ENT Flashcards

1
Q

Function of the nasal cavity

A

= most superior part of the respiratory tract

  1. Warms and humidifies inspired air.
  2. Removes and traps pathogens and particulate matter from the inspired air.
  3. Responsible for sense of smell.
  4. Drains and clears the paranasal sinuses and lacrimal ducts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Respiratory vs Olfactory regions of nasal cavity

A

Respiratory region = lined by a ciliated pseudostratified epithelium, interspersed with mucus-secreting goblet cells.

Olfactory region = located at the apex of the nasal cavity. It is lined by olfactory cells with olfactory receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the nasal conchae?

A

= curved shelves of bone projecting out of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity.

They project into the nasal cavity, creating four pathways for the air to flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the four pathways of air flow created by the nasal conchae?

A
  1. Inferior meatus – between the inferior concha and floor of the nasal cavity.
  2. Middle meatus – between the inferior and middle concha.
  3. Superior meatus – between the middle and superior concha.
  4. Spheno-ethmoidal recess – superiorly and posteriorly to the superior concha.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the aim of the nasal conchae creating different paths of air flow?

A

to increase the surface area of the nasal cavity

to disrupt the flow of air to make it turbulent (so that it spends longer in the nasal cavity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What structures drain into the nasal cavity?

A

Paranasal sinuses - frontal, maxillary, ethmoidal, sphenoid

Nasolacrimal Duct

Auditory (Eustachian) tube

Cribriform Plate

Sphenopalatine foramen

Incisive canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the Auditory (Eustachian) tube opening into the nasal cavity?

A

Connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx (opens onto the lateral wall of the nasal cavity)

It allows the middle ear to equalise with the atmospheric air pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a problem that can occur due to the Auditory (Eustachian) tube opening into the nasal cavity?

A

Provides means for infection to spread from the upper respiratory tract to the ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Incisive Canal of nasal cavity

A

Pathway between the nasal cavity and incisive fossa of the oral cavity.

Transmits the nasopalatine nerve and greater palatine artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sphenopalatine foramen of nasal cavity

A

Located at the level of the superior meatus

Sphenopalatine artery, nasopalatine and superior nasal nerves pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cribriform plate of nasal cavity

A

part of the ethmoid bone

forms a portion of the roof of the nasal cavity

contains very small perforations, allowing fibres of the olfactory nerve to enter and exit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Arterial Supply of nasal cavity

A

Internal carotid branches:

  • Anterior ethmoidal artery
  • Posterior ethmoidal artery

External carotid branches:

  • Sphenopalatine artery
  • Greater palatine artery
  • Superior labial artery
  • Lateral nasal arteries

These arteries form anastomoses with each other, especially in the anterior portion of the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Little’s / Kiesselbach’s area

A

An area in the anterior portion of the nose, where there are lots of anastomoses of arteries

common site for nosebleeds (~90% from this area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Venous drainage of the nose

A

The veins of the nose tend to follow the arteries.

They drain into the pterygoid plexus, facial vein or cavernous sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can the innervation of the nose be divided?

A

Special = the ability of the nose to smell

General = sensory innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Special sensory innervation of the nose

A

OLFACTORY NERVE

The olfactory bulb lies on the superior surface of the cribriform plate

Branches of the olfactory nerve run through the cribriform plate to provide special sensory innervation to the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

General sensory innervation of the nose

A

Innervation to the septum and lateral walls is delivered by the nasopalatine nerve (branch of maxillary nerve) and the nasociliary nerve (branch of the ophthalmic nerve).

Innervation to the external skin of the nose is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Parts of the external ear

A

Auricle
External Acoustic Meatus
Tympanic Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Auricle

A

Functions to capture and direct sound waves towards the external acoustic meatus.

A mostly cartilaginous structure:
=> Helix, anti-helix, concha, tragus, antitragus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

External acoustic meatus

A

A sigmoid-shaped tube
=> Initially superoanterior, then superoposterior, then inferoanterior.

Extends from the deep part of the concha to the tympanic membrane.

External 1/3 formed by cartilage
Internal 2/3 formed by the temporal bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tympanic Membrane

A

Connective tissue structure; covered with skin on the outside and a mucous membrane on the inside

Connected to the surrounding temporal bone by a fibrocartilaginous ring

On the inner surface, the handle of malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane, at the umbo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vasculature of external ear

A

Supplied by branches of the external carotid artery:

  • Posterior auricular artery
  • Superficial temporal artery
  • Occipital artery
  • Maxillary artery (deep auricular branch) – supplies the deep aspect of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane only.

Venous drainage is via veins following the arteries listed above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sensory innervation of external ear

A

Greater auricular nerve (branch of the cervical plexus) – innervates the skin of the auricle

Lesser occipital nerve (branch of the cervical plexus) – innervates the skin of the auricle

Auriculotemporal nerve (branch of the mandibular nerve) – innervates the skin of the auricle and external auditory meatus.

Branches of the facial and vagus nerves – innervates the deeper aspect of the auricle and external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why can some individuals complain of an involuntary cough when cleaning their ears?

A

due to stimulation of the auricular branch of the vagus nerve (the vagus nerve is also responsible for the cough reflex).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lymphatic drainage of external ear

A

The lymphatic drainage of the external ear is to the superficial parotid, mastoid, upper deep cervical and superficial cervical nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Middle Ear

A

Lies within the temporal bone
Extends from the tympanic membrane to the lateral wall of the inner ear.

Main function = to transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear via the auditory ossicles.

Divided into two parts - Tympanic Cavity and Epitympanic Recess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Middle Ear - Tympanic Cavity

A

located medially to the tympanic membrane,

contains the 3 auditory ossicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Middle Ear - Epitympanic Recess

A

a space superior to the tympanic cavity,

which lies next to the mastoid air cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the bones of the middle ear?

A
  1. Malleus
  2. Incus
  3. Stapes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Middle Ear - Malleus

A

Attaches to the tympanic membrane, via the handle of malleus.

The head of the malleus lies in the epitympanic recess, where it articulates with the next auditory ossicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Middle Ear - Incus

A

Consists of a body and two limbs.

=> The body articulates with the malleus,
=> The short limb attaches to the posterior wall of the middle ear
=> The long limb articulates with the stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Middle Ear - Stapes

A

The smallest bone in the human body.

It joins the incus to the oval window of the inner ear.

It is stirrup-shaped, with a head, two limbs, and a base.
=> The head articulates with the incus, and the base joins the oval window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mastoid Air Cells

A

Located posterior to the epitympanic recess.

A collection of air-filled spaces in the mastoid process of the temporal bone.

The mastoid air cells act as a “buffer system” of air – releasing air into the tympanic cavity when the pressure is too low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Middle Ear - Muscles

A

two muscles - serve a protective function

=> tensor tympani and stapedius

They contract in response to loud noise, inhibiting the vibrations of the malleus, incus and stapes, and reducing the transmission of sound to the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Acoustic reflex

A

The contraction of the tensor tympani and stapedius in response to loud noise, inhibiting vibrations of the bones and thereby reducing transmission of sound to the inner ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why are middle ear infections more common in children?

A

The auditory tube is shorter and straighter in children, so there is an easier pathway for a URTI to spread to the middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inner Ear - contents, location, connections to middle ear

A

Houses the vestibulocochlear organs

Located within the petrous part of the temporal bone.

Has two openings into the middle ear – the oval window and the round window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the main functions of the inner ear?

A
  1. To convert mechanical signals from the middle ear into electrical signals, which can transfer information to the auditory pathway in the brain.
  2. To maintain balance by detecting position and motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bony Labyrinth of inner ear

A

= a series of bony cavities within the petrous part of the temporal bone.

It consists of three parts – the cochlea, vestibule and the three semi-circular canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bony Labyrinth - Vestibule

A

Central part

Separated from the middle ear by the oval window.

Communicates anteriorly with the cochlea and posteriorly with the semi-circular canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bony Labyrinth - Cochlea

A

Houses the cochlear duct of the membranous labyrinth

It twists upon itself around a central portion of bone (the modiolus), producing a cone shape.

Branches from the cochlear portion of the vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) nerve are found at the base of the modiolus.

The presence of the cochlear duct creates two perilymph-filled chambers above and below:

i. Scala vestibuli
ii. Scala tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bony Labyrinth - Semi-circular Canals

A

There are 3 canals – anterior, lateral and posterior.

Contain the semi-circular ducts, which are responsible for balance (along with the utricle and saccule).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Inner Ear - Membranous Labyrinth

A

= a continuous system of ducts filled with endolymph.

It lies within the bony labyrinth, surrounded by perilymph.

It is composed of the cochlear duct, three semi-circular ducts, saccule and utricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Membranous Labyrinth - Cochlear Duct

A

Triangular shape

Separated from the scala vestibuli by Reissner’s membrane

Separated from the scala tympani by the basilar membrane

The basilar membrane houses the epithelial cells of hearing – the Organ of Corti.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Membranous Labyrinth - Saccule and Utricle

A

= Two membranous sacs located in the vestibule.

They are organs of balance – detect movement or acceleration of the head in the vertical and horizontal planes

=> The utricle receives the three semi-circular ducts.
=> The saccule receives the cochlear duct.

Endolymph drains from the saccule and utricle into the endolymphatic duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Membranous Labyrinth - semi-circular ducts

A

Located within the semi-circular canals

Upon movement of the head, the flow of endolymph within the ducts changes speed and/or direction.

Sensory receptors detect this change, and send signals to the brain, allowing for the processing of balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Inner Ear - innervation

A

Innervated by the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).

At the internal acoustic meatus it divides into the:

  • Vestibular nerve – supplies the utricle, saccule and three semi-circular ducts.
  • Cochlear nerve – supplies the receptors of the Organ of Corti
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bones of the neurocranium

A

Four singular bones centred on the midline (frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital).

