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106 questions Flashcards

1
Q

telangiectasia

A

spider viens
associated dx processes: rosacea, liver dz, scleroderma, lupus, corticosteroid use, raynauds

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2
Q

type 1 error

A

false postive
incorrectly rejecting the true null hypothesis

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3
Q

type 2 error

A

false negative
failing to reject a false null hypothesis

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4
Q

national mandate for VAP

A

HOB elevated

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5
Q

who is over licensure of APRN

A

BON

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6
Q

sensitivity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those with the disease
those that are postive

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7
Q

specificity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those with out the disease
those that are negative

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8
Q

p< 0.05

A

rejects null

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9
Q

p >0.05

A

fails to reject null

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10
Q

VAP management

A

Vanco
zosyn OR cefepime OR meropenem OR aztreonam
levofloxacin/cipro

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11
Q

tx for cardiac tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis

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12
Q

NP scope of practice

A

based on legal allowances in each State - according to practice acts

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13
Q

vaccines post splenectomy

A

meningococcal and PNU most important

also HIV, Flu, trap, zoster HPV MMR varicella

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14
Q

plasma cortisol of addisons dx

A

<5 at 0800

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15
Q

mtg of hypotension in addisons

A

administer D5NS

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16
Q

steps of research

A

formulate the problem
review literature
formulate hypothesis
select design
identify population
method of data collection
designing the study
conduct the study
analyze data
interpret result
communicate finding

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17
Q

normal urine specific gravity

A

1.010-1.030

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18
Q

arcus senilis

A

blue/grey corneal ring in elderly due to hyperlipidemia - permanent color change, no effect on vision

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19
Q

Changes to vent if a pt goes into ARDS

A

decrease tidal volume to prevent ALI - 4-6ml/kg

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20
Q

changes to vent if pt pulmonary shunting

A

increase PEEP

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21
Q

lab to assess if enteral feeding is beneficial

A

pre-albumin

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22
Q

complication of enteral feeding when someone hasn’t eaten in a while

A

refeeding syndrome
hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypocalcemia
thiamine deficiency

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23
Q

complications of synthorid that causes low compliance

A

alopecia

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24
Q

which patient most likely to have angioedema with ACE

A

African american

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25
fidelity
faithful
26
veracity
truthfulness
27
labs associated to ASA OD
hyperkalemia elevated LFTs metabolic acidosis
28
what do you monitor with pt with cancer and bone mets
hypercalcemia
29
tx for antifreeze ingestion
fomepizole
30
GCS for TBI
mild- 13-15 moderate -9-12 severe- 3-8
31
initial tx for stridor secondary to anaphylaxis
subs epi
32
causes of pre-renal failure
impaired renal perfusion - shock , dehydration, cardiac failure, burns diarrhea, vasodilation/sepsis
33
causes of intra-renal failure
nephrotoxic agents (aminogylcosides) allergic disorders, mismatched blood transfusion, damage to tubular portion of nephron (ATN)
34
s/s of meth OD
mydriasis (dilated pupils) hyperthermia hallucinations
35
mainstay tx of COPD
ipratropium bromide or sympathomimetics
36
when to administer thrombolytics for MI
uncontrolled CP > 30 minutes and < 6 hours PLUS ST elevation; contraindicated in severe uncontrolled HTN >= 185/110
37
genetic trait r/t sickle cell
inherited autosomal recessive, sickle cell trait
38
most preventable death
tobacco use
39
highest mortality rate in US following heart dx
cancer
40
IABP contraindication
aortic valve insufficiency
41
asthmatic treatment ladder
1.-SABA (albuterol) 2.-low dose ICS -budesonide,fluticasone, triamcinolone 3.-low dose ICS + LABA (salmeterol,formoterol) (combo drugs: fluticasone+salmeterol=Advair, Symbicort) 4.-medium dose ICS + LABA 5. high dose ICS + LABA
42
UC tx
mesalamine and hydrocortisone suppositories and/or enemas
43
diverticulitis tx
NPO IVF abx - cipro +flagly, levo +flagyl
44
tx for pericarditis
NSAIDS echo monitor for tamponade
45
pt presents with dysphagia, drooling and expiratory stridor - what do you suspect
epiglottitis
46
who do you test for HIV
IV Drug user unprotected nail sex unprotected vaginal sex
47
tx for pleural effusion with s/s
thoracentesis
48
who do you screen for AAA
65-75 who have ever smoked - selectively screen if never smoked - one time
49
who do you screen for colorectal ca
age 45*75 - stool based test q 3 years, colonoscopy q 10 years, flex sig q 5 ters
50
when do you screen PSA/DRE
annually starting at 40 y/o for men with family hx of prostate ca or AA; annually for all males 50+
51
what age do PAP start
21 with cytology q 3 years 21-65 y/o cytology + HPV every 5 years 30-65 y/o
52
HPV vaccine
age 9-14 series of two 6 months apart 15+45 series of three of 0,2, 6 months
53
metabolic alkalosis is at risk for what
hypokalemia
54
research highest rated to lowest level
meta-analysis systematic review of RCT RCT Quasi-experimental qualitative cohort case-controlled studies expert opinion
55
CQI
quality improvement systematic process of identifying and analyzing problems and then testing, implementing, learning from and revising solutions
56
tx for breakthrough cancer pain
transdermal fentanyl
57
tx for bone pain r/t cancer mets
biophosphonates
58
what do you administer pre-op to heochromocytoma
phentolamine IV then PO phenoxybenazmine after
59
tx for serotonin syndrome
dantrolen sodium
60
who gets pneumonia vaccine
65 and older 19-64 uf smoke or asthma
61
homonymous hemianopia
half vision
62
who developed standards of practice
ANA provides guidelines for nursing perforation - rules or definitions of what it means to provide competent care
63
purpose of managed care
focus on prevention and care management to produce better patient outcomes and help control healthcare costs
64
what diagnostic test order for pt with diverticultis
Plain abdominal film to look for pneumoperitoneium
65
gold standard test for cholecystitis
ultrasound
66
more useful test for acute pancreatitis
CT over US
67
dx of appendicits
ultrasound or CT
68
Iowa model
developed at university of Iowa hospitals and clinics in 1990 to serve as a guide for nurses to use research findings to help improve patient care model was developed as pathway to EBP- a method to guide steep to help identify issues, research solution and implement changes

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