Instruments Test Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

Identify information contained in FLIP planning documents

A
  • General planning - terms, airspace division, common worldwide procedures
  • Area planning - information on specific regions or geographical areas
    • AP/1 - North and South America
    • AP/1B - Military routes, North and South America
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2
Q

Identify information contained in FLIP enroute documents

A

◦ Enroute low altitude charts - airways and related data (below 18,000’ MSL)

  • Area charts
  • Enroute high altitude charts - airways and related data (at and above 18,000’ MSL)
  • Enroute IFR supplement - alphabetical IFR Airport/Facility Directory, Special Notices and Procedures
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3
Q

Identify information contained in FLIP terminal documents

A
  • Terminal high and low altitude - Instrument Approach Procedures, Airport Diagrams, Standard Instrument Departures and Radar Instrument
    Approach Minimums
  • Standard terminal arrival (STAR) booklet
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4
Q

Identify procedures used for an instrument take off

A
  • Perform a normal takeoff using visual references, transition to an instrument scan as visual cues are lost
  • 8-10° nose high, two positive rates, gear/flaps
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5
Q

Identify types of instrument departures and information they provide

A
  • Departure procedure (DP)
    ◦ Required if there is one (found in low alt. Vol. 14)

‣ Diverse departure
◦ Do at a non-towered field with no DP

‣ Radar departure
◦ Do at a towered field with no DP

‣ Visual climb over the airport (VCOA)
◦ Do at a non-towered field with no DP, and VFR conditions

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6
Q

Identify the effect of a controllers clearance on a SID

A

“Climb and maintain” or “maintain”

◦ Disregard DP’s altitude restrictions but continue to fly route

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7
Q

Identify items contained in a holding clearance

A
  • Direction (in terms of cardinal points)
    ◦ Name of holding fix
    ◦ Radial to hold on
    ◦ Leg length - time or distance
    – Can be assumed 1 min below 14,000’ MSL if not stated

‣ Direction of turn
◦ Standard right hand turns if not stated
‣ Expect further clearance (EFC) time
◦ Only used in case of comms failure

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8
Q

Identify proper entry type and heading required for entry into holding

A

◦ Entry based on reciprocal of inbound course

◦ Entries are opposite for non standard holding patterns

◦ Teardrop - within +70° of current heading

◦ Parallel - within -110° of current heading

◦ Direct - otherwise

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9
Q

Identify correct point to start any required timing for outbound and inbound legs of holding

A

◦ Outbound - wings level or abeam holding fix (whichever is last)

◦ Inbound - wings level

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10
Q

Identify procedure for determining direction of inbound turns during holding

A

◦ Tail-radial-turn

◦ If on radial, turn towards holding side

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11
Q

Identify procedure for determining the direction of wind in holding

A

◦ Tail-radial-wind

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12
Q

Identify heading and timing adjustments required for a correction orbit in holding

A

◦ Heading - outbound, triple the drift (max 1 min)

◦ Timing - adjust outbound time to maintain 1 min inbound

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13
Q

Identify speed restrictions below 10,000’ during enroute descent

A
  • 250 KIAS
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14
Q

Identify enroute descent actions based on controllers instructions

A

◦ Report leaving altitude

◦ Descent at optimum rate until 1000’ prior (4000 fpm), then 500-1500 fpm

◦ Follow ATC instructions as given

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15
Q

Identify items (ABCD) that should be accomplished prior to the initial approach fix (IAF)

A

◦ ATIS, Brief, Cockpit setup, Descent checklist

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16
Q

Identify terminal routing information from published enroute or feeder facilities on an IAP

A

◦ Indicated by a thin line along a dashed circle in the plan view

◦ Labeled either enroute facility or feeder facility

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17
Q

Identify restrictions for published terminal routing information on an IAP

A

◦ Terminal routing = enroute or feeder facilities

◦ For low altitude approaches, course, altitude and range are given

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18
Q

Identify actions required at the IAF for a given procedure turn approach (6 T’s)

A

• Time - n/a
◦ Turn - shortest direction to parallel outbound course, if >90° set intercept
◦ Time - 1 min outbound
◦ Transition - if descent req’d, 15% tq, 150 KIAS
◦ Twist/intercept - CDI to outbound course
◦ Talk - as req’d

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19
Q

Identify published “remain within” distance restrictions on an IAP

A
  • Found in profile view next to PT
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20
Q

Identify situations when published procedure turn is NOT required

A

“SNERT”
‣ Cleared for Straight in approach

‣ Flying the NoPT routing

‣ Established in holding aligned with PT course

‣ Radar vectored to final

‣ Cleared for a Timed approach

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21
Q

Identify actions required at the IAF for a HILO approach (6 T’s)

