Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Command Study > Command Assessment Questions > Flashcards

Command Assessment Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When do we not need a

Destination Alternate?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Flight < 6 hours
  • Vis 5 km +
  • Ceiling 2,000 feet, or Circling + 500 feet if greater
  • Two Separate Runways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When can we consider

Runways to be separated?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

A
  • Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
  • If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do we require two

destination alternates?

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3

A
  • If desination weather is unavailable.
  • If destination is below planning minima for ETA +/- 1 hour.
  • Landing not assured at destination as landing depends on:
  1. Specific Wind Component, or,
  2. Runway State.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When planning for an alternate,

the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO

that the weather will be below limits.

Can this alternate be used?

A

YES

PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the planning minima

for a

Take-off Alternate?

A
  • At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
  • Any limitation related to:
  • One Engine Inop, or
  • Dispatch under MEL

Shall be taken into consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Within what distance must a

Take-off alternate be?

A
  • 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop crz speed.
  • 320 nm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A
  • A319 - 380 nm
  • A320 - 400 nm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the planning minima

for a destination alternate

if only a NPA

is available?

A
  • MDA + 200 feet
  • RVR + 1,000 m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long is a TEMPO forecast

expected to last?

A
  • Individually less than one hour each episode.
  • In aggreagate less than half of the period specified.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much extra fuel should be

carried for LVPs?

A
  • Half an hour
  • About 1,000 kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel?

A
  • 30 minutes holding fuel
  • 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate
  • ISA Conditions
  • Expected Weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel,

what are the maximum lnding weight

considerations to base your tanker

figure around?

A

MLW - (1% OF MLW)

  • A320 LW = MLW - 660 kg = 65,340 kg
  • A319 LW = MLW - 610 kg = 60,390 kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should you not tanker fuel?

A
  • When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
  • When you expect to land on a performance limited runway.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A
  • 5% of trip fuel, or
  • 5 minutes holding
    • 1,500 feet
    • above destination aerodrome
    • ISA conditions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is contingency fuel for?

A
  • Unforseen circumstances:
    • Unfavourable FL
    • Unfavourable Track
    • Unfavourable Unforecast Wind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the minimum RFF category for

Departure, Destination &

Alternates?

A
  • Departure/Destination:
    • 4 (Temp Downgrade < 72 hours)
  • Alternates:
    • Non-UK: 4
    • UK : 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can we continue to fly to destination knowing

that we will get there below CNR?

A
  • Landing Assured at Destination
  • EAT or Maximum Delay Known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the RVSM requirements

with regard to aircraft equipment.

A
  • 2 ADRs
  • 2 PFDs
  • 1 AP
  • 1 FCU
  • 1 FWC
  • 1 Transponder with Mode S

Primary altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.

19
Q

What are the limitations of

LMCs when

applied to an easyJet

Loadsheet?

A

New Loadsheet required if:

  • +10 or -20 Pax

New Perf Calculation if:

  • Positive LMC & TOGA take-off planned
  • Positive LMC >250 kg

MACTOW changed by >2%.

20
Q

What is the minimum

oil quantity?

A

9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.

21
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine Anti-Ice?

A
  • 1 kg/min
  • 2 kg/min in the hold
22
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Engine + Wing Anti-Ice?

A
  • 2 kg/min
  • 3 kg/min in the hold
23
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

Taxiing:

Single Engine & Two Engine Taxi?

A
  • Single Engine: 7 kg/min
  • Two Engines: 10 kg/min.
24
Q

Fuel Planning:

What is the fuel usage associated with

APU usage?

A
  • 2 kg/min ( 120 kg/ hour )
25
Q

Fuel Planning:

What are the adjustements to be applied

to the OFP fuel

at the planning stage for

increased or reduced mileage?

A
  • Reduction of mileage: 4 kg/nm
  • Increase in mileage: 5 kg/nm
26
Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

A
  • If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
  • Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
27
Q

When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?

A
  • Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
  • < 3 hours rest: Max extension is NIL
  • 3 to 10 hours rest: Max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
28
Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

A
  • 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
  • 1 year: 900 hours
29
Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

A
  • 7 Consecutive Days: 55 hours
    • (Can be extended to 60 hours due to unforseen delays.)
  • 14 Consecutive Days: 95 hours
  • 28 Consecutive Days: 190 hours
30
Q

How many hours can you go into

discretion to extend an FDP?

A
  • 2 Hours
  • 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
31
Q

When must a discretion report be filed?

A
  • Discretion > 2 hours
  • Reduced rest > 1 hour
  • Exceedance of Cumulative Limits on Flying.
32
Q

By how much can you reduce a rest period?

A
  • Home Base:
    • Maximum 1 hour, but
      • Not less than 12 hours rest; Flight Deck
      • Not less than 11 hours rest; Cabin Crew.
  • Away from base:
    • minimum requirement is that allocated room be available for a minimum of 10 hours.
33
Q

What are the First Officer

Handling Limitations?

A
  • Maximum Cross Wind: 20 knots
  • No planned tailwind for *** FO
  • No Flap 3 landing for *** FO
    • Unless required by an emergency procedure.
  • No FO takeoff if VIS < 400m
  • No Contaminated RWY
  • No Windshear
  • Minimum Runway width 45m
  • Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000m.
34
Q

What is the Procedure for reporting a

Bird Strike?

A
  • Inform ATC at the time of the incident.
  • Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
35
Q

When may Flex not be

used for Takeoff?

A
  • Contaminated RWY.
  • Windshear reported.
36
Q

What is the minimum RVR for Takeoff?

What if you’re not LVO qualified?

What visual segment is required?

A
  • 125m
  • 150m if not LVO qulaified
  • 90m visual segment required.
    • This is an a/c design requirement.
    • All A320 family compliant.
37
Q

Is the third segment RVR required for

takeoff or landing?

A
  • Only if relevant, i.e.;
    • Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the takeoff case (ADS< 2/3 TODT to be certain.)
    • Less than 60 knots in the Landing Roll (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
38
Q

Do you need RVRs for takeoff in LVPs?

or, is met VIS OK?

A
  • Yes, you need RVRs in the LVO takeoff case.
  • RVR derived from a conversion from Met VIS is only allowed for LANDING & if the RVR required is >800m.
39
Q

When do LVPs come into force?

A
  • RVR < 600m
  • Ceiling < 200 feet
40
Q

How many Infants may be carried onboard?

A
  • 2 per accompanying adult.
41
Q

Circling Approach.

When must you disconnect the AP?

A
  • 100 feet below the MDA.
42
Q

The Dispatcher informs you that

Human Remains are being carried.

Can you Carry them?

What about Ashes?

A
  • No.
  • Unless Ashes:
    • Suitable Container
    • Death Certificate
    • Cremation Certificate
    • Hand Luggage Only.
43
Q

What are the criteria for carrying

Musical Instruments?

& Specifically Cellos?

A
  • Small musical instruments should be stowed in the overhead locker.
  • Where not practical to combine musical instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed.
  • Larger Instruments eg Cellos:
    • Seat to be purchased
    • Window Seat
    • Not a restricted Seat
    • Centre of mass < 30 cm above top of seat cushion.
    • Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment.)
44
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher,

can we carry him?

A

No

Command Study (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions