Capsule GP Flashcards

1
Q

Which three of the following medications are used in the prophylaxis of migraine headaches?

A

Amitriptyline

Propranolol

Topiramate

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2
Q

most appropriate test if high cholesterol suspected

A

fasting lipid glucose

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3
Q

Total cholesterol: 9.5 mmol/l Triglycerides: normal HDL: low LDL: high Which further blood tests are indicated here?

A

renal and liver function

thyroid function

fasting blood glucose

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4
Q

All Jade’s other test results are normal and the clinical diagnosis of Familial hypercholesterolaemia is made. Her GP refers her to a specialist to confirm the diagnosis of Type IIa Familial Hypercholesterolaemia. What is the specialist likely to recommend?

A

lipid lowering medication e.g. statin

lifestyle: Smoking cessation, diet modification, physical exercise and alcohol consumption decrease

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5
Q

Causes of secondary hypercholesterolaemia include (

A

uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, obesity, excess alcohol consumption, untreated hypothyroidism and some medications, for example, thiazide diuretics and ciclosporin.

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6
Q

MMR vaccine

A
  • live attenuated
  • first dose given at 12 months (A booster dose is given at three years four months old or soon after.)
  • safe for egg allergy
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7
Q

Which of these statements are true when it comes to the UKMEC guidelines for prescribing contraception? Choose two options.

A 36 year old woman who smokes 40 cigarettes a day can be given the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) safely

A 22 year old woman who has been breastfeeding since delivery 4 weeks ago, can consider starting the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

Having varicose veins is not a contra-indication on using the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) or the progesterone only pill (POP)

Patients with compensated cirrhosis without complications can consider having the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) or the progesterone only pill (POP))

A

The UKMEC guidelines are used to determine the risks and benefit in prescribing or giving hormonal and intrauterine contraception in women. The UKMEC guidelines give a category score of 1 to 4 for different types of contraception and whether or not to use them in patients with certain medical conditions e.g. hypertension, smoking etc. These guidelines can be updated and changed on a regular basis, therefore it is always best to check the guidelines when prescribing contraception.

The scores indicate the following:

UKMEC Definition of category
Category 1 – A condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the method
Category 2 – A condition where the advantages of using the method generally outweigh the theoretical or proven risks
Category 3 – A condition where the theoretical or proven risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the method. The provision of a method requires expert clinical judgement and/or referral to a specialist contraceptive provider, since use of the
method is not usually recommended unless other more appropriate methods are not available or not acceptable
Category 4 – A condition which represents an unacceptable health risk if the method is used

Women who are 35 years of age or older and who smoke 15 or more cigarettes a day have category 4 for combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP).

Women who are breastfeeding for 0 to 6 weeks postpartum have category 4 for COCP.

Having varicose veins is given category 1 for both the COCP and progesterone only pill (POP). Also having mild cirrhosis without complications is also given category 1 for both the COCP and the POP.

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8
Q

As his GP, what conservative measures would be appropriate to advise this patient to do whilst trying to quit smoking? Choose three options.

A

Write a list of reasons why you want to stop

Set a date for stopping and stop completely – this is usually the best way as patients who cut down their smoking usually smoke more per cigarette.

Tell everyone that you are giving up smoking so that they are aware

Get rid of ashtrays, lighters and cigarettes

Be prepared for smoke withdrawal symptoms

Anticipate a cough

Be positive and take each day as it comes

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9
Q

Bupropion is sometimes prescribed in patients to assist them in giving up smoking. Which of the statements below are true? Choose three options.

A

Bupropion should be started while the person is still smoking, and they should be advised to stop smoking 7–14 days after initiating the medication.

The dose of bupropion is 150 mg once a day for 6 days, increasing to 150 mg twice a day for a total of 7–9 weeks. A lower dose should be used in the elderly, patients who have mild to moderate liver impairment and renal impairment where GFR is less than 50 mL/min.

Contraindications to prescribing bupropion include current seizures, a history of seizure, a central nervous system tumour, severe hepatic cirrhosis and if there is a history of bipolar disorder, anorexia nervosa or bulimina.