A

◦ Time - n/a

◦ Turn - normal holding entry procedures

◦ Time - 1 min outbound

◦ Transition - if descent req’d, 15% tq, 150 KIAS

◦ Twist/intercept - CDI to outbound course

◦ Talk - as req’d

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22
Q

Identify rules for number of orbits used during a HILO IAP

A

◦ ONE, must have clearance from ATC for more

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23
Q

Identify approach category for the T-6B

A

Category B

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24
Q

Identify applicable landing minima for the T-6B given a VOR, ILS, LOC, or GPS IAP

A

Found in bottom section of approach plate

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25
Q

Identify normal airspeeds and BAC transition points used during a given IAP

A
  • 5 nm prior to IAF, slow to 150
    – Unless on long straight in
    ‣ Wait until 10 nm from FAF
    • 5 nm prior to FAF, slow to 120, transition to BAC
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26
Q

Identify type of intercept to be used during the inbound turn during a procedure turn or teardrop IAP

A

◦ 45º Intercept if the head of the bearing pointer is not within 5º of the inbound course
◦ DAI intercept if the head of the bearing pointer is within 5º of the inbound course

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27
Q

Identify number of degrees required for a full-scale CDI deflection when receiving a localizer signal and PFD source is “LOC”

A

2.5°

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28
Q

• With a GPS approach loaded and PFD source “FMS” identify number of degrees required for full-scale CDI deflection in the ENR, TERM, and APR phases of flight

A

◦ ENR - 5 nm
◦ TERM - 1 nm
◦ APR - 0.3 nm

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29
Q

Identify DLIDS set up requirements for a given ILS or LOC IAP

A
◦ DME Hold - set
◦ Localizer freq - TIM
◦ Inbound course - set CDI
◦ Display - PFD source to “LOC”
◦ Speed - appropriate for transition procedure
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30
Q

Determine if DME hold is required for a given ILS or LOC IAP

A

If there is a paired channel with the localizer frequency, DME hold is not required

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31
Q

Identify FAF for an ILS IAP

A

◦ FAF occurs when the aircraft is on glideslope and the published altitude

◦ Depicted on the profile view by a lightning bolt symbol

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32
Q

Identify FAF for a LOC, VOR, or GPS IAP

A

FAF for non-precision approach is is depicted by the Maltese cross symbol

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33
Q

Identify MAP for a given ILS IAP

A

At DH/DA and on glideslope

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34
Q

Identify MAP for a given non-precision IAP

A

◦ Timing or DME

◦ At the closest DME to the runway

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35
Q

Calculate approximate rate of descent required for a given ILS approach

A

◦ Use published glideslope and climb/descent table in back of approach book
◦ 3 degree glideslope formula: (groundspeed x 10)/2

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36
Q

Identify actions required at the FAF (6 T’s) for a non-precision IAP

A

◦ TIME - Start timing (backup to identify the MAP if DME fails)
◦ TURN - Turn in the shortest direction to parallel the final approach course
◦ TIME - Not required
◦ TRANSITION - Set approximately 15% torque, trim for 120 KIAS descent to next segment altitude or MDA
◦ TWIST - If not already done, twist the FAC into the CDI and set intercept as required
◦ TALK - As req’d

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37
Q

Identify differences between DA/DH and MDA

A

DA/DH is used for non precision whereas MDA is used for precision approaches

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38
Q

Identify a published visual descent point (VDP) on an IAP

A

Depicted as a bold V on the profile view

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39
Q

Identify weather requirements for a given radar approach

A

◦ Weather minimums are found in the front of the terminal low altitude approach plate book

◦ Can be no lower than 200-1/2

◦ If minimum ceiling must be adjusted, increase other altitude minimums by the same factor

40
Q

Identify DH/DA or MDA for a given radar approach for the T6B

A

◦ These altitudes are found in the front of the terminal low altitude approach plate books

◦ If weather minimums are increased, increase these altitudes as well

41
Q

Calculate the approximate rate of descent for the T6 be on a given PAR

A

◦ Use published glideslope and climb/descent table in back of approach book
◦ 3 degree glideslope formula: (groundspeed x 10)/2

42
Q

Identify time requirements for Lost communications during a radar approach

A

◦ 1 min on vector to final approach

◦ 15 sec on ASR or PAR w/o GS final

◦ 5 sec on PAR final

◦ After these times, proceed as follows

◦ Attempt contact on a secondary frequency
‣ Proceed VFR if possible
‣ Proceed with a non-radar approach

43
Q

Identify source for missed approach instructions for a radar approach

A

Issued by the controller

44
Q

Identify type of aircraft guidance available during an ASR approach

A

Course and range

45
Q

Identify type of aircraft guidance available during the PAR approach

A

Precise course, range, and glideslope

46
Q

Identify the MAP for the ASR or PAR w/o GS

A

◦ MAP for these procedures are given by the controller
◦ Execute missed approach if runway not insight or safe landing cannons be made
‣ If “Radar contact lost,” and the runway environment is not in sight, a missed approach shall be executed

