  1. HYDATIDIFORM MOLE
  2. INVASIVE MOLE
  3. CHORIOCARCINOMA
757
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease - Hydatidiform Mole

A

localised and non-invasive proliferation.

Complete:
• Sperm fertilises the empty oocyte = mitosis of 46XX tissue
• No foetal tissue and no foetal RBCs

Partial:
• Two sperms fertilise the oocyte = forms triploid zygote 69XXX/XXY/XYY
• Viable evidence of foetus (but abnormal)

758
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease - Invasive Mole

A

invasion localised to within the uterus

759
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease - choriocarcinoma

A

invasion followed by metaplasia outside of the uterus

760
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia

A

= malignant transformation of the trophoblastic tissue.

Diagnosed when persistently elevated hCG/persistent vaginal bleeding/blood-borne metastases resulting from persistence of any of the above.

761
Q

Risk factors for Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

A
  • Asian ethnicity
  • Extremes of maternal age
  • Previous molar pregnancy
  • Familial/sporadic clusters of biparental complete hydatidiform mole.
762
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease - Presentation

A
  • Vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy (non-specific sign)
  • Severe vomiting/Hyperemesis
  • Uterus large for date
  • Early onset pre-eclampsia / hyperthyroidism
763
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease - Investigation

A

Serum hCG – very high

USS – characteristic “snowstorm” appearance

Histology = diagnostic

764
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease/Neoplasia - Management

A

Gold standard management = surgical evacuation of the uterus.
=> The resulting products of conception should be analysed in the laboratory to confirm the diagnosis.
=> Anti-D prophylaxis recommended

Serial hCG levels – if remain persistent or rising, this suggests malignancy.

Management of GTN:
=> Chemotherapy.
=> Only 3 specialist centres in the UK deal with these

765
Q

Prevention of infection in pregnancy

A
  • Seasonal vaccination against influenza (and Covid)
  • Vaccination against rubella
  • Avoidance of individuals with chickenpox
  • Avoidance of foods that may harbour Listeria – e.g. soft cheeses

Routine Antenatal Screening - Syphilis, HepB, HIV

766
Q

Pyrexia in pregnancy

A

Can be normal => pregnancy results in a progressive and significant increase in endogenous heat production.

Antipyretics in a febrile pregnant woman are important to help prevent intrauterine hyperthermia and possible foetal damage

767
Q

Most common organisms causing maternal sepsis in pregnancy

A

Group A Strep and E. coli

768
Q

Maternal Sepsis - Presentation

A

Symptoms can be non-specific – diagnosis is very challenging

  • D&V,
  • Fever (but may be absent or even low in some cases)
  • Abdominal pain,
  • Tachycardia, Tachypnoea
  • Confusion

• Offensive vaginal discharge/Productive cough/ Urinary symptoms/ rash

769
Q

Maternal Sepsis - management

A
  1. Urgent and repeated microbial specimens
    => BLOOD CULTURES
    => Consider sputum sample, throat swab, MSU, wound swab, etc.
  2. Appropriate IV antibiotic therapy.
    => Parenteral broad-spectrum immediately (within 1 hour), without waiting for microbiology results.
  3. Fluid balance - input/output
  4. Oxygen if needed
  5. Serum lactate should be measured
    => Also FBC, U&E, ABG
  6. Relevant imaging to confirm source of infection.
770
Q

Chorioamnionitis

A

= inflammation of the amniochorionic membranes of the placenta (typically in response to microbial infection).

Usually polymicrobial cause

771
Q

what is the greatest risk factor for developing Chorioamnionitis?

A

preterm pre-labour rupture of membranes

772
Q

Chorioamnionitis - diagnosis

A
  • Maternal pyrexia
  • Maternal tachycardia
  • Uterine tenderness
  • Offensive vaginal discharge
  • Foetal tachycardia
773
Q

Chorioamnionitis - management

A

Augment delivery if not already in established labour.

Broad spectrum IV antibiotics

Antipyretics and keep well-hydrated

Send FBC, blood cultures, low vaginal swab and MSU for analysis.

774
Q

TORCH infections

A

toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, HSV

775
Q

How is congenital syphilis prevented in a syphilis sero-positive pregnant mother?

A

pregnant woman treated with penicillin

776
Q

Management of Chlamydia infection in pregnancy

A

Antibiotic Tx is necessary to prevent vertical transmission to the neonate

Azithromycin / Erythromycin / Amoxicillin

Test of cure (TOC) is recommended in pregnancy – 3 weeks following the completion of Abx treatment

777
Q

Which chalmydia Tx should be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Doxycycline and ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

778
Q

Implications of rubella infection on pregnancy

A

If rubella infection occurs in the first 16 weeks, implications are substantial.
=> cardiac defects, IUGR, eye defects, liver/bowel/spleen abnormalities

If 16-20 weeks, implications are deafness only

779
Q

What cardiac defects can be caused by Congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Pulmonary artery stenosis

Patent ductus arteriosus

780
Q

Maternal Parvovirus infection

A

Main effect = foetal anaemia

Infection in the first 20 weeks can lead to intrauterine death and hydrops fetalis

781
Q

Congenital CMV

A

= most common congenital infection

Microcephaly, IUGR, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, jaundice, seizures

782
Q

What happens if maternal infection with varicella zoster occurs at term?

