Test B Flashcards

1
Q

Which is an effective way to simultaneously market to current and prospective clients of your practice?

A. Create a commercial to be viewed on the local TV station.
B. Send out a mailing to all pet households in your zip code.
C. Conduct an open house at the practice.
D. Post a bulletin board in the lobby with “Feature of the Month.”

A

C. Conduct an open house at the practice.

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2
Q

Why is it essential that veterinary practices know about the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)?

A. To be informed about human medical field requirements in preparation for changes to the veterinary medical field
B. To ensure personnel files and employee medical records are maintained in separate but secure areas
C. To ensure that client records are kept confidential
D. To ensure veterinary practices meet minimum requirements for employee health insurance coverage

A

B. To ensure personnel files and employee medical records are maintained in separate but secure areas

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a hidden ordering cost associated with inventory?

A. Price Shopping
B. Pharmacy licensing/DEA fees
C. Receiving and unpacking a shipment
D. Reconciling statements

A

B. Pharmacy licensing/DEA fees

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4
Q

The funding standards applicable to employee benefits plans are regulated under the

A. Social Security Act.
B. Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees.
C. Internal Revenue Service.
D. Employment Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.

A

D. Employment Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.

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5
Q

To be even remotely competitive, businesses must meet the minimum performance standards in each of the three Value Disciplines. Which discipline below is NOT one of the Value Disciplines in business?

A. Product Leadership.
B. Perceived Market Worth.
C. Customer Intimacy.
D. Operational Excellence.

A

B. Perceived Market Worth.

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6
Q

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits employers with more than 20 employees to discriminate against persons who are over which age?

A. 40 years old
B. 50 years old

A

A. 40 years old

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7
Q

What are the four R’s of team management?

A. Relational, Reward, Reasonable, Resourceful.
B. Relatable, Resilient, Realistic, Risk-aware.
C. Responsibility, Respect, Rapport, Recognition.
D. Resolute, Reverential, Responsive, Reliable.

A

C. Responsibility, Respect, Rapport, Recognition.

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8
Q

What four steps should a manager take to intervene in and resolve staff conflicts?

A. Conduct a staff meeting, use recent examples, set goals for desired behaviors, and closely monitor the situation.
B. Ask employees for feedback to identify problems, find the truths, re-introduce the employee policy on conflict, and closely monitor the situation.
C. Confront the behavior, talk it out, hold employees accountable for the solution, and follow up and share feedback.
D. Identify problem areas, utilize progressive discipline measures, create and/or enforce the policy on conflict, and follow up and share feedback.

A

C. Confront the behavior, talk it out, hold employees accountable for the solution, and follow up and share feedback.

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9
Q

What do we call the following formula: Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity?

A. Present Value Equation
B. Net Income Equation
C. Cash Flow Equation
D. Accounting Equation

A

D. Accounting Equation

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10
Q

Which source of information are your clients and potential clients frequently exposed to first?

A. Print ads
B. Radio
C. Referral
D. Internet

A

D. Internet

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11
Q

Which items should be included in the calculation of the cost of holding a staff meeting?

A. Employee wages, meeting time preparation, missed doctor productivity, and food (optional)
B. Employee wages, food (optional), and hourly overhead for the meeting time
C. Length of meeting, employee wages, food (optional), and lost profits
D. Length of meeting, meeting time preparation, food (optional), and employee wages

A

C. Length of meeting, employee wages, food (optional), and lost profits

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12
Q

What is the recommended number of practice brochures to have printed at one time?

A. One-year supply
B. Six-month supply
C. Half the number of active clients
D. One-month supply

A

B. Six-month supply

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13
Q

Which is the most important factor of the 20-factor common law test?

A. The way in which the individual is trained for the work
B. The number of clients/patients to which the individual provides services
C. The location in which the work is performed
D. The right to control and direct work

A

D. The right to control and direct work

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14
Q

Which statement regarding the confidentiality of client information in the medical record is accurate?

A. It is unethical to release the medical record or client information without a court order or consent of the client.
B. The client information is concfidential but the patient information is not considered confidential.
C. The information in the medical record is not confidential.
D. It is unlawful to disseminate client information without a court order or consent of the client.