Two sets of bones occurring as bilateral pairs (temporal and parietal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bones of the viscerocranium (facial skeleton)

A

Three singular bones lying in the midline (mandible, ethmoid, and vomer)

Six paired bones occurring bilaterally (maxilla; inferior nasal concha [turbinate], zygomatic, palatine, nasal, and lacrimal bones).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Muscles of face

A

Occipitofrontalis
Obicularis Oculi
Obicularis Oris
Buccinator

Nose:

  1. Nasalis – transverse and alar parts
  2. Procerus
  3. Depressor septi nasi

Platysma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sensory innervation of face

A

provided mainly by the trigeminal nerve (CN V) via the:

  1. The ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) – only sensory
  2. The maxillary nerve (CN V2) – only sensory
  3. The mandibular nerve (CN V3) – sensory and motor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Motor innervation of face

A
  1. Mandibular nerve (CN V3) – the muscles of mastication (masseter, temporal, medial and lateral pterygoids).
  2. Facial nerve (CN VII) – the muscles of facial expression.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where does the facial nerve emerge from the cranium?

A

stylomastoid foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Superficial lymph nodes of head and neck

A

Receive lymph from the scalp, face and neck

  • Submental
  • Submandibular
  • Superficial parotid/pre-auricular
  • Mastoid / retroauricular
  • Occipital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Deep (cervical) lymph nodes of head and neck

A

Receive all of the lymph from the head and neck – either directly or indirectly via the superficial lymph nodes.

They are organised into a vertical chain, located within close proximity to the IJV within the carotid sheath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Parotid gland - location

A

enclosed within a tough fascial capsule – the parotid sheath

apex = posterior to the angle of the mandible
base = related to the zygomatic arch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Parotid duct

A

The parotid duct passes horizontally from the anterior edge of the parotid gland.

At the anterior border of the masseter, it pierces the buccinator and enters the oral cavity through a small orifice opposite the second maxillary molar tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sensory innervation of the parotid sheath

A

greater auricular nerve (C2 and C3) provides sensory innervation to the parotid sheath and overlying skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Boundaries of anterior triangle of neck

A
  • Superiorly – inferior border of the mandible (jawbone).
  • Laterally – anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid.
  • Medially – sagittal line down the midline of the neck.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

suprahyoid muscles

A

located superiorly to hyoid bone:

Stylohyoid
Digastric
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

infrahyoid muscles

A

located inferiorly to hyoid bone:

Omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Thyrohyoid
Sternothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Contents of carotid triangle

A

Common carotid artery (which bifurcates within the carotid triangle)

Carotid sinus

Internal jugular vein

Hypoglossal and vagus nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Contents of submental triangle

A

the submental lymph nodes

=> filter lymph draining from the floor of the mouth and parts of the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Contents of submandibular triangle

A
  • The submandibular gland (salivary), and lymph nodes.

- The facial artery and vein also pass through this area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Boundaries of posterior triangle of neck

A
  • Anterior – posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid.
  • Posterior – anterior border of the trapezius muscle.
  • Inferior – middle 1/3 of the clavicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Contents of the posterior triangle of neck

A
  • many muscles (including a number of vertebral muscles which are covered by the pre-vertebral fascia)
  • the EJV
  • the accessory nerve (CN XI)
  • the cervical plexus
  • the trunks of the brachial plexus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Path of the external jugular vein

A

Formed by the retromandibular and posterior auricular veins

Lies superficially, crosses SCM muscle to reach posterior triangle.

Within the posterior triangle, the EJV pierces the investing layer of fascia and empties into the subclavian vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the 3 main distinct features of the cervical vertebrae?

A
  1. Triangular vertebral foramen.
  2. Bifid spinous process – this is where the spinous process splits into two distally.
  3. Transverse foramina – holes in the transverse processes.
    => They give passage to the vertebral artery, vein and sympathetic nerves.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

C-Spine - C1

A

= the atlas.

  • Has no vertebral body and no spinous process.
  • Has lateral masses which are connected by an anterior and posterior arch.
  • Each lateral mass contains a superior articular facet (for articulation with occipital condyles), and an inferior articular facet (for articulation with C2).
  • There is a transverse ligament of the atlas to secure the articulation with the dens of the axis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

C-spine - C2

A

= the axis.

  • Has the dens/odontoid process, which extends superiorly to articulate with the anterior arch of the atlas, in doing so creating the medial atlanto-axial joint.
  • The axis also contains superior articular facets, which articulate with the inferior articular facets of the atlas to form the two lateral atlanto-axial joints.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What and where is the pharynx?

A

a muscular tube that connects the oral and nasal cavity to the larynx and oesophagus.

It begins at the base of the skull and ends at the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage (C6).

Consists of:

  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nasopharynx - location, contents, function

A

• Located between between the base of the skull and the soft palate

• Performs a respiratory function by conditioning inspired air and propagating it to the larynx.
=> Lined with respiratory epithelium

• Contains the adenoid tonsils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Oropharynx - location, contents, function

A
  • Located between the soft palate and the superior border of the epiglottis
  • Contains the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, the lingual tonsils, the palatine tonsils and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle.
  • Involved in the involuntary and voluntary phases of swallowing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Laryngopharynx - location, contents

A
  • Located between the superior border of the epiglottis and inferior border of the cricoid cartilage (C6)
  • Continues inferiorly as the oesophagus
  • Contains the middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Waldeyer’s ring

A

= the ring of lymphoid tissue in the naso- and oropharynx

formed by the paired palatine tonsils, the adenoid tonsils and lingual tonsil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Motor/sensory innervation of the pharynx

A

MOTOR
Most muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).

the only exception being the stylopharyngeus (glossopharyngeal nerve).

SENSORY
Receives sensory innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the two main groups of pharyngeal muscles?

A

CIRCULAR - contract sequentially from superior to inferior to constrict the lumen and propel the bolus of food.

LONGITUDINAL - act to shorten and widen the pharynx and elevate the larynx during swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Circular pharyngeal muscles

A

Superior pharyngeal constrictor (oropharynx)

Middle pharyngeal constrictor (laryngopharynx)

Inferior pharyngeal constrictor (laryngopharynx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Longitudinal pharyngeal muscles

A

Stylopharyngeus (styloid process to pharynx)

Palatopharyngeus (hard palate to pharynx)

Salpingopharyngeus (Eustachian tube to pharynx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Vascular supply to the pharynx

A

ARTERIAL SUPPLY
via branches of the external carotid artery:
- Ascending pharyngeal artery
- Branches of the facial artery
- Branches of the lingual and maxillary arteries.

VENOUS DRAINAGE
Achieved by the pharyngeal venous plexus, which drains into the IJV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where is the Larynx?

A
  • Suspended from hyoid bone
  • Spans between C3 and C7
  • Covered anteriorly by the infrahyoid muscles
  • Covered laterally by the lobes of the thyroid gland.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Function of the larynx

A

Several important functions:

=> Phonation, cough reflex, protection of the lower respiratory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Sections of the larynx

A
  1. Supraglottis – from the inferior surface of the epiglottis to the vestibular folds (false vocal cords).
  2. Glottis – contains vocal cords and 1cm below them.
  3. Subglottis – from inferior border of the glottis to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What epithelium is there in the larynx?

A

Lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

An important exception to this is the true vocal cords, which are lined by a stratified squamous epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Vascular supply to the larynx

A

ARTERIAL SUPPLY

  • Superior laryngeal artery (from the external carotid)
  • Inferior laryngeal artery (from the thyrocervical trunk)

VENOUS DRAINAGE

  • Superior laryngeal vein (=> IJV)
  • Inferior laryngeal vein (=> left brachiocephalic vein )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Motor/Sensory innervation of larynx

A

via branches of the vagus nerve:

  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve – provides sensory innervation to the infraglottis, and motor innervation to all the internal muscles of larynx (except the cricothyroid).
  • Superior laryngeal nerve – the internal branch provides sensory innervation to the supraglottis, and the external branch provides motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cartilages of larynx

A

UNPAIRED:
Thyroid
Cricoid
Epiglottis

PAIRED
Arytenoid
Corniculate
Cuneiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is Adam’s apple?

A

= laryngeal prominence of thyroid cartilage

where the two sheets of cartilage joints anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Cricoid cartilage

A

= a complete ring of hyaline cartilage, completely encircling the airway

Articulates with the paired arytenoid cartilages posteriorly and thyroid cartilage superiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Epiglottis

A

= a leaf-shaped plate of elastic cartilage

Marks the entrance to the larynx

During swallowing, the epiglottis flattens and moves posteriorly to close of the larynx and prevent aspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the laryngeal folds?

A
  • Vocal folds (= true vocal cords)

- Vestibular folds (= false vocal cords)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Vocal folds / true vocal cords

A

Abducted, adducted, relaxed and tensed under control of the muscles of phonation to control the pitch of the sound created.

Relatively avascular, appear white in colour

Space between the vocal folds is called the rima glottidis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Vestibular folds / false vocal cords

A

Pink in colour

Act to provide protection to the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Groups of muscles of the larynx

A
  1. External muscles
    => Act to elevate or depress the larynx during swallowing
  2. Internal muscles.
    => Act to move the individual components of the larynx
    => Play a vital role in breathing and phonation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx

A

All innervated by the inferior laryngeal nerve, which is the terminal branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve

(except the cricothyroid – innervated by external branch of superior laryngeal nerve).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Thyroid gland - location and structure

A

Spans the C5-T1 vertebrae

Two lobes (left and right); connected by a central isthmus anteriorly.

Lobes are wrapped around the cricoid cartilage and superior rings of the trachea.

Located within the visceral compartment of the neck (along with the trachea, oesophagus and pharynx) which is bounded by the pre-tracheal fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Thyroid gland - arterial supply

A

= two main arteries (and one additional one)

Superior thyroid artery
- 1st branch of the external carotid a.

Inferior thyroid artery
- Arises from the thyrocervical trunk (branch of subclavian a.)

(Thyroid ima artery)

  • Only ~10% of people have this additional artery
  • Arises from brachiocephalic trunk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Thyroid gland - venous drainage

A

Superior, middle, and inferior thyroid veins, which form a venous plexus around the thyroid gland.

Superior and middle veins drain into the IJV

Inferior vein drains into the brachiocephalic trunk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Thyroid gland - innervation

A

Branches of sympathetic trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Thyroid gland - lymphatic drainage

A

To the paratracheal and deep cervical nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Parathyroid Glands - location

A

Located on posterior aspect of thyroid gland (external to the thyroid but within the pretracheal fascia)

Most people have 4 parathyroid glands (although variation from 2-6 is common)

=> Superior – located in the middle of posterior border of each thyroid lobe.

=> Inferior – usually found near the inferior poles of the thyroid gland, but location is inconsistent (can be found as far inferiorly as superior mediastinum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Cervical Plexus

A

Located in the posterior triangle of the neck, within the prevertebral layer of cervical fascia

Formed from the anterior rami of cervical spine nerves C1-C4

Muscular branches lie deep to sensory branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Sensory branches of cervical plexus

A

Greater Auricular Nerve (C2 and C3) => external ear and skin over parotid gland

Transverse Cervical Nerve (C2 and C3) => anterior neck

Lesser occipital Nerve (C2) => posterosuperior scalp

Supraclavicular Nerves (C3 and C4) => skin overlying supraclavicular fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Stertor

A

= noisy breathing due to partial obstruction ABOVE the larynx (tonsils, adenoids, tongue, angioedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Stridor

A

= noisy breathing due to partial obstruction BELOW the larynx

NEEDS ENT REFERRAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Signs of severe airway obstruction

A
  • Tracheal tug/recession
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypoxia
  • Use of Accessory mm.
  • Confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Differentials of stridor

A

CONGENITAL
Laryngomalacia
VC web / VC Palsy
Subglottic stenosis

ACQUIRED (acute)
Laryngeal trauma
Foreign body
Croup
Epiglottitis
Allergic reaction
ACQUIRED (chronic)
VC Palsy
VC polyp/cyst
Tumour
Thyroid mass
Subglottic stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Laryngeal trauma - presentation and management

A

Stridor, neck bruising, surgical emphysema

Mx = intubation +/- tracheostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Foreign body in airway - presentation, Ix, Mx

A

Feel something “stick” in throat,
sharp pain,
cannot eat/drink/swallow saliva

Ix = lateral neck X-ray and CXR

Mx = flexiscope and removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Management of Stridor

A
  1. Basic Hx and assess severity (cyanosis, RR, etc.)
  2. A-E assessment
  3. Secure Airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Methods of securing airway in stridor

A

a. Endotracheal Tube = 1st line
b. Cricothyroidotomy
c. Tracheostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Cricothyroidotomy - method

A

Brown IV cannula through cricothyroid membrane & connect high flow O2

Incision in midline of cricothyroid membrane and insert ET tube with O2 bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tracheostomy - method and complications

A

Tube inserted between 2nd and 4th rings of cartilage

Complications = tube blockage, wound infection, pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Indications for tracheostomy

A

Stridor,
Drain/prevent over-spilling of secretions,
Respiratory failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is tonsillitis?

A

= an acute bacterial infection of the tonsils

Caused by:

  • strep. pyogenes,
  • staphylococci
  • m. catarrhalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Tonsilitis - symptoms

A
  • Sore throat + odynophagia
  • Pyrexia, malaise, etc.
  • Lymphadenopathy

+/- pus on tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Tonsilitis - Centor Score

A
(1 point each):
	C – absence of [C]ough
	E – tonsillar [E]xudate
	N – tender cervical [N]odes
	T - >38oC [T]emperature 

If Score >3 = high chance of strep A and need ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Tonsilitis - complications

A
Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
Deep neck space infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Tonsilitis - management

A

IF UNILATERAL Sx => ENT Referral

Analgesia, fluids, soft food.

ABX – PO penicillin V (or clarithromycin if pen allergic)

Tonsillectomy if recurrent/complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When is a tonsillectomy done?

A

Done if tonsilitis is recurrent/complications:

7x in 1 year
5x in each of 2 years
3x in each of 3 years
2 episodes of quinsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Tonsillectomy - complications

A

1-2 weeks of pain post-op

Complications:

a. 1o post-op haemorrhage – needs surgery
b. 2o post-op haemorrhage – from infection => IV ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is peritonsillar abscess / Quinsy?

A

= pus between the tonsil capsule and lateral pharyngeal wall

Caused by strep. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Presentation of peritonsillar abscess / Quinsy

A

SYMPTOMS

  • Sore throat, odynophagia, dysphagia
  • Trismus
  • “Hot potato voice” (muffled voice)
  • Referred otalgia

SIGNS

  • Usually unilateral (DDx = tumour)
  • Unilateral swelling, LATERAL to tonsil.
  • Deviated tonsil and uvula to opposite side.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is trismus?

A

= restriction of the range of motion of the jaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Management of peritonsillar abscess / quinsy

A

ENT referral

  • Needle aspiration or incision & drainage
  • IV ABX +/- steroids for swelling
  • Analgesia, fluids, soft food.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

“glandular fever”

= EBV infection affecting LNs, tonsils and liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Infectious mononucleosis - symptoms

A
  • Prodromal illness: fever, malaise
  • Sore throat, dysphagia
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Abdo pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly (50%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Infectious mononucleosis - investigations

A

FBC
LFT
Blood film
Monospot test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Infectious mononucleosis - management

A

Self-resolves in 2-4 weeks

Supportive Tx – analgesia, fluids

ABX ONLY if tonsilitis (but NOT amoxicillin)

Monitor LFTs

Advice

  • Avoid intimate contact
  • No contact sport => splenic rupture
  • No alcohol => liver damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What ABX should be avoided in a patient with glandular fever?

A

ABX are not routinely given as EBV is a virus
=> should only be given if there is evidence of bacterial tonsillitis

Avoid ampicillin and amoxicillin => rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Pharyngitis - acute/chronic

A
  1. Acute:
    Sudden-onset sore throat
    Usually viral (rhinovirus, coronavirus, influenza, HSV, VZV)
    May be bacterial (group A strep)
  2. Chronic:
    Long-standing sore throat
    Specific (syphilis, TB, toxoplasmosis)
    Non-specific (GORD, tobacco, chronic sinusitis).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Pharyngitis - management

A

fluids, analgesia,

gargle warm salty water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What causes epiglottis?

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Epiglottitis - Sx

A

PHARYNX NORMAL O/E

Very sore throat + high fever

Dysphagia, drooling

Stridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Epiglottitis - Mx

A

Immediate admission

Airway protection – intubation/tracheostomy

IV ABX and steroids

DO NOT TRY TO EXAMINE THROAT/MOUTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How do deep neck space infections occur?

A

Due to spread of throat infections (pus/abscess) via para or retro-pharyngeal space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Deep neck space infection - symptoms

A
Sore throat + odynophagia
Dysphagia, drooling
Fever 
Trismus
Reduced neck movements
“Hot potato voice”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Deep neck space infection - signs

A

Poor Head Movement
Neck mass
Septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Deep neck space infection - investigations

A

CT – shows deep neck spaces
USS – shows abscesses
OPG – dental x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Deep neck space infection - management

A

Emergency A - E Assessment

Airway protection
IV ABX
Surgical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Deep neck space infection - complications

A
  • Airway compromise
  • Empyema
  • Pneumonia
  • Mediastinitis (50% mortality)
  • Carotid artery erosion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Why can you get referred otalgia with a sore throat?

A

Ear has shared nerve supply with oro/laryngopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Globus Pharyngeus

A

Painless sensation of “sticking” / lump in throat even when not swallowing

Causes – LP reflux, stress/anxiety, minor inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Globus Pharyngeus - Mx

A

Must exclude pathologies like cancer

Mx –
Treat any underlying cause,
Avoid caffeine/smoking,
Sip icy sparkling water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Definition of sleep apnoea

A

30 or more episodes of cessation of breathing, each lasting at least 10 seconds, over a period of 7 hours of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Sleep Apnoea Index

A

measures the number of episodes to determine the severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Causes of sleep apnoea

A
  1. OBSTRUCTIVE – due to upper airway collapse (decreased O2 causes reflex of waking slightly and taking deep breath).
  2. CENTRAL – fault with central respiratory drive (e.g. cerebral palsy, cognitive defect).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Risk factors for sleep apnoea

A
Old age
Male
Down’s Syndrome
Sedatives
OBESITY
Smoking/alcohol
Craniofacial abnormalities
Neuromuscular Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Sleep apnoea - Sx

A
  • Snoring/choking in sleep and witnessed apnoeas
  • Restless/non-refreshing sleep
  • Daytime sleepiness and decreased concentration
  • Irritability and decreased libido

Kids – poor school performance

Babies – poor feeding as blocked nasal breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Sleep apnoea - Ix

A
  1. History
  2. Examination – upper airway endoscopy
  3. Sleep Studies
    - Measure pulse, ECG, O2 overnight
    - Audio/video recording of sleep
    - Polysomnography = gold-standard version
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Sleep apnoea - Mx

A
  1. Lifestyle – weight loss, smoking/alcohol reduction
  2. Conservative – nasal splints/tape & jaw advancers
  3. Medical – CPAP via mask
    => Noisy and uncomfortable
  4. Surgery – adenotonsillectomy, polypectomy, uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Management of snoring

A
  1. Lifestyle – weight loss, smoking/alcohol reduction

2. Conservative – nasal splints/tape & jaw advancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Major salivary glands

A

= 3 paired glands

  1. Parotid – serous
  2. Submandibular – mixed
  3. Sublingual – mucous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Why is the parotid gland painful if swollen?

