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CI MES 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A new patient referred for PT is complaining of inability to reach his back pocket for his wallet, comb his hair or reach above shoulder level. He may have joint contracture affecting which of the following movements?

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation
b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, internal rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, adduction, internal rotation

A

b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation

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2
Q

On gait analysis of a patient with severe peroneal neuropathy, which of the following will probably NOT occur?

a. Decreased step length
b. Increased hip and knee flexion during swing
c. Decreased hip flexion before foot or heel strike
d. Increased step cadence

A

d. Increased step cadence

b. Increased hip and knee flexion during swing - steppage

c. Decreased hip flexion before foot or heel strike - vaulting

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3
Q
  1. Burns which are whitish, leathery and has no sensation are burns.

a. Deep partial thickness
b. Superficial partial thickness
c. Full thickness
d. Minor

A

..c. Full thickness

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4
Q
  1. The 55-year-old male lower limb amputee is referred on Day 2 post amputation. The program you make for him include the following. Which one will NOT be part of your program yet?
    a. Edema control
    b. Ambulation
    c. Sitting balance and tolerance exercises
    d. Range of motion exercises
A

…

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5
Q
  1. The posterior muscles used in cervicothoracic stabilization include the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Levator scapulae
    b. Obliquus capitis inferior
    c. Rectus capitis posterior major
    d. Scalene muscles
A

d. Scalene muscles

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6
Q
  1. Most common direction of herniated nucleus pulposus in the lumbar region is

a. Posterolateral c. Central
b. Posterior d. Foraminal

A

A.Posterolateral

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7
Q
  1. This level of amputation allows the highest level of functional recovery in the majority of cases of upper limb amputation. What level is this?
    a. Long transradial
    b. Elbow disarticulation
    c. Transhumeral
    d. Short transradial
A

a. Long transradial

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8
Q
  1. What exercises focus on repetitive task-oriented practice?
    a. Rood techniques
    b. Bobath techniques
    c. Brunnstrom techniques
    d. Robot-aided therapeutic exercises
A

d. Robot-aided therapeutic exercises

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9
Q
  1. In this type of herniated nucleous pulposus, the patient may or may not have low back pain. What is this type?
    a. Posterolateral
    b. Foraminal
    c. Central
    d. Posterior
A

b. Foraminal

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10
Q
  1. In cases of pleuritis/pleurisy which is recovering, the following may be done by therapist for the patient. Which may NOT be needed?

a. Trunk bending exercises
b. Chest clapping exercises
c. Deep breathing exercises
d. Thoracic expansion exercises

A

b. Chest clapping exercises

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11
Q
  1. In a patient with cervical spondylosis with myelopathy, which of the following may NOT be present?
    a. Babinski’s sign
    b. Hyperreflexia
    c. Weakness in a segmental distribution
    d. Weakness at and below the involved levels
A

Weakness in a segmental distribution

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12
Q
  1. The 50-year-old male patient sustained a patellar fracture after a motor vehicular accident. What is the precaution after internal fixation surgery of the patella?
    a. No range of motion
    b. No quads setting
    c. Non-weight bearing
    d. No straight leg raising
A

a. No range of motion

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13
Q
  1. The main causes of delayed union in a fracture are the following EXCEPT:
    a. Poor blood supply in the area
    b. Presence of infection
    c. Use of internal fixation
    d. Bone gap is too wide
    e. All of the answers are correct
A

All of the answers are correct

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14
Q
  1. The 86-year-old female patient with an impacted fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus did not undergo surgery of the fracture. The fracture is managed conservatively with a sling. What may be the most important reason why these fractures need not be operated on?
    a. Lack of good alignment does not affect union of the fracture
    b. The impaction causes stability of the fracture
    c. Early ROM may not be done in a post-operative shoulder
    d. Surgery in the elderly may be very high-risk
    ..
A

b. The impaction causes stability of the fracture

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15
Q
  1. The 76-year-old female patient sustained a hip fracture after a fall from her bed. Xrays show a femoral neck fracture and is advised surgery to avoid a complication common to this area. What is this complication?
    a. Avascular necrosis
    b. Malunion
    c. Osteomyelitis
    d. Delayed union
A

a. Avascular necrosis

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16
Q
  1. The 16-year-old patient sustained a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. In the Rehabilitation and care of this patient over the next few weeks, you will need to watch out for several complications of this fracture mainly the following EXCEPT:
    a. All of the answers are correct
    b. Volkmann’s contracture
    c. Myositis ossificans
    d. Cubitus valgus
A