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10
Q

which of the following 2 are correct

A one-off blood pressure reading of 140/90mmHg requires treatment with anti-hypertensives

Isolated systolic hypertension is not associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease

The target blood pressure for diabetic patients with target organ damage (e.g. nephropathy) is <130/80mmHg

Antihypertensive drug treatment should be initiated in patients with sustained clinic systolic blood pressure ≥ 160 mmHg or sustained clinic diastolic blood pressure ≥ 100 mmHg

The use of beta-blockers is absolutely contraindicated in heart failure

A

The target blood pressure for diabetic patients with target organ damage (e.g. nephropathy) is <130/80mmHg

Antihypertensive drug treatment should be initiated in patients with sustained clinic systolic blood pressure ≥ 160 mmHg or sustained clinic diastolic blood pressure ≥ 100 mmHg

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11
Q

what is required for diagnosis of dementia

A

CT scan

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12
Q

Acute confusional state: if treating the underlying cause and environmental modification not working then ………………….. sometimes used

A

haloperidol

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13
Q

You are called to review an 82-year-old male on the geriatric ward who was admitted 7-days previously with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and Parkinson’s disease. Upon arriving, the patient is clearly confused and is trying to physically attack ward staff and other patients. Non-pharmacological attempts to calm the patient fail and the decision is taken to use pharmacological therapy.

Which of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?

A

lorazapem

Typical antipsychotics should be avoided in delirious patients with a background of Parkinson’s disease

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14
Q

A 38-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and wheezy episodes. His symptoms started 1 year ago. His shortness of breath was more marked in the evening and early morning. He also stated that his symptom worsens on dust exposure and in the winter season. He has no significant past medical and drug history of note. Two of his family members has a history of asthma. He is a non-smoker and social drinker.

On examination, there were widespread rhonchi present on both lungs upon auscultation of the chest.

What would be his expected spirometric findings?

A

FEV1-significantly reduced, FVC- normal, FEV1/FVC- reduced with >12% post-bronchodilator improvement is the correct option. In the given context, the patient’s symptoms, significant diurnal variation, dust and seasonal aggravation, positive family history and examination findings point towards the diagnosis of bronchial asthma. Bronchial asthma is an obstructive airway disease with post-bronchodilator reversibility. Pulmonary function tests can be used to determine whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. The table below summarises the main findings and gives some example conditions.

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15
Q

A 48-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath, cough, with some specs of brown sputum. The only recent change in her life is moving into her new flat. Chest x-ray appears normal but blood tests later reveal an elevated IgE and IgM to A.fumigatus and so a diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is made.

Which of the following would be considered a major feature seen in this condition?

A
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16
Q

A 48-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath, cough, with some specs of brown sputum. The only recent change in her life is moving into her new flat. Chest x-ray appears normal but blood tests later reveal an elevated IgE and IgM to A.fumigatus and so a diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is made.

Which of the following would be considered a major feature seen in this condition?

A

Eosinophilia is a feature of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

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17
Q

A 60-year-old man is being investigated for chronic breathlessness. After a respiratory review, he is sent for a high-resolution CT scan to assess for any interstitial lung disease. Upper zone fibrosis is noted on the CT report.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis typically causes upper zone fibrosis

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18
Q

An obese 49-year-old male presents after experiencing 4 episodes of haemoptysis over the last two weeks. He has a 30 pack year smoking history. On examination the patient has purple striae on his abdomen and there is reduced air entry in the right lung. A chest radiograph shows a well defined opacity in the right middle zone. Lung cancer is strongly suspected.

Baseline ACTH is 246 ng/L (normal <80 ng/L) and cortisol is 800 mmol/L (normal 450-700 mmol/L) measured at 9am. The cortisol is not suppressed with high dose dexamethasone.Blood tests reveal:

A

small cell lung cancer

Paraneoplastic manifestations of small cell lung cancer are produced by their ectopic production of ACTH and ADH. The ACTH production produces a cushing’s syndrome. The ADH production leads to a dilutional hyponatraemia.