A

it has a fibrous capsule which is painful if stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is xerostomia?

What are some causes?

A

= dry mouth

Causes:
•	Depression/anxiety
•	Drugs – antimuscarinics/sympathomimetics
•	Radiotherapy to head/neck
•	Sjogren’s Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome

A

= an autoimmune disorder of decreased saliva/mucous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is there increased risk of in people with Sjogren’s Syndrome?

A

increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome - symptoms

A

DRY MOUTH + EYES (+ vagina)
Glossitis
+/- Parotid gland enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome - investigations

A

HLA, B8, DR2
Specific antigens – SSA, SSB
Labial biopsy = diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Sjogren’s Syndrome - management

A

Steroids
Artificial saliva/tears
(Parotidectomy if recurrent parotitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is Sialadenitis?

What are the causes and risk factors?

A

= inflammation of salivary gland

Causes – infection, stones, malignancy

RFs – dehydration, poor oral hygiene, elderly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Sialadenitis - Sx

A

Swollen, tender gland
+/- pus from duct
+/- fever and systemic Sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Sialadenitis - Mx

A

Hydration & analgesia

High dose ABX +/- pus drainage

(Gland removal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Parotitis

A

= inflammation of parotid gland

Causes:

  • Infection (measles, mumps, HIV, TB, candidiasis)
  • Sarcoid
  • Drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Sialolithiasis

A

= Calculi in salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

scialectasis

A

Dilation of salivary ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Sialolithiasis - Sx

A

Post-prandial swelling & pain

+/- palpable calculi in gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Sialolithiasis - Ix

A

CT/X-ray

Sialogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Sialolithiasis - Mx

A

Hydration & analgesia
Duct massage
Surgical stone removal (if necessary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Non-salivary causes of facial swelling

A
Masseter hypertrophy
Lymphadenopathy
Dental infection/abscess
Mastoiditis
Cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Salivary causes of facial swelling

A

Sialadenitis
Sialolithiasis
Sjogren’s Syndrome
Neoplasm – benign/malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Process of normal voice production

A

= due to vocal cord vibration

Oscillation of VCs causes sound wave that resonates within vocal tract

Vowel production = vibration of OPEN VCs and mouth/tongue position

Consonant production = force air through narrowed VCs

173
Q

Vocal cords - fundamental frequency (F0)

A

= PITCH (Hz)

Determined by density of vocal fold

Density altered by muscle contraction/relaxation

Higher density = lower frequency (e.g. males, Reinke oedema)

174
Q

Vocal cords - Intensity/Pressure Level

A

= LOUDNESS (dB)

Determined by subglottic pressure

Pressure depends on degree of VC closure/length of closure

Lower pressure = weaker voice (e.g. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy).

175
Q

Dysphonia

A

= any voice impairment

176
Q

Dysarthria

A

= reduced voice muscle coordination

177
Q

Dysphasia

A

= receptive or comprehensive impairment

178
Q

Structural/neoplastic causes of voice disorders

A

Malignant = Laryngeal Carcinoma

Benign – Polyp
Benign – Reinke’s Oedema

179
Q

Laryngeal Carcinoma - causes

A

Causes = smoking, genetics, alcohol excess

180
Q

Laryngeal Carcinoma - Presentation

A

Sx
= progressive hoarseness; +/- stridor, dysphagia, referred otalgia, cervical lymphadenopathy.

Signs
= irregular mass; leukoplakia/eythroplakia

181
Q

Laryngeal Carcinoma - Mx

A

Mx = radiotherapy; surgical excision.

182
Q

Vocal cord Polyp - cause and Sx

A

Causes = shouting

Sx = Husky (deeper) voice

Signs = smooth, grey swelling (usually UNILATERAL)

183
Q

Vocal cord Polyp - Mx

A

= surgical excision; +/- medical Tx; +/- voice therapy

184
Q

Reinke’s Oedema

A

= a collection of fluid in Reinke’s space

Causes = smoking, voice overuse, LP reflux

185
Q

Reinke’s Oedema - Presentation

A

Sx = deep, gravelly voice

Signs = grey/red swelling (usually BILATERAL)

186
Q

Reinke’s Oedema - Mx

A

Stop smoking/treat reflux;
Surgical reduction;
Voice therapy.

187
Q

Reinke’s space

A

= a potential space between the vocal ligament and the overlying mucosa

188
Q

Inflammatory causes of voice disorders

A

Laryngitis

Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

189
Q

Laryngitis

A

= inflammation of the larynx

Cause = Bacterial / fungal / HPV

Sx:
• Hoarse/croaky/voice loss;
• Sore throat, odynophagia;
• URTI symptoms

Signs = erythematous, sloughy VCs

190
Q

Laryngitis - Mx

A

Self-limiting

Voice rest,
Supportive - analgesia, fluids;
Steam inhalations

191
Q

Laryngopharyngeal Reflux - Sx

A
Sx 
•	Strained voice + decreased pitch range
•	Dysphagia & globus sensation
•	Cough and constant throat clearing
•	May NOT have any heartburn

Signs
• General erythema & oedema

192
Q

Laryngopharyngeal Reflux - Mx

A
  • Gaviscon & PPI
  • Vocal hygiene
  • Dietary advice – avoid fatty/fried food & caffeine
193
Q

Neuromuscular causes of voice disorders

A

= recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy.

194
Q

Muscle tension imbalance causes of voice disorders

A

= excessive tension of laryngeal muscles.

195
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy - causes

A
  • Surgical trauma (e.g. thyroidectomy)
  • Malignancy
  • Idiopathic
  • Neurological disorders
196
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy - Sx

A
  • Weak, higher pitched voice
  • Tires with prolonged use
  • Choking on fluids
  • Weak “bovine” cough
  • Diplophonia (two tone voice)
197
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy - Ix

A
  1. Examination – listen to voice, head & neck exam, CNS exam
  2. CXR – to exclude mediastinal mass/pancoast tumour
  3. CT (skull base to mid-thorax) – check for lesions along nerve
  4. Barium swallow – if oesophageal lesion suspected
198
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy - Mx

A

Can just wait for spontaneous recovery

Voice therapy

VC medialisation – inject collagen/surgery

199
Q

Excessive tension of laryngeal muscles - causes

A
  • Stress/anxiety
  • Following URTI
  • Long-term ineffective voice use
  • Compensation for underlying VC problem (e.g. cyst)
200
Q

Excessive tension of laryngeal muscles - Sx

A
  • Husky voice – worse with use
  • Deeper or higher pitched than expected
  • Unstable voice
  • Sore throat
201
Q

Excessive tension of laryngeal muscles - Mx

A
  • Vocal hygiene – steam inhalations
  • Lifestyle advice – avoid irritants (smoke, caffeine, spicy food)
  • Voice therapy
202
Q

Aims of voice therapy

A

Aims to restore voice, eliminate benign nodules and avoid further vocal problems.

203
Q

Indications for voice therapy

A

LP reflux
Nodules, cysts, polyps
Muscle tension imbalance
Psychological voice problems

204
Q

Components of voice therapy

A

Semi-occluded airflow exercises – reduce muscle straining

Efficient respiration

Voice resonance and projection

Advice on vocal hygiene – steam inhalations, avoid irritants, etc.

205
Q

Types of head and neck malignancies

A

Aerodigestive tract (nasal/oral cavity, pharynx, larynx) = SCCs

Glands

Lymph nodes – lymphomas, secondary tumours

Thyroid = papillary, follicular, medullary, anaplastic

Skin = SCCs, BCCs, melanomas

206
Q

Risk factors for head and neck cancers

A

Tobacco/alcohol (including chewing tobacco)

HPV 16 & 18

Occupation – woodwork, textiles, nickel

Leukoplakia
=> 1/3 become cancerous

Eythroplakia
=> ½ become cancerous

207
Q

Leukoplakia

A

Grey/White patches in the mouth

Don’t come off when scraped

=> 1/3 become cancerous

208
Q

Erythroplakia

A

Red patches in the mouth

Bleed easily if scraped

=> ½ become cancerous

209
Q

2WW referral for ?head & neck malignancy

A
  • Odynophagia/Dysphagia >3 weeks
  • Hoarseness >3 weeks
  • Persistent, unexplained neck lump >3 weeks
  • Persistent mouth ulceration >3 weeks
  • Leukoplakia/Eythroplakia
210
Q

Signs of head & neck malignancy

A
  • Persistent, unexplained neck lump >3 weeks *
  • Persistent mouth ulceration >3 weeks *
  • Leukoplakia/Eythroplakia *
  • Bleeding in mouth/throat or haemoptysis
  • General B symptoms – weight loss, night sweats, fever
211
Q

Symptoms of head & neck malignancy

A

OFTEN UNILATERAL

  • Odynophagia/Dysphagia >3 weeks *
  • Hoarseness >3 weeks *
  • Trismus
  • Referred otalgia
  • Dyspnoea/Stridor
212
Q

Head & neck malignancy - investigations

A

History and Head/neck exam + flexible nasal endoscopy

Bloods – FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT, glucose, albumin
Assess nutritional status

Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)

BIOPSY = DIAGNOSTIC
=> But avoid if possible as need a GA

CT/MRI of neck (for TNM staging)
CXR/CT chest (for TNM staging)

213
Q

Glottic tumour

A

= most common head and neck cancer, and good prognosis

Hoarseness first, then odynophagia/stridor
Often no lymphadenopathy

214
Q

Supra/subglottic tumour

A

= late presentation and poor prognosis

Odynophagia/stridor first, then hoarseness
Referred otalgia

215
Q

Head & Neck cancer - management

A

Depends on TNM stage & age/health of patient.

MDT involvement.

  1. Surgery
    - Neck dissection to remove LNs +/- SCM, IJV, SAN
    - Laryngectomy
  2. Radiotherapy/chemotherapy
  3. Transoral Laser Resection
216
Q

What is a laryngectomy?