a. All of the answers are correct

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17
Q
  1. Prevention of neural tube defects such as myelomeningocoele requires intake of this vitamin
    a. Ascorbic acid
    b. Mecobalamin
    c. Folic acid
    d. Riboflavin
A

c. Folic acid /b9

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18
Q
  1. Palmar and plantar grasp are reflexes first seen at what age?
    a. 8-9 mos
    b. Birth
    c. 2 mos
    d. 3 mos
A

b. Birth

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19
Q
  1. A male patient complains of anterior knee pain especially on going down the stairs. You note that the ROM is full but with pain at end-range. The patella is noted to have a reduced medial glide. There is also some VMO atrophy and iliotibial band tightness. Which would NOT be included in the exercise program for the patient?
    a. VMO squats
    b. ITB stretching
    c. Gluteal setting
    d. Patellar taping
A

c. Gluteal setting

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20
Q
  1. The 20-year-old athlete friend of yours has pain on the inside of the knee and he says it hurts when he is doing sideways movements. This may be because of
    a. Torn medial collateral ligament
    b. Torn medial meniscus
    c. Torn anterior cruciate ligament
    d. Torn lateral collateral ligament
A

a. Torn medial collateral ligament

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21
Q
  1. The most common features of acute subarachnoid hemorrhage include:
    a. Headache and stiff neck
    b. Loss of consciousness
    c. Double vision
    d. Dizziness and vomiting
A

a. Headache and stiff neck

22
Q
  1. Interactions among which of the following systems, contribute to pain?
    a. Immune, endocrine and autonomic nervous systems
    b. Immune system and endocrine system
    c. Endocrine system and autonomic nervous system
    d. Autonomic nervous system and immune system
A

a. Immune, endocrine and autonomic nervous systems

23
Q
  1. The Tardieu Scale is a true measure of spasticity. What is the score if there is no resistance throughout the passive movement?
A

C. 0

24
Q
  1. Your stroke patient has beginning extensor synergy of the lower extremity. Which of the following is NOT part of this synergy?
    a. Ankle plantarflexion
    b. Hip abduction
    c. Ankle inversion
    d. Hip adduction
A

B. Hip ABD

25
Q
  1. In neuropsychological rehabilitation, restoration of the lost ability or reorganizing the lost ability by incorporating intact or spared functions is called
    a. Task substitution
    b. Cognitive remediation
    c. Task reorganization
    d. Compensatory strategies
A

B. Cognitive remediation

26
Q
  1. The MS patient referred to you for treatment presents with mainly the following visual impairments: poor visual acuity, photophobia and occasional diplopia. Which of the following is LEAST likely to help?
    a. Keeping her eyes closed
    b. Use of an eye patch
    c. Use of sunglasses
    d. Large-print reading materials
A

A. Keeping her eyes closed

27
Q
  1. Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke recovery?
    a. Stage 5
    b. Stage 3
    c. Stage 4
    d. None of the choices
A

C. Stage 4

28
Q
  1. Spatial attention is a component process needed for mobility. Its role in mobility is
    a. Necessary for awareness of both sides of space
    b. Necessary for turning plans into action
    c. Necessary for using previous experience of routes and locations
    d. Necessary for environmental navigation
A

A. Necessary for awareness of both sides of space

29
Q
  1. Psychosocial benefits of exercise in chronic heart disease patients include most importantly which of the following?
    a. Resumption of sex life
    b. Return to work
    c. Improved well-being
    d. Improved sleep
A

C. Improved well-being

30
Q
  1. The drugs used as anti-TB include which one of the following?
    a. Clindamycin
    b. Erythromycin
    c. Streptomycin
    d. Azithromycin
A

C.streptomycin

31
Q 
31.	Cardiac exercise prescription for Older Adults should include the following components. Which one is
NOT included?
a.	Intensity: RPE Borg 11-14
b.	Time: 20-30 minutes
c.	Type: endurance training
d.	Frequency: 6-7 sessions a week
A

D. Frequency: 6-7 sessions a week

32
Q
  1. A myocardical infarction patient is prescribed the wenger early mobilization program. Step 1 includes which of the following?
    a. Minimal resistance exercises
    b. Active assistive ROM; chair sitting
    c. Legs dangling at side of the bed
    d. Passive ROM; self-feeding; active ankle pumps
A

