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CI APK 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the Gl smooth muscle not associated with muscle contraction is known as

a. Slow waves
b. Fast waves
c. Spikes
d. Action potentials

A

a. Slow waves -

RATIO : secondary to waxing and weighing of pumping of ions

B, C ,D - ACTION POTENTIAL

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2
Q

Delirium is

a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus
b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one’s skin
c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable evidence to the contrary
d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

A

d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

secondary to drug overdose, intoxication, infection, pain

A = hallucination
C = delusion
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3
Q

Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to:

l. Loss of renal mass observed with aging
Il. Decrease in cardiac output with age
Ill. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries

a. Il and Ill
b. I and Ill
c. I and Il
d. I only

A

c. I and Il

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4
Q

The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is

a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole
b. Associated with atrial contraction
c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing
d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure
e. Associated with ventricular filling

A

The aortic and pulmonic valves closing

dub - pulmonic & aortic

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5
Q

The site of the highest vascular resistance in the renal circulation is seen in the

a. Renal artery
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Efferent arterioles
d. Glomerulus

A

c. Efferent arterioles

pressure inside EA - 43mmHg

rena a - 0 pressure
AE - 26 mmHg
Glomerulus - 10mmHg

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6
Q

What promotes the growth of the thyroid gland:

a. Somatostatin
b. Thyrotropin
c. Corticotrophin
d. Prolactin

A

b. Thyrotropin

- TSH/ Thyroid stimulating hormone

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7
Q

What energy from this system is used for maximal short bursts of muscle activity (8-10 seconds)?

a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic
c. Phosphagen
d. Glycogen-lactic acid

A

c. Phosphagen - short burst

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8
Q

What structure stores and releases calcium ions during the contractile process?

a. Sarcoplasmic retinaculum
b. Myosin
c. Myofilament
d. Tubules

A

Sarcoplasmic retinaculum

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9
Q

Of the body water compartment, the largest is occupied by the

a. Transcellular fluid
b. Intracellular fluid
c. Interstitial fluid
Plasma

A

Intracellular fluid

60 = 40(intra) + 20(extra)

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10
Q

At a comfortable room temperature (24-25 deg C) the major mechanisms of heat exchange between the skin and environment are

I. Evaporation 
ll. Radiation 
Ill. Conduction
IV. Dehydration
V.	Convection

a. Ill, IV and V
b. l, Ill and V
c. l, Il and Ill
d. Il, Ill and V

A

d. Il, Ill and V

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11
Q

The following statements describe electrical stimulation (ES) in the treatment of chronic wound, EXCEPT:

a. ES involves the application of a low-level, therapeutic dose of electricity directly into the wound
b. ES promotes healing by enhancing tissue proliferation and repair
c. ES eliminates many microorganisms that might otherwise inhibit or prevent healing
d. ES is not an alternative treatment for a wound that has shown only slow or minimal improvement

A

d. ES is not an alternative treatment for a wound that has shown only slow or minimal improvement

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12
Q

Abnormality in which chromosome causes majority of Down Syndrome cases?

a. 21
b. 17
c. 23
d. 19

A

a. 21

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13
Q

Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicates a positive simulation test?

a. Marked improvement of straight leg raising on distraction as compared with formal testing
b. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression muscle tension and tremor
c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands.
d. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis

A

c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands.

A - distraction
B - overreaction
D - regional disturbances

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14
Q

This test determines if there is a tear in the supraspinatus muscle by fully abducting the arm and slowly lowering it to the side.

a. Drop arm
b. Ober
c. Mcmurray
d. Apley compression
e. lachman

A

a. Drop arm

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15
Q
  1. There is avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The position/attitude of the hip joint in the different designs of orthoses indicated for this case include:
    a. Full extension
    b. Flexion
    c. Internal rotation
    d. Hyperabduction
    e. External rotation
A

..c. Internal rotation

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16
Q

Hip and knee replacement clients are referred to rehabilitation on

a. Second week
b. Third and fifth day
c. Third week
d. Immediately after surgery

A

.d. Immediately after surgery

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17
Q

Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by

I. Hypermobility of the patella
ll. External tibial torsion
Ill. Femoral anteversion
IV. Oversupination

a. Il and IV
b. l, Il and Ill
c. Il, Ill and IV
d. Il only

A

b. l, Il and Ill

subtalar pron

18
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Osteochondritis Dissecans?

a. More common among males
b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues
c. More common among females
d. Usually occurs following a trauma

A

a. More common among males

b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues

  • d/t residual pit
19
Q

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?

a. Trochoid
b. Spheroid
c. Ginglymus
d. Syndesmosis
e. Sellar

A

b. Spheroid - ball & socket, universal joint

20
Q

The following treatments are appropriate for a patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed with acute glenohumeral joint pain, EXCEPT:

a. Grade Ill and IV mobilization
b. Gentle joint oscillation techniques of small amplitude
c. Periodic immobilization in a sling
d. Passive range of motion in a pain free range

A

a. Grade Ill and IV mobilization

iii & iv - stretch

21
Q

What muscle/s extend the distal interphalangeal joint?

l. Extensor digitalis communis
Il. Lumbricals
Ill. Palmar interossei

a. I
b. I and Il only
c. l, Il and Ill
d. Ill
e. l, Ill only

A

c. l, Il and Ill

edc - primary

22
Q

What movement is important for a complete upward rotation o scapular shoulder flexion and abduction?

a. Protraction
b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle
c. Retraction
d. Hyperextension

A

b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle

SC jt
clav elev - <90
post rot - >90

AC jt
post tilt scap
upward rot

GH - ER
2:1

23
Q

The roots of the brachial plexus are the following:

a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and Tl
b. C6, C7, C8, Tl and T2
c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7
d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8

A

C5, C6, C7, C8 and Tl.

24
Q

The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on

a. Ligaments
b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
c. Capsule
d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

A

a. Ligaments

radiocarpal ligaments

25
Q

Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at

a. Swing phase
b. Toe off
c. Heel strike
d. Midstance

A

a. Swing phase

DFs - HS* to FF
PFs -  conc  - toe off/push off
       -   ecc  - 
GMed  - mstance
Hams   - MSw to TSw
26
Q

The following muscles are innervated by the posterior cord, EXCEPT:

a. Infraspinatus
b. Deltoids
c. Pectoralis major
d. Triceps

A

a. Infraspinatus

pwede din C pero nauna kasi si A

27
Q

Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true?

I. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 45 degrees

Il. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees

Ill. MCP allow 0-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees

IV. MCP allow 15-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees

V. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand

a. l, Ill and V
b. V only
c. Il, IV and V
d. Ill, IV and V
e. Il, Ill and V

A

e. Il, Ill and V

28
Q

A therapist examines a 42 year old self referred female. The client describes the onset of a variety of medical problems approximately one month ago, including right lower extremity weakness, decreased balance and blurred vision. Examination confirms the client’s complains, in addition to identifying decreased pinprick sensation and ankle clonus in the right lower extremity. The suspected diagnosis of this client is

a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Cerebral thrombosis

A

a. Multiple sclerosis

29
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

I. Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and movements

ll.MuscIes also participate in posture and movements according to limb and a body position in relation to gravity, applied resistance, and velocity of motion

a. I is false, Il is true
b. I is true, Il is false
c. I and Il are true
d. I and Il are false

A

a. I is false, Il is true

30
Q

The definition of coma is a Glasgow Coma Scale of less than

A

<8 - COMA

31
Q

A therapist instructs a 65 year old female in ambulation activities. The therapist instructs the patient to place her affected foot on the ground, but to avoid transmitting weight through the foot. The therapist’s instructions best describe this weight bearing technique.

a. Touch down
b. Semi
c. Non
d. Partial

A

a. Touch down

- affceted foot on ground without force

32
Q

This type of burn involves only the outer epidermis, which may be red with slight edema, and healing occurs without any evidence of scarring.

a. Full-thickness burn
b. Superficial partial-thickness burn
c. Subdermal burn
d. Deep partial-thickness burn
e. Superficial burn

A

e. Superficial burn
b. Superficial partial-thickness burn - epi & upper dermis ; bright red ; intact blister

d. Deep partial-thickness burn
- epi & most dermis ; waxy white/red ; broken blister

33
Q

Which of the following examples therapeutically increase the pressure on a given area?

a. Frequent body weight shifts
b. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics
d. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
e. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length

A

c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics

THE REST DECREASE PRESSURE

34
Q

A therapist adjusts the height of the parallel bars in preparation for client ambulation. When at the appropriate height, the parallel bars should provide degrees of elbow flexion.

a. 5-15
b. 30-40
c. 15-25
d. 35-45

A

c. 15-25

35
Q

For good prosthetic acceptance, a juvenile amputee should be fitted before the age of (in years)

a. Eight
b. Two
c. Four
d. Ten

A

c. Four

juvenile 4 to 16

36
Q

Which statement explains why visceral pain is referred to a somatic structure?

a. Somatic and visceral afferents project to different spinothalamic neurons
b. Somatic efferents project to the decreased threshold of somatic structures
c. Impulses from the viscera increase the threshold of spinothalamic neurons
d. The pain is referred to the somatic structure with the same embryonic origin

A

d. The pain is referred to the somatic structure with the same embryonic origin

37
Q
  1. Which objective finding is the strongest indication that a C6 spinal cord injury is not complete?

a. Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder
b. Weakness of the biceps muscle
c. Absent triceps reflex
d. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

A

Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

38
Q

What dermatome is used to test C7?

a. Middle finger
b. Forearm
c. Apex of the axilla
d. Thumb

A

a. Middle finger

39
Q

Sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is innervated by what nerve?

a. Medial femoral cutaneous
b. Lateral femoral cutaneous
c. Sural
d. Saphenous

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous

40
Q

Sensation to the middle finger is supplied by neurologic level

a. C6
B. C5
C. C7
D. C8

A

C. C7

41
Q

Which is the point of reference for the Q angle?

a. Anterior superior iliac spine
b. Center of the patella
c. Posterior inferior iliac spine
d. Tibial tuberosity

A

Center of the patella

CI (4 decks)

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