A

A. It is unethical to release the medical record or client information without a court order or consent of the client.

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15
Q

What does the acronym CRAFT represent in relation to the compliance process?

A. Compliance = Recommendation + Agreement + Follow-Through
B. Compliance = Recommendation + Acceptance + Follow-Through
C. Compliance = Reassurance + Agreement + Follow-Through
D. Compliance = Reassurance + Acceptance + Follow-Through

A

B. Compliance = Recommendation + Acceptance + Follow-Through

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16
Q

Using the metrics below, calculate the inventory turns per year.
Enzyme Chews in January = 4
Enzyme Chews in December = 4
Total purchased for the year = 36
Inventory turns per year of the Enzyme Chews was:

A. 32.4
B. 18
C. 12
D. 9

A

D. 9

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17
Q

Which two key pieces of information are shown on an accounts payable report?

A. The amount due to the practice and the timeframe
B. The total amount due for all accounts and aging
C. The itemized invoice and the purchase date
D. The amount owed and the date due

A

D. The amount owed and the date due

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18
Q

This diamond labeling system uses numbers, colors (blue, red, yellow, white) and letters to indicate the risks associated with health, fire, reactivity, and special hazards of specific chemicals. These labels are often used on secondary container labels. What is the name of the labels?

A. Hazardous Materials Identification System
B. Chemical Instability Labeling System
C. National Fire Protection Association
D. Chemical Safety Data

A

C. National Fire Protection Association

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19
Q

Which government entity is responsible for implementing the regulations to enforce the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
B. Department of Labor
C. Department of Justice - Civil Rights Division
D. The Federal Labor Relations Authority

A

A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

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20
Q

What should a practice do to help reduce the amount of negative office politics?

A. The owner should talk with the persons who are causing the negativity.
B. The leadership team should implement a policy that promotes team values, fairness, and open communication.
C. Some negativity is normal and, unless it is harmful, can be ignored.
D. The manager should find the source of the negativity and follow the progressive discipline system in the employee manual.

A

B. The leadership team should implement a policy that promotes team values, fairness, and open communication.

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21
Q

When informing the rest of the staff of an employee termination, what approach decreases potential liability issues?

A. Discuss the reason with the staff and remind them how to avoid termination.
B. Do not discuss the termination with staff members.
C. State the employee was terminated for violating hospital policy.
D. Be honest with the staff and tell them the reason for the termination.

A

C. State the employee was terminated for violating hospital policy.

22
Q

The mandatory FLSA, EEOC, FMLA, OSHA, and EPPA posters are made available through which entity?

A. Personnel consulting firms
B. U.S. Department of Labor
C. Internal Revenue Service
D. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

A

B. U.S. Department of Labor

23
Q

Beginning accounts receivable divided by ending accounts receivable equals average accounts receivable.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

24
Q

What two elements are essential for the creation of a bailment?

A. A written and signed agreement defining the specific bailment and naming all potential Bailees and Bailors that may be involved.
B. Physical delivery of the property by the Bailor and knowing acceptance of the property by the Bailee.
C. That the Bailee provide a level of care appropriate to the circumstances and that the Bailor was instrumental in defining those levels of care.
D. The Bailor has informed the Bailee of all known special care necessary to succeed in the role of Bailee and the Bailee has agreed to accepting the responsibility for the special care.

A

B. Physical delivery of the property by the Bailor and knowing acceptance of the property by the Bailee.

25
Q

The practice has budgeted $35,000 a month for flea and heartworm prevention expense. As of March, every month has totaled over $40,000 in flea and heartworm expense, leaving at least a $5,000 monthly _________.

A. anomaly
B. departure
C. variance
D. adjustment

A

C. variance

26
Q

According to Jim Wilson, there are five tiers of practice owner income.
1 - Compensation for veterinary efforts.
2 - Compensation for management.
3 - Equalizing owner perks.
4 - Profits reflected as a return on investment.
What is the 5th tier?

A. Distribution of remaining profit.
B. Complete benefit package.
C. Regular draws against the value of the practice.
D. Base salary with no commission variables.

A

A. Distribution of remaining profit.

27
Q

How can a manager learn about all of the tools and settings of a new practice management software program?

A. By attending continuing education seminars given by the software company
B. Exclusively through reviewing material on the software company’s website
C. Through reading articles in veterinary publications about software features
D. By doing skill drills everyday on the new system

A

A. By attending continuing education seminars given by the software company

28
Q

Which option below is an ancillary benefit of a Ration-Based Inventory System?

A. Fewer expired products, ease of use due to proximity.
B. Multiple team members are responsible for inventory which decreases stock outs.
C. The system is not affected by staff turnover due to transparency in the system.
D. Duplication of drugs is minimized.

A

D. Duplication of drugs is minimized.

29
Q

Which of the statements below is NOT true regarding Ionizing radiation exposure monitors?

A. Radiation badges should be stored protected from sunlight and not be worn outside unless taking radiographs out in the field.
B. Regardless of equipment or number of x-rays taken, it is recommended to exchange radiation badges monthly for the best accuracy.
C. Staff members must be informed of their exposure measurements at least annually.
D. When only one device is worn it should be worn outside the apron at neck level.

A

B. Regardless of equipment or number of x-rays taken, it is recommended to exchange radiation badges monthly for the best accuracy.

30
Q

At which time interval must a veterinary license be renewed?

A. Never; a lifetime license is issued to all veterinary program graduates.
B. Every third year
C. Every other year
D. Every year

A

D. Every year

31
Q

Employee pet health benefits are offered at most practices. Which statement is true regarding the IRS regulation on employee discounts?

A. The business is allowed to provide a discount of up to 50% before taxes are applied.
B. The owner of the business must give similar discounts to all full-time and part-time employees.
C. The business is allowed to discount products to cost and services to no more than 20% of the fee charged to a client.
D. The owner of the business may grant any discount to an employee.

A

C. The business is allowed to discount products to cost and services to no more than 20% of the fee charged to a client.

32
Q

What tool can provide good insight into problems or issues that may not have yet surfaced within the practice?

A. Employee survey
B. Suggestion box
C. Employee self-evaluation
D. Client satisfaction survey

A

A. Employee survey

33
Q

What is the best measure of customer satisfaction?

A. Amount of repeat business
B. Client satisfaction survey results
C. Number of new clients
D. Number of word of mouth referrals

A

D. Number of word of mouth referrals

34
Q

Which is the correct reporting scenario when a workplace injury occurs in a veterinary practice?

A. No report is necessary if the injury does not require medical treatment.
B. File a workers’ compensation report.
C. Complete an OSHA Form 300 if the practice has 11 or more employees.
D. Complete an OSHA Form 300 in all cases.

A

C. Complete an OSHA Form 300 if the practice has 11 or more employees.

35
Q

In what way can a blog be helpful to a veterinary practice?

A. By providing a pathway for veterinarians to communicate with a pet owner about patient progress
B. By allowing pet owners to post information about their pet on the practice web site
C. By providing a means for the manager to use picture and video as a training tool
D. By allowing medical staff to provide medical information and information on service offerings

A

D. By allowing medical staff to provide medical information and information on service offerings

36
Q

What is the foundation for any cash management structure?

A. Good internal controls and video surveillance
B. Documentation and process
C. Video surveillance and training
D. Training and process

A

B. Documentation and process

37
Q

Income Statements, Balance Sheets, and Cash Flow Statements are all examples of a Pro-Forma Statement.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

38
Q

Which statement accurately describes how employees should be compensated for their time spent attending mandatory continuing education classes?

A. They should be compensated at a training rate.
B. They should not be compensated because this is part of the job.
C. They should be compensated at their normal rates and overtime is not included because this is training time.
D. They should be compensated at their normal rates and the hours are included in overtime calculations.

A

D. They should be compensated at their normal rates and the hours are included in overtime calculations.

39
Q

In regards to changing organizational culture; there are five key steps in making a culture change within a practice. 1 - Define the culture. 2 - Align behaviors with the desired culture. 3 - Commit to the change. 4 - Support the shift. What is the fifth step?