A

= “end tracheostomy”

Remove the larynx and bring airway to surface

Separated from the nose/mouth/oesophagus

Unlike tracheostomy where still have airway above tube

217
Q

Laryngectomy - follow up

A
  • Swallowing difficulties (SALT)

- Voice restoration (SALT)

218
Q

Thyroid cancer - Sx

A

Neck lump, moves when swallow/tongue out

Hoarse voice / breathing difficulties

219
Q

Thyroid cancer - Mx

A

Thyroidectomy
Neck dissection
+/- radioactive iodine

220
Q

Causes of dysphagia

A

Structural changes – e.g. post-op

Obstructive – e.g. malignancy, pharyngeal pouch

Neurological – e.g. CVA/stroke

Muscular

Respiratory

Gastro-oesophageal – e.g. LP reflux/GORD

221
Q

Signs/symptoms of dysphagia

A

Food/fluid pockets in mouth and/or “sticks” in throat

Aspiration => coughing, wheezing, recurrent chest infections

Dehydration

Weight loss

222
Q

What should be done for a patient with unexplained dysphagia >3 weeks

A

2WW referral

223
Q

Dysphagia - Ix

A

Video-fluoroscopy
Barium swallow
Endoscopy

224
Q

Dysphagia - Mx

A

MDT management

Swallowing exercises
Oral care – steam inhalations, artificial saliva
Posture and positioning
Adaptive equipment – cups/straws/ spoons
Modified diet – pureed, thickeners
225
Q

What is the most common cause of a neck lump?

A

Reactive Lymphadenopathy (caused by infection)

226
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - reactive lymphadenopathy

A

Enlarged LNs
Infective cause

Will have Hx of infective Sx

227
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - lymphadenopathy due to neoplasm

A

Lymphoma

Rubbery, painless lump
B-cell Sx

228
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - Thyroglossal cyst

A

Moves up with tongue protrusion

Common in <20 yo

229
Q

Congenital neck lumps

A

Thyroglossal cyst
Cystic hygroma
Branchial cyst

230
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - Branchial cyst

A

Smooth, mobile, oval

Most commonly located along the anterior border and the upper 1/3 of SCM

Present in early adulthood

231
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - Cystic hygroma

A

Lymphatic lesion – soft, fluctuant, transilluminable

90% present <2 yo

232
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - neoplasm of salivary glands

A

Features depend on type

CN VII palsy if malignant

233
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - infection of salivary glands

A

Swollen & painful
Pain related to eating

Xerostomia & dry eyes

234
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - stone of salivary glands

A

Swollen & painful
Pain related to eating

Xerostomia & dry eyes

235
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - carotid aneurysm

A

Pulsatile, lateral mass

+/- dysphagia, hoarseness

236
Q

Head/Neck lump differentials - Sebaceous cyst/lipoma

A

Soft, mobile

+/- pain

237
Q

Excess wax - management

A

Wax softening drops – e.g. sodium bicarbonate/olive oil

Ear syringing

238
Q

Outer ear foreign bodies - management

A

Wax hook/forceps/suction to remove FB

GA if uncooperative/deep in canal

239
Q

What are contraindications to ear syringing?

A

grommets, perforation, otitis externa

240
Q

Pinna haematoma

A

Blood collects between cartilage and perichondrium.

Caused by Trauma

Complications = Avascular necrosis & infection (= CAULIFLOWER EAR)

Management = immediate drainage.

241
Q

What types of outer ear neoplasm are there?

A

Benign – papilloma or adenoma

Malignant – BCC or SCC

242
Q

Otitis externa - signs and symptoms

A

= inflammation of the ear canal

Symptoms:

  • Pain & swelling
  • Itching
  • Hearing loss
  • Discharge (from middle ear through perforated TM)

Signs:

  • Tender pinna/tragus
  • Swollen/red canal
  • TM not visible
243
Q

Causes of otitis externa

A

Skin conditions (e.g. eczema, psoriasis)

Generalised skin infections (e.g. impetigo)

Localised skin infections (e.g. pseudomonas, S. aureus, candida)

Trauma/foreign bodies

Water exposure

244
Q

Otitis externa - Mx

A

Mild/simple (TM visible)
• Analgesia and keep dry
• Topical ABX +/- steroid

Severe/complex (TM not visible/Tx resistant):
=>	ENT referral
•	Microsuction
•	Pope wick & drops
•	PO ABX if pinna cellulitis
245
Q

Differentials/complications of otitis externa

A
Necrotising OE
Mastoiditis
Pinna perichondritis
Pinna cellulitis
Middle ear infection (discharge but no canal swelling)
246
Q

What is Necrotising OE?

A

= complication of Acute otitis externa (AOE) where the infection spreads to skull base.

Caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa.

247
Q

Necrotising OE - signs

A

Severe pain – worse at night and when chewing
Nerve palsies – CN VII, IX, X, XI
Canal granulations

248
Q

Necrotising OE - Mx

A

ENT referral
High dose IV ABX
CT/MRI

249
Q

Acute otitis media with effusion (OME)

A

= “Glue Ear”

Symptoms:

  • Middle ear fluid with no Sx of Infection (painless)
  • Conductive hearing loss of 20-30 dB
  • Speech delay/school problems
250
Q

Acute otitis media with effusion - RFs

A
  • Child
  • Smoking
  • Large adenoids
  • Nasal abnormalities
251
Q

Acute otitis media with effusion - cause

A

Cause = Eustachian tube dysfunction

Due to:
Nasal/sinus infection
Allergic response
Ciliary dysfunction

252
Q

Acute otitis media with effusion - Mx

A

50% spontaneous resolution

If >3 months:

  • Grommets – ventilate middle ear (pop out in 18 months)
  • Hearing aids
253
Q

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media (ASOM)

A

= acute infection of the middle ear

Causes – H. influenza (most common bacterial cause), S. pneumoniae, M. catarrhalis, RSV/rhinovirus

254
Q

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media - signs and symptoms

A

Symptoms:

  • PAIN! => crying/screaming child
  • Fever / systemic upset
  • Conductive hearing loss
  • Otorrhoea (pus +/- blood) => if TM perforated, this relieves pain

Signs:

  • Bulging TM
  • TM perforation & pus/blood
255
Q

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media - management

A

by GP:

  1. Analgesia & wait for resolution in 3-7 days
2.	PO amoxicillin +/- steroid ear drops ONLY if:
•	<6 months old
•	<2 years with bilateral Sx
•	Risk of complications
•	Systemically very unwell
256
Q

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media - complications

A
  • Residual perforation/effusion (chronic SOM)
  • Ossicle necrosis
  • Tympanosclerosis
  • Intracranial sepsis/meningitis
  • Facial Palsy
  • Labyrinthitis
  • Mastoiditis
257
Q

Mastoiditis - Sx and Mx

A

Otalgia, hearing loss, malaise/pyrexia, post-auricular swelling, pinna down & forwards.

Mx = ABX +/- surgery (ENT referral)

258
Q

What is Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media?

A

Recurrent ASOM (>6 weeks) leading to damage of the TM.

259
Q

Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media - Sx

A

Repeated ottorhoea

CHL – 10-20 dB or more

260
Q

Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media - Mx

A

= ENT referral to assess possible complications:

Regular aural toilet
ABX + steroid ear drops

261
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

= accumulation of keratinising squamous epithelium attracting anaerobic bacteria (pseudomonas aeruginosa).

262
Q

Cholesteatoma - Sx and signs

A

FOUL SMELLING OTORRHOEA

Attic retraction & squamous debris

Conductive hearing loss

263
Q

Cholesteatoma - Ix

A

CT/MRI

264
Q

Cholesteatoma - Mx

A

ENT referral

Surgical removal of sac
Mastoidectomy if advanced disease

265
Q

Cholesteatoma - complications

A

= due to erosion of bone & nearby structures:

  • Facial nerve palsy
  • Vertigo
  • Intracranial sepsis
  • Conductive HL

(FOUL OTORRHOEA + FN PALSY NEEDS ENT REFERRAL)

266
Q

Tympanic Membrane perforation - causes

A
AOM
Foreign bodies
Head injury – temporal bone fracture
Barotrauma
Sudden increase in air pressure – e.g. loud noise/slap
267
Q

Temporal bone fracture

A

Needs CT

20% transverse => sensorineural HL
80% longitudinal => conductive HL

Complications – TM perforation, CSF leak, bleed, FN palsy

268
Q

Tympanic Membrane perforation - Sx

A
Conductive HL (10-20 dB)
\+/- pain, tinnitus, vertigo
269
Q

Tympanic Membrane perforation - Mx

A

Heals in 6 weeks
=> Keep dry & wait

GP follow up in 6 weeks
=> If not healed, then ENT referral

270
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

A familial condition where spongey bone forms around oval window, causing fusion with stapes.