47
Q

Identify conditions requiring a missed approach during a PAR

A

◦ At DA/DA on altimeter, and runway environment not in sight
◦ Controller reports DA/DA, and runway environment not in sight
◦ When directed by an external source
◦ When a safe landing cannot be made

48
Q

Identify expected rates of turn to be used during a no Gyro approach

A

◦ SRT (not to exceed 30° AOB) until on final

◦ ½ SRT unless otherwise directed on final

49
Q

Identify landing environment information/symbology presented in an airport sketch diagram

A

Includes runways, taxiways, lighting systems, ground obstructions, and elevations

50
Q

Interpret a given PAPI indication for aircraft position in relation to desired glide path

A
Precision approach path indicator
◦ Four horizontal lights, usually to the left of the runway
◦ On glidepath, 2 red and 2 white
◦ 3/4 red, too low
◦ 314 white too high
51
Q

Interpret a given VASI indication for aircraft position in relation to desired glide path

A

◦ Visual approach slope indicator
◦ Red over white when on glideslope
◦ Both red when low, both white when high

52
Q

Identify obstruction clearance provided at circling minimums and the size of protected circling air space

A

◦ 300’ clearance

◦ Radius depends on category of aircraft

◦ Approach category B was a 1.5 mile radius

53
Q

Identify requirements for executing a missed approach

A

◦ You must execute a missed approach if at the MAP,
◦ Lacking sufficient visual cues
‣ Aircraft is not in a position to maneuver to a safe landing
‣ Directed to by ATC

54
Q

Identify missed approach procedures for a given IAP

A

Written description pilot briefings section, symbols in profile view, dashed line in both profile and plan views

55
Q

Identify conditions and procedures for executing a missed approach prior to the MAP

A

◦ Full scale deflection prior to FAF
◦ Attempt to return to course
‣ If unable, contact ATC, do not descend below FAF altitude
‣ Between FAF and MAP
◦ Immediate climb to missed approach altitude
‣ Fly to MAP, then execute missed approach procedure

56
Q

Identify initial turn direction required for a missed approach due to loss of contact with airport environment during a circling maneuver

A

Climbing turn toward the landing runway, continue turn until on missed approach course

57
Q

Identify weather requirements for a given IAP

A

Found at the bottom of the approach plate in landing minima section

58
Q

Identify IAF for a given IAP

A

◦ Labelled on the approach plate in the plan view

◦ Can be more than one for the same approach

59
Q

Identify altitude restrictions for a given IAP

A

Found in both plan and profile view

60
Q

Identify HAT and type of altitude for a given IAP

A

◦ Height Above Touchdown
◦ Found in landing minima section
◦ Height of DA/DH or MDA above the TDZ in AGL

61
Q

Identify procedures associated with a GPS terminal arrival area (TAA)

A

◦ Transition from RNAV enroute structure to terminal area

◦ Generally in a basic “T” shape, with 3 arrival areas, and an IAF in each

◦ 1000’ obstacle clearance

◦ Depicted in plan view

62
Q

Identify procedures associated with a loss of GPS integrity during a GPS approach

A
Prior to FAWP
◦ Transition to a back up approach
‣ Continue on course to the FAWP
‣ Maintain FAWP altitude while flying to the MAWP
‣ Execute missed approach at the MAWP
‣ Inside the FAWP
◦ Transition to a back up approach
‣ Climb to missed approach altitude
‣ Continue track to the MAWP, then execute a missed approach
63
Q

Identify LDDH set up requirements for a given GPS IAP

A

◦ L - load GPS approach
◦ D - direct to IAWP
◦ D - display, PFD source FMS
◦ H - hold, ensure waypoints have /h if a hold is required
◦ A - approach mode, ensure APR mode 2 no from FAWP

64
Q

Identify standard IFR communications used in various phases of instrument flight

A

Appendix C

65
Q

Identify information provided and procedures required for a given SID

A

◦ Be able to read a SID

◦ Symbology is same as approach plates

66
Q

Identify procedures to obtain IFR clearance for departure from a non-towered airfield

A

◦ Call AFSS on ground via phone
◦ Licensed UNICOM operator at the airport
◦ Call AFSS or ATC on radio if line of sight
◦ Depart VFR, contact controlling authority while VMC

67
Q

Use CR- flight computer to calculate rate, time, and distance

A

◦ Based on proportions
◦ Rate = distance/time
◦ Distance/60 = distance/time
◦ Make sure units match

68
Q

Use a CR- flight computer to calculate fuel consumption

A

Fuel flow = fuel(lb)/time

69
Q

• Given TAS, magnetic variation, magnetic course, and true wind use a CR- Flight computer to calculate drift correction, magnetic heading, and groundspeed

A

◦ Align TAS marker with value on outer ring
◦ Place magnetic course above TC marker on inner ring
◦ Rotate inner ring to compensate for given magnetic variation
◦ West - CW
‣ East - CCW
‣ Plot winds on inner ring
◦ Determine crosswind and headwind components
‣ TAS corrected for head/tailwind gives ground speed
◦ Crosswind component on outer ring gives crab angle/drift correction
◦ Magnetic heading corrected for crab angle gives magnetic heading

70
Q

Identify mission planning information available from the IFR enroute supplement

A

Airfield data

- Rwy lengths, fuel services, PPR requirements, hazards, etc.

71
Q

Identify minimum weather requirements for a departure airfield

A

◦ Departure weather must allow for an emergency return approach to the duty runway
◦ Precision approach - published mins, no less than 200-1/2
◦ Non precision approach - published mins, no less than 300-1

72
Q

Identify minimum weather requirements for an destination airfield

A

◦ For planning, destination weather does not have requirements, but it determines alternate requirements

◦ To actually land, absolute minimums are 200-1/2

73
Q

Identify weather items from DD-175-1 required for jet log calculations

A

Climb winds, cruise winds, delta T, and OAT

74
Q

Identify distance for one leg of a given jet log

A

“DIST” column

75
Q

Identify time, fuel, and distance required to climb for a given jet log

A

Top left of jet log

76
Q

Identify long range cruise IAS, TAS, and fuel flow for a given jet log

A

Long range TAS and fuel flow are found on the top right corner

77
Q

Identify fuel remaining in HR+MIN for the alternate “fuel” block on a given jet log

A

EFR from planned destination converted to hr+min using cruise fuel flow

78
Q

Identify OPNAV 3710 requirements for reserve fuel

A

◦ 115 lbs for minimum of 20 min
◦ May be more based on local SOP
◦ T-6B min fuel = 200
‣ Or 10% total fuel, whichever is greater

79
Q

Identify correct entry for the DD-175 proposed departure time

A

Written in UTC, no “Z”

80
Q

Identify correct entry for the DD-175 route a flight for a given STAR

A

◦ The coded identifier of the STAR should be placed after the transition fix
◦ Last entry in route of flight section

81
Q

Identify correct entry for the DD-175 route of flight for a given route

A

◦ First point should be the planned navigational aid or fix for entering the enroute structure

◦ Clearly define the route using navigate identifiers, fixes and radials, airways, intersections, and RNAV waypoints

◦ Absence of an airway between fixes indicates direct leg

82
Q

Identify correct entry for the DD-175 ETE

A

◦ HR+MIN

◦ Takeoff to last fix in route of flight section

83
Q

Identify significance of a published minimum enroute altitude (MEA)

A

◦ Indicated along route, top number

◦ Ensures acceptable NAVAID reception and provides 1000’ obstacle clearance between fixes

84
Q

Identify significance of a published minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA)

A

◦ Indicated on route, bottom number with an asterisk

◦ Provides 1000’ obstacle clearance but only ensures NAVAID reception within 22 NM of a station

85
Q

Identify significance of a published minimum reception altitude (MRA)

A

◦ Indicated by a flag with an R in it

◦ The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

◦ The lowest altitude required to receive adequate signals to determine specific VOR and TACAN fixes

86
Q

Identify significance of a published minimum crossing altitude (MCA)

A

◦ Indicated by a flag with an X in it

◦ The lowest altitude at certain radio fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA

87
Q

Identify the NAVAID changeover point for a given segment of an IFR enroute chart

A

◦ Indicated by a “dogleg” symbol

◦ Numbers indicate DME to each station

88
Q

Identify situation requiring an in-flight change of flight plan

A

◦ Weather
◦ Traffic
◦ NAVAID outages
◦ Destination change

89
Q

Identify in-flight publication containing formats for changes to flight plans

A

IFR supplement section II

90
Q

Identify items contained in a compulsory IFR position report

A
◦ Indicated by filled triangle
◦ Aircraft identification
◦ Position
◦ Time
◦ Altitude
◦ Next report point
◦ Time at next point
◦ Name of next next point
91
Q

Identify correct route of flight to fly in lost communication situation

A

◦ A - assigned route
◦ V - vectored route
◦ E - expected route
◦ F - filed route

92
Q

Identify correct altitude to fly in lost communication situation

A

◦ A - assigned altitude
◦ M - minimum altitude (MEA)
◦ E - expected altitude
◦ fly highest if these in lost comms

93
Q

Identify in-flight publication containing format for a PIREP

A

FIH SECTION C

94
Q

Identify in-flight publication containing PMSV frequencies and services

A

FIH SECTION C or IFR supplement

95
Q

Identify correct entry for the DD-175 AIRCRAFT DESG AND TD CODE for the T6B

A

TEX2/G