D. Passive ROM: self-feeding; active pumps ankle

33
Q
  1. Using the Functional Classes of patients with Heart disease, which class has a maximum of 3 METS as permissible workload?
    a. Class IV
    b. Class Il
    c. Class I
    d. Class Ill
A

.d. Class Ill

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is allowable in patients on inpatient cardiac rehabilitation program?
    a. Systolic BP increase > 20 mmHg
    b. Perceived exertion >13/20
    c. Heart rate increase >20
    d. Systolic BP decreased >10 mmHg
A

Systolic BP increase >20 mmHg

35
Q
  1. The sensory fibers which serve pain and temperature are the fibers

a. A-alpha
c. A-beta

A

D. C

36
Q
  1. There are different ways to progress exercise. Which one of the following is NOT one of them?
    a. Increasing the length of the lever
    b. Changing the speed of the exercise
    c. Moving the starting position
    d. Decreasing resistance
A

D. Decreasing resistance

37
Q
  1. Stair climbing requires this much METS
    a. 2-3
    b. 0-1
    c. 5-6
A

C. 5-6

38
Q
  1. Standing uses METS

a. 3-5
b. 2-2.5
c. 0.5-1
d. 1.5-2

A

D. 1.5 -2

39
Q
  1. A 40-year-old obese diabetic patient came to the clinic complaining of 6 weeks painful numbness over the lateral aspect of the right thigh. No weakness is noted. Advice may be given to help relieve the symptom. Which is least likely to help?
    a. Weight loss
    b. Stretching exercises
    c. Avoidance of tight clothing
    d. Pain medications and creams
A

B. Stretching exercises

40
Q
  1. Lateral epicondylitis may be prevented with corrective strategies for tennis players. Which of the following should be advised?
    a. Flexible and lightweight frame
    b. Use the largest comfortable grip
    c. Use of a softer ball
    d. All of the answers are correct
A

D. All of the answers are correct

41
Q
  1. What is the most common indication for joint arthroplasties?
    a. All of the answers are correct
    c. Fractures
    d. OA
A

A. All of the answers are correct

42
Q
  1. Impingement Syndromes of the shoulder affect the following structures. Which of these is NOT commonly affected?
    a. Bursae
    b. Superior aspect of the rotator cuff
    c. Biceps tendon
    d. Coracoclavicular joint
A

D. Coracoclavicular joint

43
Q
  1. On palpation of the ankle, tenderness localized over and just proximal to the malleolus is often found in what injury?
    a. Fracture
    b. Sprain
    c. Dislocation
    d. strain
A

A. Fracture

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is Bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved?
    a. Anterior laxity of the humerus
    b. AC joint sprain
    c. Rotator cuff pathology
    d. Posterior laxity of the humerus
A

D. Posterior laxity of the humerus

45
Q
  1. SCI patient A: deficits are 015 both Biceps and the entire UEx; 0/5 both LEx; sensory 50% over neck area only. What is the injury?
    d. Jefferson fracture (atlas)
A

D. Jefferson fracture (atlas)

46
Q
  1. A 50-year-old stroke patient with a lesion in the left posterior superior temporal region has fluent verbal output, impaired repetition and comprehension. Which type of aphasia does he have?
    a. Conduction
    b. Broca’s
    c. Wernicke’s
    d. Global
A

.C. Wernicke’s

47
Q
  1. In a stroke patient presenting with visual disturbances, memory disturbances, contralateral sensory loss and homonymous field defects, which artery is most likely affected?
    a. Posterior cerebral
    b. Anterior cerebral
    c. Vertebrobasilar
    d. Middle cerebral
A

.A. Posterior cerebral

48
Q
  1. Damage to the frontal lobe can lead to the following behavioral issues EXCEPT:
    a. Deafness
    b. Disinhibition
    c. Reduced motivation
    d. Agitation
A

. A. Deafness

49
Q
  1. Occlusion of the Superior Cerebellar artery, a branch of the Basilar artery has the following symptoms. Which one is NOT a symptom?
    a. Horner’s syndrome
    b. Global aphasia
    c. Ataxia of limbs and gait
    d. Dizziness, nausea and vomiting
A

B. Global aphasia

50
Q
  1. Which maneuver would best assess for weakness in Sl radiculopathy?
    a. Bending forward
    b. Squatting and arising
    c. Toe walking
    d. Walking on heels
A

C. Toe walking

CI (4 decks)

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