271
Q

Otosclerosis - Sx

A

Progressive, bilateral conductive HL

+/- tinnitus

272
Q

Otosclerosis - Mx

A

Hearing aid

Stapedectomy

273
Q

Middle ear neoplasms

A
  1. SCCs = malignant
    - Bloody otorrhoea & deep pain
    - May cause FN palsy
  2. Glomus tumours (paraganglionic cells) = slow-growing and benign:
    - Pulsatile tinnitus & CHL
    - Pulsatile red mass behind eardrum
    - May cause FN palsy or CN IX/XII paralysis
274
Q

Process of hearing

A

Sound waves vibrate tympanic membrane => transmits to ossicles

Ossicles amplify & transmit to oval window

Pressure waves through perilymph vibrate tectorial membrane

Hair cells are moved against organ of corti and stimulate cochlear nerve

Signals carried to cortex

275
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

= the perception of noise with no external stimuli

Due to incorrect information reaching the brain or incorrect processing in the brain

276
Q

Causes of subjective / intrinsic tinnitus

A

= only heard by the patient

Idiopathic
Drugs
Trauma
Presbycusis
Labyrinthitis
Meniere’s
Vestibular schwannoma
Otosclerosis
277
Q

Causes of objective/extrinsic tinnitus

A

= heard by others as well

Palatal myoclonus
Insect in EAM
Vascular

278
Q

Vascular tinnitus

A

= PULSATILE

AVM / glomus jugular tumour

Needs CT/MRI

279
Q

Tinnitus - Mx

A

NO CURE => control symptoms

  1. Explain
    - Incorrect information reaching the brain OR
    - Incorrect processing in the brain
  2. Masking:
    - Radio/TV in background
    - “Tinnitus maskers” – play noise into other ear
  3. Counselling:
    - CBT, mindfulness
    - Tinnitus therapy – techniques to avoid stress response
    - Support groups
  4. Heading aids – if associated with SNHL
280
Q

Unilateral SNHL - causes

A
Acoustic neuroma
Trauma
Vascular insult 
Post-labyrinthitis
Otosclerosis
Congenital
281
Q

Bilateral SNHL - causes

A
Presbycusis
Noise induced
Metabolic
Otosclerosis
Congenital
282
Q

Sudden onset SNHL - causes and Mx

A

Emergency => ENT Referral

Causes:
•	Meniere’s
•	Viral infection 
•	Ototoxic drugs
•	Temporal bone fracture
•	Tumour (exclude acoustic neuroma with CT/MRI)

Management:
• ENT Referral
• PO Steroids ASAP! (prednisolone)

283
Q

When is the prognosis of SNHL worse?

A

Prognosis = worse if there is also severe vertigo

284
Q

Acoustic Neuroma - Sx

A

Tumour affects the IAM (containing CN VII and CN VIII) and if big then also the base of skull

Sx:

  • Vertigo = Progressive and constant
  • Facial palsies
  • Headache
  • Ataxia
  • SNHL, Tinnitus

If tumour is large – can get trigeminal paraesthesia

285
Q

Acoustic Neuroma - Ix

A

Must investigate for this with all unilateral SNHL

  • Pure tone audiometry
  • CT/MRI
286
Q

Acoustic Neuroma - Mx

A

5% regress and 80% won’t grow – “watch and wait”
- Symptom management

~15% will grow

  • Radiotherapy to prevent further growth
  • Surgical excision (might end up with dead ear/no vestibular function/ facial nerve damage)
287
Q

Noise-induced hearing loss - Cause and features

A

Caused by chronic loud noise exposure (initially reversible, but eventually permanent)

Features:
• SYMMETRICAL SNHL and tinnitus
• Dip at 4kHx on audiogram

288
Q

Noise-induced hearing loss - Management

A

Prevention is key

Hearing aid

289
Q

What is non-organic hearing loss?

A

= feigned loss of hearing to get compensation.

290
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

= SNHL due to aging (>50 years), due to loss of outer hair cells of cochlea.

291
Q

Presbycusis - features

A

Bilateral high frequency SNHL +/- tinnitus

Worse if background noise

292
Q

Presbycusis - Ix

A

Hx and otoscopy

PTA / tympanogram

293
Q

Presbycusis - Mx

A

Reassure – stress that low/mid frequency hearing is good, and decline is gradual

Hearing aid

Hearing tactics

294
Q

What are “hearing tactics”

A

Facing speaker,
Decrease background noise,
Be open; tell others you have difficulty hearing.

295
Q

Peripheral causes of vertigo

A

= ears, eyes, somatosensors

Labyrinthitis / Vestibular neuronitis
Vestibular Migraine 
BPPV
Meniere’s 
Ototoxic drugs
296
Q

Non-vertigo causes of dizziness

A

Postural hypotension / vasovagal

Arrhythmias

Presbystasis (age-related dysfunction of the vestibular system)

297
Q

What is labyrinthitis?

What are the symptoms?

A

Vertigo caused by inflammation of the VESTIBULOCOCHLEAR SYSTEM

Caused by URTI/AOM

Symptoms:

  • Persistent vertigo (sudden onset, lasts days to weeks)
  • N&V
  • Nystagmus
  • +/- SNHL
298
Q

Labyrinthitis - Ix and Mx

A

Ix:

  • ENT exam
  • Pure Tone Audiometry

Mx:
= SUPPORTIVE

=> (Vestibular sedatives = SHORT TERM ONLY), Antiemetics, Bed rest
=> Vestibular rehabilitation – take away all vestibular sedatives so the system can recalibrate.

299
Q

What is vestibular neuronitis?

A

Inflammation of VESTIBULAR NERVE, caused by viral infection.

Symptoms:

  • Persistent vertigo (sudden onset, lasts days to weeks)
  • N&V
  • Nystagmus
  • No ear Sx
300
Q

Vestibular neuronitis - Ix and Mx

A

Investigations:

  • ENT exam
  • PTA

Management = supportive:

  • (Vestibular sedatives), Antiemetics, Bed rest
  • Vestibular rehabilitation – take away all vestibular sedatives so the system can recalibrate.
301
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

A

Vertigo caused by displaced semi-circular calculi

Occur either spontaneously or caused by head injury.

Vertigo is sudden and episodic (if head moved)
Lasts seconds – minutes

Symptoms:

  • Positional vertigo
  • Rotational Nystagmus
  • NO EAR Sx
  • +/- N&V
302
Q

BPPV - Ix and Mx

A

Investigations:

  • ENT Exam
  • PTA
  • Dix-Hallpike Manoeuvre

Management:

  • Eply Manouvre
  • Exercises to do at home
  • Reassure – resolves in 12-18 months
303
Q

Dix-Hallpike Manoeuvre

A
  • Performed by rapidly moving the patient from a sitting position to the supine position with the head turned 45° to the right.
  • After waiting approximately 20-30 seconds, the patient is returned to the sitting position.
  • The procedure is then repeated on the left side.
  • If the test is positive, the patient will complain of VERTIGO and you should be able to directly observe NYSTAGMUS
304
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

What are the key symptoms?

A

Occurs due to excess endolymph, cause is unknown.

Sudden onset and recurrent
Lasts 30-40 mins

Triad of Symptoms (occurring at the same time as vertigo):
1.	Vertigo
2.	Tinnitus 
3.	Low frequency SNHL
(+/- aural fullness, +/- N&V)
305
Q

Meniere’s Disease - Ix

A

Investigations:

  • ENT exam
  • PTA
  • Romberg Test +ve (during attacks)
    • CT/MRI to r/o neuroma
306
Q

What is required for all facial palsies?

A

All facial palsies need a thorough ENT & neuro examination.

307
Q

Facial palsy with sparing of frontalis

A

= UMN problem

308
Q

Entire facial palsy

A

= LMN problem

309
Q

Facial Palsy - Ix

A

Hx, ENT exam, neuro exam

PTA

Electroneuronography (= electrical stimulation of FN)

MRI/CT – if suspicious case

310
Q

Facial Palsy Mx - eye care

A

Artificial tears,

Eye patch at night

311
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Most common facial palsy.
Caused by viral infection of FN

Symptoms:

  • Sudden onset (hours)
  • Ipsilateral facial palsy (incl. frontalis)
  • +/- pain
  • No ear/CNS pathology
312
Q

What conditions cause an increased risk for Bell’s palsy?

A

Increased risk in diabetes and pregnancy

313
Q

Bell’s palsy - Mx

A

80% fully recover in 2 months

Mx:

  • High dose PO steroids
  • Eye care + analgesia
314
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

A

Caused by HSV infection of facial nerve.

Symptoms:

  • Ipsilateral facial palsy (incl. frontalis)
  • Ear pain
  • Vesicular rash in/on ear
  • +/- SNHL, vertigo, tinnitus
315
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome - Mx

A

Palsy = irreversible

PO Acyclovir +/- corticosteroids
(unless systemically unwell, then IV acyclovir)

Eye care + analgesia

316
Q

Causes of facial palsy in children

A

Congenital
Forceps delivery
Chickenpox
Acute OM

317
Q

Red flags of facial palsy

A

Associated ear infection / foul otorrhoea => cholesteatoma

Progressive palsy / parotid mass => neoplasm

Associated neuro symptoms => CVA

318
Q

Nasal Polyps

A

= grey/white, soft & mobile pedunculated swelling in nose/sinuses

Symptoms:

  • Nasal obstruction
  • Anosmia
  • Rhinorrhoea
319
Q

What should be considered with unilateral or bleeding nasal polyps?

A

RED FLAG => needs ENT referral

320
Q

Nasal Polyps - associations

A

Cystic fibrosis
Infective sinusitis
Samter’s triad – polyp + asthma + aspirin sensitivity

321
Q

Nasal Polyps - Ix

A

Anterior rhinoscopy – biopsy if suspicious

322
Q

Nasal Polyps - Mx

A

Medical – antihistamines, steroid drops/spray, decongestants

Surgical – polypectomy (if significant blockage/red flag features)

323
Q

Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma - RFs and Sx

A

= SCC

RFs – southern Chinese origin, EBV

Symptoms:

  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Unilateral otalgia
  • Unilateral OME
  • Nasal obstruction
  • CN palsies
324
Q

Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma - Mx

A

CT & MRI
Radiotherapy
Surgery

325
Q

What can tenderness on palpation of tragus / pinna indicate?

A

often tender in otitis externa

326
Q

Things to cover in an ear history of presenting complaint

A

Hearing loss – when, progression, side

Otalgia / Pain – side, nature of pain

Otorrhoea / Discharge – nature (e.g. foul smelling, blood, CSF), side, duration

Tinnitus – pulsatile or not, severity, sleep, side

Vertigo / Dizziness – what they mean, duration, associated Sx

Facial Nerve Sx

327
Q

Potential presenting nose complaints

What are red flags?

A
  • Blockage
  • Discharge
  • Change in smell
  • Facial Pain
  • Bleeding

Red flags – numb face, neck lump, unilateral Sx, proptosis, diplopia, eye displacement.