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19
Q

A 72-year-old female patient, with a past history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to her general practitioner for the results of her annual urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) test. Her previous results have all been below 3mn/mmol, but on this occasion, it is reported as 4.7mg/mmol. The patient also has the following blood results:

What is the most important change which should be made in her management plan, in response to this finding?

Commence an ACE inhibitor

Commence darbepoetin

Commence phosphate binders

Increase the frequency of ACR monitoring to twice yearly

Refer to nephrology

A

Commence an ACE inhibitor is correct as this should be done In all patients with a clinically raised ACR (>3mg/mmol) and co-existent diabetes mellitus.

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20
Q

What is the most appropriate contraception option for someone recently diagnosed with breast cancee?

A

copper intrauterine device

Current breast cancer is a contraindication for all hormonal contraceptives options (UKMEC 4), including the Depo-Provera.

Therefore, the copper intrauterine device is the only appropriate contraception out of the options given.

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20
Q

What is the most appropriate contraception option for someone recently diagnosed with breast cancee?

A

copper intrauterine device

Current breast cancer is a contraindication for all hormonal contraceptives options (UKMEC 4), including the Depo-Provera.

Therefore, the copper intrauterine device is the only appropriate contraception out of the options given.

21
Q

A 31-year-old female presents 5 weeks postpartum. She asks about methods of contraception that would be safe for her baby as she is exclusively breastfeeding. Which methods of contraception would not be recommended for this patient?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill is absolutely contraindicated in women who are breastfeeding and less than 6 weeks postpartum. This is because combined hormonal contraceptives reduce breast milk volume.

22
Q

which contraceptive is appropriate for breastfeeding mothers

A

The progesterone-only pill is a suitable method for contraception in breastfeeding mothers from 4 weeks and is the most appropriate option in this case.

Breastfeeding in less than 6 weeks is an absolute contraindication (UKMEC 4) for combined hormonal contraception, making the combined pill, patch and NuvaRing inappropriate.

23
Q

An 18-year-old woman presents to your GP practice. The patient tells you that she has had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 4 days ago and needs some emergency contraception. She smokes 20 cigarettes a day and suffers from IBS.

She is on day 18 of her 28 day cycle.

What is the most appropriate management for this woman?

A

Ulipristal (EllaOne) - a type of emergency hormonal contraception, can be used up to 120 hours post UPSI

Levonorgestrel is inappropriate as this patient has presented 96 hours after her UPSI, and levonorgestrel is only effective for up to 72 hours past UPSI.

24
Q

A 19-year-old woman presents to your surgery after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 4 days ago. She is not on any contraception and is worried she will become pregnant. This woman has a past medical history of major depression and severe asthma, for which she takes 25mg OD sertraline, 200 micrograms salbutamol inhaler PRN, beclomethasone 400 micrograms BD and formoterol 12 micrograms BD.

She is on day 25 of a 35 day cycle.

What is the most appropriate intervention to prevent this woman becoming pregnant?

A

The answer is the intra-uterine device aka the copper coil. This woman is presenting 4 days (96 hours) after UPSI. The levonorgestrel pill is only effective up to 72 hours after UPSI, so is not appropriate. Ulipristal is effective up to 120 hours after UPSI, but is cautioned due to this patient’s severe asthma, thus the IUD would be the most appropriate in this scenario.

25
Q

which form of contraception is not suitable for transgender patient on testosterone therapy (born female)

A

COCP

  • oestrogen antagonises the progesterone

The copper intrauterine device is suitable, as it is non-hormonal and will not interfere with testosterone.

A progesterone-only pill is actually acceptable to use, as it is not thought to have any adverse effect on testosterone therapy.

26
Q

POP and antibiotics

A

‘effectiveness of oral progestogen-only preparations is not affected by antibacterials that do not induce liver enzymes’. Ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) inhibitor, not an inducer. This means that the efficacy of this patient’s contraception is not affected and she does not need to use additional barrier contraception.

27
Q

A 24-year-old woman is due to be discharged from the labour ward after an uncomplicated delivery. Prior to discharge, the team discusses contraception with her. The patient was previously taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and would like to restart this.

The patient has no significant medical history, takes no other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.

When can the patient safely restart her medication?