A

Elective delivery should normally be avoided until 5-7 days after the onset of maternal rash to allow the passive transfer of antibodies from mother to child

783
Q

Effects of sodium valproate on foetus

A
Birth defects (10% of babies exposed)
=> Spina bifida, facial and skull malformations, limb/cardiac/renal and urogenital malformations

Developmental defects (30-40% of babies exposed)

784
Q

Sodium valproate and pregnancy

A

Causes birth/developmental defects

Valproate MUST NOT be used in any woman/girl able to have children, unless she has a pregnancy prevention programme in place.

785
Q

Indications for 5mg daily folic acid

A

5mg folic acid daily is required if the patient or partner:

  1. Had an NTD
  2. Had a previous baby with NTD
  3. Have FHx of NTD
  4. Have diabetes
786
Q

Normal folic acid dose

A

Standard dose = 400mcg Folic Acid daily pre-pregnancy and for first trimester

787
Q

Placental transfer of drugs

A

Nearly all drugs, except those with a very high molecular weight (e.g. insulin and heparin) cross the placenta to the foetus

Lipid-soluble un-ionised drugs cross the placenta more rapidly

Highly protein-bound drugs cross the placenta to a lesser extent

788
Q

What factors affect the degree of harm to the foetus by maternal medications?

A

The effect of drug exposure depends on:

  1. Timing of exposure
  2. Dosage and duration
  3. Genetic susceptibility
  4. An element of chance
789
Q

Timing of drug exposure - Pre-embryonic period

A

Until 14 days post-conception

“All or nothing”
=> Damage to all/most cells => death
=> Damage to only a few cells => normal development

790
Q

Timing of drug exposure - Embryonic period

A

Week 3-8

Most important phase for teratogenicity
Major organ systems forming

791
Q

Timing of drug exposure - Foetal period

A

(week 9 onwards):

Baby less susceptible to toxic insults

Although some organs (cerebellum and urogenital structures) are still developing.

792
Q

Lower risk drugs in pregnancy

A
Antacids
Paracetamol
Penicillins, Cephalosporins
Laxatives
Inhaled asthma medications

(Generally considered okay to prescribe if needed)

793
Q

High risk drugs in pregnancy

A
ACEi
Phenytoin/Sodium Valproate
Lithium
Isotretinoin/retinoids
Alcohol
Misoprostol
Warfarin

(AVOID!)

794
Q

1st line anti-emetics in pregnancy

A

Cyclizine,

Promethazine

795
Q

Foetal defects caused by lithium

A

Cardiovascular Defects (Ebstein’s anomaly of the triscuspid valve)

796
Q

drugs that inhibit/reduce breastmilk production

A

Bromocriptine, diuretics, anabolic steroids

Regular moderate/heavy alcohol consumption

797
Q

High risk drugs in breastfeeding

A
Ciclosporin
Lithium
Ecstasy / other illicit drugs
Amiodarone
Alcohol
Tetracyclines
Quinolones
798
Q

How can gestational diabetes be diagnosed?

A

=> ‘5678’

Fasting glucose is >/= 5.6 mmol/L,

or

2-hour glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L

799
Q

Whirlpool Sign

A

Twisting of the structure on USS / CT

Indicates ovarian torsion

800
Q

NICE guidelines - indications for measuring Ca-125

A

CA125 should be performed if a woman (especially if aged 50 years old or over) has any of the following symptoms on a regular basis:

Abdominal distension or ‘bloating’
Early satiety or loss of appetite
Pelvic or abdominal pain
Increased urinary urgency and/or frequency

801
Q

Pregnancy and the MMR vaccine

A

MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant

Women should avoid becoming pregnant for 28 days after receipt of MMR vaccine

802
Q

C-section categories

A

CAT 1
An immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby
Delivery of the baby should occur within 30 minutes of making the decision

CAT2
Maternal/foetal compromise which is not immediately life-threatening
Delivery of the baby should occur within 75 minutes of making the decision

CAT3
Delivery is required, but mother and baby are stable

CAT4
Elective C-section

803
Q

Indications for Category 1 C-section

A

Examples indications include:

Suspected uterine rupture, 
Major placental abruption, 
Cord prolapse, 
Foetal hypoxia
Persistent fetal bradycardia