328
Q

How is an examination of the nose performed?

A

Inspection of outer nose
=> Front, side, top, bottom

Palpation

Anterior rhinoscopy
=> Use finger to lift up tip of nose

Nasal airway patency
=> Use a metal speculum to occlude one nostril gently from underneath.

329
Q

How is an examination of the oral cavity performed?

A
General Inspection
=>	Swelling on face 
 
Inspection of mouth
-	Lips
-	Gums and Teeth
-	Tongue – dorsum, sides, underneath 
-	Buccal mucosa
-	Parotid duct

Inspect palate and uvula

  • Use tongue depressor to gently depress the tongue
  • Candidiasis/papilloma/ulceration
  • Deviation of uvula

Inspect tonsils, pharyngeal arches
- Use tongue depressor to gently depress the tongue

Inspect floor of mouth:

  • Assess for abnormalities of submandibular gland duct
  • Assess for ulceration

Palpation:

  • Palpate any identified lumps
  • Palpate lateral walls for parotid gland and duct
  • Palpate floor for submandibular gland and duct
330
Q

How is an examination of the neck performed?

A

General inspection

Inspection:

  • Lumps, Asymmetry, Scars, Skin changes
  • Distended neck veins

Palpate:

  • Lumps
  • Trachea
  • Carotid pulse (one side at a time)

Palpate Lymph Nodes systematically (anterior and posterior triangle)

331
Q

If a neck lump is found, what should be done.

A

Inspection -

  • ask the patient to swallow (+/- sip of water).
  • Any lump attached to the pre-tracheal fascia will move upwards on swallowing – i.e. a thyroid lump or thyroglossal cyst

Palpation

=> Ix = USS

332
Q

What are some ototoxic drugs?

A

Aminoglycosides (e.g. Gentamicin),
Furosemide,
Aspirin
A number of cytotoxic agents

333
Q

Causes of epistaxis

A

Idiopathic or Nose-picking = most common

Trauma
Infection
Tumours

334
Q

Features of posterior epistaxis

A
  • Profuse
  • Bilateral
  • Failed anterior packing
335
Q

Epistaxis - predisposing factors

A
  • HTN
  • Anticoagulants, NSAIDs, aspirin
  • Coagulopathies
  • Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
336
Q

What should be considered with unilateral Epistaxis in adolescent boys?

A

consider juvenile angiofibroma (a nasopharyngeal tumour)

=> Needs CT and excision

337
Q

Epistaxis - Mx

A
  1. First aid
  2. Resuscitation (if severe)
  3. Cauterisation (if anterior bleed)
    => Using silver nitrate or bipolar diathermy
  4. Packing (anterior = 1st line, posterior if anterior fails)
  5. Sphenopalatine artery ligation
  6. Surgery – if cannot stop bleed
338
Q

Epistaxis first aid

A
  • Lean forward, pinch fleshy part – for 10 mins
  • Apply ice to bridge of nose
  • Avoid swallowing blood
339
Q

Epistaxis - resuscitation

A
  • Estimate blood loss, measure pulse/BP
  • FBC, coag screen, G&S
  • IV fluids if needed
340
Q

Epistaxis - packing

A

Done if cannot visualise or cauterise bleed

NEED PROPHYLACTIC ABX

  • First line – anterior packing
  • Second line – posterior packing
341
Q

Management of nose fracture

A
  1. Manage Epistaxis / acute problems
  2. MUST Rule out serious complications
  3. Clinic 5-7 days later
    => Assess bony nose injury once swelling has subsided
  4. Manipulation of bony deformity (within 14 days of injury)
342
Q

Nose fracture - serious complications to rule out

A
  • Zygomatic/facial fracture – diplopia, facial numbness, trismus
  • Head injury – LOC, N&V, amnesia, pupils
  • CSF leak – unilateral, clear nasal discharge
  • Obstructed airways
  • Chest/abdo injuries
  • Septal haematoma
343
Q

what is the timeframe for manipulating the bony deformity of a nose fracture?

A

Must be done within 14 days of injury

344
Q

Septal haematoma

A

= a bleed between the septum and perichondrium

Appears as bilateral red/purple bulge

345
Q

Septal haematoma - complications

A
  • Blocks nose and gets infected

* Necrosis and septal perforation

346
Q

Septal haematoma - management

A

Immediate ENT referral

Surgical drainage & IV ABX

347
Q

Septal perforation - causes

A

Usually Trauma/surgery

Also:
• Avascular necrosis (septal haematoma/cocaine use)
• Granulomatous infection (syphilis, TB, Wegener’s)

348
Q

Septal perforation - symptoms

A
  • Sense of nasal obstruction
  • Whistling
  • Crusting / bleeding
349
Q

Septal perforation - management

A
  • Douching and Vaseline

* Surgery

350
Q

When should a FB in the nose be considered?

How is this managed?

A

Suspect in kids if unilateral offensive discharge (+/- epistaxis)

Management = removal with forceps/Johnson probe / suction

351
Q

Acute rhinosinusitis

A

< 4 weeks

352
Q

Subacute rhinosinusitis

A

4 - 12 weeks

353
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis

A

> 12 weeks

354
Q

What is rhinosinusitis?

A

= inflammation of the nasal and sinus mucosa, causing URTI Sx for >10 days.

355
Q

Risk factors for rhinosinusitis

A
  • Polyps
  • Deviated septum
  • Dental infection
  • Smoking
356
Q

Rhinosinusitis - pathophysiology

A

Viral URTI causes hyperaemia & oedema of mucosa and increased secretions

Stagnant secretions become infected by bacteria
=> H. influenzae, Strep. pneumoniae

357
Q

Rhinosinusitis - Sx

A

Mucopurulent rhinorrhoea

Nasal obstruction/congestion

Reduced smell/taste

Facial pain – over infected sinus, worse when bending forwards

Malaise/pyrexia

358
Q

Rhinosinusitis - Ix

A

Anterior rhinoscopy – inflamed mucosa

Flexible Nasal Endoscopy – mucous in oropharynx

359
Q

Rhinosinusitis - Mx

A

Conservative:
=> Simple analgesia, Steam inhalations, Nasal decongestants

Medical:
• Steroid nasal spray (e.g. beconase)
• Amoxicillin - only if severe pain/high fever/persistent Sx

Surgical (ENT referral):
• Maxillary sinus washout - only if progressive pain / complications

360
Q

Rhinosinusitis - complications

A

Chronic sinusitis
Mucocele

Osteomyelitis

Intracranial problems (need CT) – meningitis, brain abscess

Facial cellulitis
Periorbital cellulitis

361
Q

Facial Cellulitis - Sx, sources, Mx

A

Infection spreads to the skin of the face

Symptoms
=> Red, warm, painful skin

Sources:

  • Orbital cellulitis
  • Sinusitis
  • Osteomyelitis

Management = high dose ABX + sinus drainage

362
Q

What is mucocele?

A

A collection of sterile mucous in an obstructed sinus

Over years, increasing pressure causes sinus expansion

363
Q

Mucocele - Sx and Mx

A

Symptoms:

  • Eye displacement
  • Visual problems
  • Facial swelling

Management:
- Surgical sinus drainage

364
Q

Periorbital cellulitis following sinus infection

A

Infection spreads into orbit (usually ethmoid sinus through ethmoid bone).

Symptoms:

  • Unilateral eyelid swelling, pain, redness
  • Blurred vision
  • Fever, headaches, meningism, sepsis
365
Q

Periorbital cellulitis - Mx

A

Urgent ENT referral and CT
High dose IV ABX
Nasal decongestant
Careful eye obs (for signs of abscess pressing on optic n.)

366
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis - pathophysiology

A

INFECTION – viral / bacterial (anaerobes, staph. aureus, gram -ve)

ALLERGENS – dust mites, pollen, animal hair

  • Specifically known as allergic rhinitis
  • Sneezing, itchy eyes, rhinorrhoea
367
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis - Sx

A
Nasal obstruction / congestion
POST-NASAL DRIP – worse at night, morning cough to clear
Reduced smell/taste or unpleasant smell
Intermittent facial pain
Crusting / bleeding
368
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis - Ix

A

Diagnosis based on Hx

Anterior rhinoscopy AND FNE / endoscopy

369
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis - Mx

A

Infection:

  • Broad spectrum PO ABX (3+ weeks)
  • Topical nasal steroids (2 months)
  • Steroid nasal spray (after finishing drops)
  • Nasal douching

Allergic:

  • Avoid allergens
  • Antihistamines
  • PO steroids

If no improvement in 8 weeks

  • ENT referral
  • Confirm Dx and CT & surgery to clear drainage pathway
370
Q

How is the best way to apply nasal steroid drops (e.g. betamethasone drops)?

A

applied with the head upside down over the edge of a bed.

371
Q

Nasal douching

A

½ tsp salt, ½ tsp sugar, ½ tsp bicarb dissolved in boiling water

Draw up some with a syringe

Block one nostril with finger and sniff up mix with other nostril

Let it run out after

Important to do this BEFORE any nasal spray/drops (not after)

372
Q

What is vertigo?

A

= abnormal sensation of movement with ROTATIONAL component / “room spinning”

Usually with nausea and vomiting.
Can be persistent or episodic

373
Q

Central causes of vertigo

A

Involve brainstem

Space-occupying lesion 
Head injury
Alcohol/drugs
Degenerative disease (e.g. MS)
Vascular ischaemia
374
Q

what is an unlikely cause of vertigo with LOC / collapse ?

A

Unlikely to be a peripheral cause of vertigo (more likely to be central)

375
Q

What are vestibular sedatives?

A

“Anti-dizziness” medications

prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, cyclizine, or promethazine

Given as a SHORT course - prolonged use may delay recovery

376
Q

What is the difference between labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?

A

Both follow viral infection, BUT:

Vestibular neuronitis = inflammation of vestibular nerve (vertigo with no loss of hearing)

Labyrinthitis = inflammation of entire inner ear (vertigo with hearing often affected)

377
Q

Meniere’s Disease - Mx

A

ENT Referral

Prevention = DIET – low salt/caffeine

Symptomatic Tx = Vestibular sedatives “anti-dizzy”, Antiemetics

MEDICAL

  • Betahistine (1st line)
  • Chemical labrinthectomy – intratympanic steroids, intratympanic gentamycin

(Surgical – surgical labyrinthectomy)

378
Q

Reassurance and advice for Meniere’s disease

A

Advise that an acute attack of vertigo will normally settle within 24 hours in most people

Advise the person not to drive when they are feeling dizzy

Discuss reliable sources of information

379
Q

Vestibular migraine - Sx

A
  • Vertigo (tends to last minutes to hours)
  • Possibly tinnitus
  • Photophobia / Phonophobia / aura associated with vertigo is almost diagnostic.
  • Sympathetic Sx – sweating, flushing
380
Q

Vestibular migraine - Mx

A
Diet = 1st line – avoid 5C’s
•	Caffeine 
•	Cheese
•	Chocolate 
•	Claret (wine / alcohol)
•	Chinese food

Lifestyle – avoid too much/too little sleep and too much/too little fluids

(Medical – low dose antidepressants)

381
Q

What is an acoustic neuroma?

A

= vestibular schwannoma

Compression of vestibular nerve due to benign tumour of the schwann cells of vestibular nerve.

382
Q

Assessment of hearing

A

Hx

Otoscopy

Audiometric tests

383
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

= problem with the outer/middle ear

Bone conduction normal, reduced air conduction

384
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

= problem with the inner ear/ auditory nerve/ brain

Reduced air AND bone conduction

385
Q

Mixed hearing loss

A

= CHL and SNHL

Decreased air conduction will be greater than decreased bone conduction

386
Q

Limits with tuning fork tests

A

Just used for SCREENING

Cannot be performed on patient’s whose loss is too severe to be able to hear the tuning forks (512-Hz or 1024Hz )

387
Q

Weber’s Test

A
  1. Strike the tuning fork and place it on the middle of the forehead.
  2. Note where the sound is best heard – the left ear, the right ear, or both equally.
388
Q

Rinne’s Test

A
  1. Strike a tuning fork and place it 25mm from entrance to ear canal for 2-3 seconds
  2. Without delay, press the base of the tuning fork against the mastoid process for 2-3 seconds.
  3. Ask the patient which they heard louder

(2-3 second timing is important in order for the sound to not disappear and alter the results of the test.)

389
Q

Normal Weber’s and Rinne’s

A

Weber’s - Central / no lateralisation

Rinne’s - Positive – AC > BC

390
Q

Rinne’s test Positive

A

when AC > BC

Normal hearing or SNHL

391
Q

SNHL - Weber’s and Rinne’s

A

Webers = Lateralises to the side with the better cochlea (i.e. opposite side to loss)

Rinnes = Positive – AC > BC

392
Q

Why does weber’s test lateralise to the opposite side of SNHL?

A

Cochlear damage = no sound detection on that side

therefore sound lateralises to the better cochlea

393
Q

CHL - Weber’s and Rinne’s

A

Weber’s = lateralises to the side with the greater conductive loss

Rinne’s = Negative – BC > AC

394
Q

Rinne’s test Negative

A

when BC > AC

Conductive hearing loss

395
Q

Why does weber’s test lateralise to the same side of CHL?

A

Distracting external sounds not heard, so sound from fork seems louder on that side

396
Q

What is cross hearing?

A

When sound is applied to one ear, the opposite cochlea can be stimulated to varying degrees.

This occurs either by escaping sound travelling through air to the opposite ear, or via vibrations through the bone of the skull.
=> CAN GIVE A FALSE RINNE NEGATIVE
=> CAN AFFECT PTA RESULT

e.g. if the patient has a normal ear and a dead ear, audiological tests would result in a better threshold in the dead ear due to cross hearing.

397
Q

FALSE rinne Negative

A

the tone may appear louder by bone due to cross hearing from the better ear

398
Q

What is masking in audiology?

A

The process of artificially raising the hearing threshold of the non-test (better) ear, to get a more accurate result of the test ear’s hearing.

399
Q

Pure Tone Audiometry

A

Use electrical equipment to control frequency and intensity of sound to quantify hearing loss.

Tests the range of speech frequency

Used for:

  1. Diagnosis
  2. Rehabilitation
  3. Monitoring hearing
400
Q

When is monitoring of hearing required?

A

a. Patients working in high noise environments (annual screening)
b. Patients on ototoxic drugs
c. Pre- and post-surgery (e.g. grommets)

401
Q

What ranges are tested in PTA?

A

Hearing is tested over the range of speech frequency – 250 Hz to 8000 Hz.

Bone conduction is tested over 500 to 4000Hz.

402
Q

decibels normal hearing level

A

Normal hearing = 0 dB nHL

This means that the patient is able to hear the sound at an intensity that is 0 dB louder than a normal hearing person would be able to hear – i.e. it is the same as a normal hearing person.

35 dB nHL means that the patient is able to hear the sound at an intensity that is 35 dB LOUDER than a normal hearing person would be able to hear

403
Q

Audiogram symbols - Air conduction

A

Right ear = O (red)

Left ear = X (blue)

404
Q

Audiogram symbols - Bone conduction (not masked)

A

Right ear = Triangle (red)

Left ear = Triangle (blue)

405
Q

Audiogram symbols - Bone conduction (masked)

A

Right ear = [ open bracket (red)

Left ear = ] close bracket (blue)

406
Q

Audiogram symbols - Masking applied to air conduction, but no change in normal threshold

A

Right ear = half-coloured circle (red)

Left ear = half-coloured X (blue)

407
Q

Audiogram symbols - Shadow response to masking

A

Right ear = coloured circle (red)

Left ear = coloured X (blue)

408
Q

WHEN is masking applied to audiogram?

A

Used to prevent cross-hearing

Applied when:

  1. AC – 40dB or greater air to air difference (right vs. left)
  2. BC – 10dB or greater air to bone difference in the same ear (AC vs. BC)
409
Q

Audiogram - normal hearing

A

Hearing level within normal threshold (-10 to 20)

410
Q

Audiogram - SNHL

A

AC decreased and BC decreased

Bone/air gap <5-10 dB

411
Q

Audiogram - CHL

A

AC decreased,
BC within normal range

(Bone/air gap >15 dB)

412
Q

Audiogram - mixed HL

A

AC and BC both lower than normal range, but decrease is greater for AC

(Bone/air Gap >15 dB)

413
Q

Tympanometry

A

= a test of middle ear function.

Measures sound compliance into the middle ear

Measured over a range of pressures (from negative to positive)

Information is plotted on a tympanogram.

414
Q

Tympanometry - Normal range for Ear Canal Volume

A

0.6 – 2.5 mL

415
Q

Tympanometry - Normal range for Middle Ear Pressure

A

+50 to -100 daPa

416
Q

Tympanometry - Normal range for Compliance

A

0.3 – 1.6 mL

417
Q

Tympanometry - TYPE A

A

Peak at atmospheric pressure (0daPa)

Normal compliance

418
Q

Tympanometry - TYPE Ad

A

= Like Type A with taller peak

Increased Compliance:

  • Healed TM perforation
  • Retraction pocket
  • Ossicle disarticulation
419
Q

Tympanometry - TYPE As

A

= Like Type A with smaller peak

Decreased Compliance:

  • TM scarring
  • Fluid in middle ear
420
Q

Tympanometry - TYPE B

A

= Flat line, no peak

No Peak Compliance

  • Middle ear effusion / tumour
  • TM perforation
  • Grommet
421
Q

Tympanometry - TYPE C

A

Type C

Peak in negative pressures

  • Peak compliance at low frequency
  • Eustachian tube dysfunction
422
Q

Paediatric audiometry - timings

A

Newborn Hearing Screening Programme (NHSP)
=> within 5 weeks of birth (ideally before discharge)

Behavioural Observation Audiometry (BOA)
=> 0 – 6 months

Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VRA)
=> 6 months – 3 years

Performance Test / Conditioned Play Audiometry (CPA)
=> 30+ months

Conventional Pure-tone Audiometry
=> 5+ years

423
Q

Newborn Hearing Screening Programme

A

Offered to all babies within 5 weeks of birth

2 tests:

  1. Automated Otoacoustic emission (AOAE):
    - Tests function of outer hair cells.
    - If child fails 2 of these, then AABR is performed.
  2. Automated Auditory Brainstem Response (AABR)
    - Uses electrodes to monitor brain activity response to sound stimulus.
    - Can be done at any age, but will often need to be sedated after 6 months.
424
Q

Behavioural Observation Audiometry

A

Age 0 – 6 months

Observe the child in a normal (quiet) state and also during presentation of loud sound to see if there is any change in behaviour (e.g. startle, eye movement/widening, head turn, etc.)

Does not assess laterality.

425
Q

Visual Reinforcement Audiometry

A

Age 6 months – 3 years.

Observation of conditioned response to sound stimulus (sound field or insert)

Child is conditioned to turn when sound is heard, during conditioning the child is provided with a visual reward (toy).

426
Q

Performance Test / Conditioned Play Audiometry

A

From age 30+ months.

Performance test – child presented stimulus in sound field, plays a game with dropping men in a boat.

CPA = continuation from performance test, but with headphones to obtain more specific results for each ear.

427
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve?

A

” two zoologists butchered my cat”

Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Marginal Mandibular
Cervical
428
Q

What can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Drugs:

    • phenytoin
    • ciclosporin
    • calcium channel blockers (especially nifedipine)

Other causes:
– Acute myeloid leukaemia

429
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of otitis media?

A

H. influenzae