A

Microgynon is a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The COCP is contraindicated in the first 21 days after birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. When it can safely be restarted depends on whether the patient is breastfeeding (in which case it is not restarted until at least 6 weeks postpartum) and whether there are additional risk factors for venous thromboembolism (at which case it may be restarted later). This patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risks for thromboembolic disease, so she can restart her pill at 3 weeks.

28
Q

Which method of contraception is most associated with this side effect?

A

depo-povera injection

29
Q

MOA of combined pill

A

inhibits ovulation

works primarily by inhibiting ovulation via action on the hypothalamo-pituitary-ovarian axis to reduce luteinising hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone. Alterations to cervical mucus and the endometrium may also contribute to the efficacy of CHC.

30
Q

moa of copper coil

A

Decreases sperm motility and survival

31
Q

MOA of implantable contraceptive (etonogestrel)

A

prevents ovulation

The progestogen-only implant is a long-acting reversible method of contraception (LARC). The primary mode of action is to prevent ovulation. Implants also prevent sperm penetration by altering the cervical mucus and possibly prevent implantation by thinning the endometrium

32
Q

POP MOA

A

thickening cervical mucus thereby preventing sperm penetration

33
Q

A 27-year-old female presents to her GP as she missed her desogestrel contraceptive pill (progestogen only) this morning and is unsure what to do. She normally takes the pill at around 0900 and it is now 1430. What advice should be given?

A

As desogestrel has a 12-hour window this patient should take the pill now with no further action being needed

34
Q

The combined oral contraceptive pill is thought to reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer?

A

ovarian

Combined oral contraceptive pill

  • increased risk of breast and cervical cancer
  • protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
35
Q

A 43-year-old woman comes for review. A few months ago she developed redness around her nose and cheeks. This is worse after drinking alcohol. She is concerned as one of her work colleagues asked her if she had a drink problem despite her drinking 10 units per week

A

acne rosacea

Rosacea features:

  • nose, cheeks and forehead
  • flushing, erythema, telangiectasia → papules and pustules
36
Q

A 23-year-old female boxer presents to her GP practice with itchy feet/toes and scaling of the skin between her toes. A positive culture of skin scrapings taken when she first presented 4 weeks ago confirmed athlete’s foot and she has now completed a 4 week course of topical imidazole without resolution of her symptoms.

What treatment is now indicated?

A

oral terbinafine

If initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot fails, oral antifungal treatment is indicated

37
Q

A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a three-week history of an itchy rash over the face and upper chest. His only past medical history is HIV for which he is poorly compliant with his anti-retroviral medications.

On examination, areas of erythema over the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest are noted. Excoriations surrounding the rash are present.

What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A

topical ketoconazole

This man has presented with a rash consistent with seborrhoeic dermatitis, which he is at particular risk of given his past medical history of HIV. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole.

38
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with some green, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. It has been present for the last month and it is associated with pain. She is sexually active and had non-protected intercourse two months ago. She is not on any contraception. After a negative pregnancy test, the doctor performs a vaginal examination and measures the vaginal pH that is equal to 5.2.

Which one of the following is the most likely organism causing her symptoms?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis + bacterial vaginosis are associated with a pH > 4.5

39
Q

A 20-year-old female who recently visited the jungles of Peru for 7 days presents to your clinic. She became ill on the 5th day of her trip with fever, diffuse pain in her legs and lethargy. A few days later she felt much better, however, as of today she deteriorated with visible jaundice, high fever and multiple episodes of vomiting. On examination, there are no obvious skin changes other than jaundice.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A
  • The pattern of disease is most consistent with yellow fever. Classically it will present in two phases where the patient experiences a brief remission in between. Yellow fever is mostly concentrated in Africa but it still persists in some rural areas of South America. It can present very quickly with non-specific symptoms and it has an incubation period of 2-14 days which is fitting with this patients history.
  • Malaria tends to present with a cyclical fever with an incubation period of over 7 days. Dengue has an incubation period of 4 to 10 days.
  • Hepatitis B 40 to 160 days.
  • Leptospirosis can present similarly, however, it has an incubation period of 7 to 21 days
40
Q

A 55-year-old man attends after puncturing the skin of his left hand with a small garden fork whilst weeding. On removing the temporary bandage there is no active bleeding but a puncture wound is noted. He has tried to clean the wound but there remains some soil in situ. He is unsure of his tetanus vaccination history but thinks he ‘has never not had a vaccine he’s been offered’. You can find no record on his tetanus vaccine history on his medical notes. What is the most appropriate course of action?

A

This is a high-risk wound (soil contamination which may contain tetanus spores) in a patient without a clear history of tetanus vaccination. He therefore requires both a tetanus vaccine booster and tetanus immunoglobulin.

41
Q

Overgrowth of which one of the following organisms is most likely to cause bacterial vaginosis?

A

Bacterial vaginosis - overgrowth of predominately Gardnerella vaginalis

42
Q

treatment of hyperkalaemia

A
  • Calcium gluconate
    • calcium stabilises myocardium preventing arrythmia
  • Insulin dextrose
    • Drives potassium into cells to lower plasma conc.
    • Given with glucose to avoid hypoglycaemia
  • Calcium resonium
    • Removes K+ by increasing excretion from bowels. Only way to remove K+ without renal replacement therapy
43
Q

describe this ECG

A

The heart rhythm is regular, but no P waves are seen, the T waves are peaked and there is a tachycardia. This ECG is seen in hyperkalaemia.

The next change is a widening of the QRS complex, followed by ventricular arrhythmias which are often fatal.

44
Q

calcium resonium and hyperkalaemia

A

Calcium resonium or Lokelma is given orally with aperients and will help reduce potassium chronically, but takes >24hrs to have an effect. You cannot give it IV.

45
Q

Indications for urgent dialysis:

A

1.Uraemic encephalopathy (usually urea is >40 but can be at lower concentrations depending on speed of urea rise and patient baseline susceptibility to confusion)

This is rare.

  1. Hyperkalaemia resistant to medical treatment. Every time you give insulin/dextrose think about how the potassium is going to leave the body. These treatments just push potassium intracellularly. Urine output encouraged by appropriate use of iv fluids for rehydration will achieve this potassium loss in most cases. Check K 4 hours after insulin/dextrose and repeat treatment if still high. After 2-3 rounds of treatment you might call this resistant hyperkalaemia.

This is common

  1. Metabolic acidosis uncontrolled by medical treatment. Usually this will resolve with appropriate use of iv fluids (0.9% NaCl) to restore circulating volume. Once rehydration has begun could consider giving iv sodium bicarbonate. Need to be cautious here as can worsen intracellular acidosis if started too early in resuscitation process.
  2. Pulmonary oedema with oliguria.
46
Q

A 74-year-old male presents to hospital with breathlessness. He does not think that he has passed urine for 24 hours.

type of renal failure

A

chronic renal failure

The low haemoglobin and more significantly low serum calcium and elevated serum phosphate would suggest that he has had significant renal impairment GFR <30mls/min for several months.

47
Q

A 74-year-old male presents to hospital with breathlessness. He does not think that he has passed urine for 24 hours.

Abdominal examination reveals a mass arising from his pelvis and extending to the level of his umbilicus. Which single investigation/intervention would now be helpful in further identifying a cause of his renal failure?

A

urethral catherisation

In this case the anuria and mass arising from the pelvis is highly suggestive of chronic bladder outflow obstruction.

  • Acute bladder outflow obstruction does not present with such a large bladder as the process is uncomfortable and leads to earlier presentation.
  • Chronic, subtotal obstruction allows time for the bladder to enlarge before presentation.The initial treatment of outflow obstruction is to relieve the obstruction by passing a urethral catheter. Very large residual volumes of urine may be seen. (Low pressure chronic retention-not very painful unlike acute urinary obstruction which is very painful!)
48
Q

bowel cancer symptoms

A

weight loss, change in bowel habit, tenesmus and the presence of mucus in the stool.

49
Q

familial conditions associated with colon cancer

A

A number of familial syndromes are associated with a high risk of colorectal adenocarcinoma. These include Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. The absolute lifetime risk of colorectal adenocarcinoma is highest in familial adenomatous polyposis.