A. Grow the team.
B. Measure results.
C. Lead the way.
D. Revisit often.

A

A. Grow the team.

40
Q

As it relates to negotiating, which statement below is NOT true?

A. One question to consider is “what do I really need from this transaction and what do I only want”?
B. To avoid potentially making an agreement too far into the future to actually forecast the benefit, maintain strategies that focus on short-term objectives.
C. Negotiation requires research on the topic being negotiated prior to agreeing to participate.
D. Make sure to identify the best alternative to negotiated agreement.

A

B. To avoid potentially making an agreement too far into the future to actually forecast the benefit, maintain strategies that focus on short-term objectives.

41
Q

Daniel Goleman introduced a mixed model of Emotional Intelligence and in that model the focus is on five skills and competencies that drive leadership. What are those five skills?

A. Comprehension, responsiveness, impulse control, judgement, and discernment.
B.
Self -discipline, perception, sympathy, communication skills, and intent.
C. Self-awareness, motivation, social skills, empathy, and self-regulation.
D. Integrity, decisiveness, commitment, accountability, and creativity.

A

C. Self-awareness, motivation, social skills, empathy, and self-regulation.

42
Q

Kinesics, Proxemics, and Autonomic Shifts are all examples of:

A. Personality profile quadrants.
B. Non-verbal communication.
C. Spatial boundary tolerance in individuals.
D. None of the above.

A

B. Non-verbal communication.

43
Q

Why should the leaders of a practice take time to develop a marketing action plan?

A. To provide an opportunity to discuss the upcoming budget
B. To determine the effectiveness of last year’s marketing plan
C. To plan and account for each step of the entire marketing plan
D. To develop a list of pros and cons for utilizing new marketing techniques

A

C. To plan and account for each step of the entire marketing plan

44
Q

If an employee takes leave under the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA), what happens to his or her health benefits?

A. The benefits continue but the employee contributes nothing because he or she is not working.
B. The benefits are offered through COBRA during FMLA leave.
C. The benefits remain the same as when the employee is working.
D. The benefits are suspended until the employee returns.

A

C. The benefits remain the same as when the employee is working.

45
Q

How are consumers protected from unfair collection tactics?

A. By the provisions of the Consumer Privacy Act
B. By the provisions of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
C. By paying their debts within 90 days
D. By the provisions of the Collection Agency Ethical Guidelines

A

B. By the provisions of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

46
Q

What does a perpetual inventory system do?

A. Provides accurate detail of inventory levels at any time.
B. Tracks inventory items received.
C. Provides inventory sales information whenever needed.
D. Provides an up to the minute list of quantities of inventory on hand.

A

A. Provides accurate detail of inventory levels at any time.

47
Q

Which one of the statements below regarding the I-9 form is NOT true?

A. Form I-9 should be kept four years from the date of hire or one year after termination, whichever is longer.
B. Form I-9 can be inspected at any time.
C. Verification documents for the I-9 do not have to be copied.
D. The I-9 should not be filed out until the first day of employment and not before.

A

A. Form I-9 should be kept four years from the date of hire or one year after termination, whichever is longer.

48
Q

Why should management analyze financial reports on a daily, monthly, and yearly basis?

A. To increase awareness of reports
B. To review what has occurred in business
C. To identify problems sooner versus later
D. To assist in planning

A

C. To identify problems sooner versus later

49
Q

Which statement is true regarding the protection of a pregnant worker’s job?

A. The worker’s job is protected by the Social Security Administration because pregnancy constitutes a short-term disability.
B. The worker’s job is protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act because pregnancy constitutes a short-term disability.
C. The worker’s job is protected by the Civil Rights Act because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination.
D. The worker’s job is protected by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination.

A

C. The worker’s job is protected by the Civil Rights Act because discrimination on the basis of pregnancy constitutes unlawful sex discrimination.

50
Q

According to J. D. Stowe, the single most effective method of marketing a service to a client is what?

A. Having the employees repeat the message a minimum of three times (reception, technician, doctor) per visit.
B. Educational material that is attractive, easy to read, and focused on the benefits of the service.
C. Creating a targeted marketing plan.
D. Using the assumptive sale technique.

A

D. Using the assumptive sale technique.