PassMed Flashcards

1
Q

What medication to treat tardive dyskinesia? repetitive involuntary movements including grimacing and sticking out the tongue.

A

Tetrabenezine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antipsychotic results in prolonged QT syndrome?

A

haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what reduces the seizure threshold?

A

atypical (2nd gen) > typical antipsychotics

e.g. clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

antipsychotic side effects

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antipsychotics: mechanism of action, adverse effects, examples

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

examples of acute dystonia?

A

sustained muscle contractions torticollis and oculogyric crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

examples of acute dystonia?

A

sustained muscle contractions (torticollis and oculogyric crisis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

risks of antipsychotics in the elderly

A
  • increased risk of stroke
  • increased risk of venous thromboembolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

anti-muscarinic side effects

examples of anti-muscarinics

A

dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation

clozapine, TCAs, anti-parkinson drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ECT: side effects (immediate and long term)

A

Immediate side effects

Short term:

  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Aching muscles
  • Loss of appetite
  • SHORT TERM MEMORY IMPAIRMENT = RETROGRADE AMNESIA
  • CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIA

Long term side effects

  • Apathy
  • Anhedonia
  • Difficulty concentrating
  • Loss of emotional responses
  • Difficulty learning new information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECT: side effects (immediate and long term)

A

Immediate side effects

Short term:

  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Aching muscles
  • Loss of appetite
  • SHORT TERM MEMORY IMPAIRMENT = RETROGRADE AMNESIA
  • CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIA

Long term side effects

  • Apathy
  • Anhedonia
  • Difficulty concentrating
  • Loss of emotional responses
  • Difficulty learning new information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do we use ECT?

A

Catatonia

Prolonged or severe manic episode

Episode of moderate depression known to respond to ECT in the past

Severe depression that is life-threatening

NOTE: it is effective in pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long is a depressive episode?

A

more then 2 WEEKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

depressive disorder criteria

A

more than 2 weeks AND

Mild Depressive Episode:

  • At least 2 of the main 3 symptoms of depression, and at least two of the other symptoms, should be present for a definite diagnosis. None of the symptoms should be present to an intense degree
  • Minimum duration of the whole episode is about 2 weeks
  • Individuals may be distressed by symptoms, but should be able to continue work and social functioning

Moderate Depressive Episode:

  • At least 2 of the main 3 symptoms of depression, and at least three (and preferably four) of the other symptoms, should be present for a definite diagnosis
  • Minimum duration of the whole episode is about 2 weeks
  • Individuals will usually have considerable difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning

Severe Depressive Episode:

  • All three of the typical symptoms should be present, plus at least four other symptoms, some of which should be of severe intensity
  • The minimum duration of the whole episode should last at least 2 weeks, but if the symptoms are particularly severe then it may be appropriate to make an early diagnosis
  • Can also experience psychotic symptoms with severe depressive episodes
  • Individuals show severe distress and/or agitation

22

23

34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Obsessions vs compulsions

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterised by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, but commonly both. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/ or distress.

An obsession is defined as an unwanted intrusive thought, image or urge that repeatedly enters the person’s mind. Compulsions are repetitive behaviours or mental acts that the person feels driven to perform. A compulsion can either be overt and observable by others, such as checking that a door is locked, or a covert mental act that cannot be observed, such as repeating a certain phrase in one’s mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

OCD associations

A

Associations

  • depression (30%)
  • schizophrenia (3%)
  • Sydenham’s chorea
  • Tourette’s syndrome
  • anorexia nervosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OCD mx

A

Management

  • If functional impairment is mild
    • low-intensity psychological treatments: cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP)
    • If this is insufficient or can’t engage in psychological therapy, then offer choice of either a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP)
  • If moderate functional impairment
    • offer a choice of either a course of an SSRI (any SSRI for OCD but fluoxetine specifically for body dysmorphic disorder) or more intensive CBT (including ERP)
  • If severe functional impairment
    • offer combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT (including ERP)

Notes on treatments

  • ERP is a psychological method which involves exposing a patient to an anxiety provoking situation (e.g. for someone with OCD, having dirty hands) and then stopping them engaging in their usual safety behaviour (e.g. washing their hands). This helps them confront their anxiety and the habituation leads to the eventual extinction of the response
  • if treatment with SSRI is effective then continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement
  • If SSRI ineffective or not tolerated try either another SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OCD: what is the medication and for how long, and what is the next medication

A

FLUOXETINE for 12 weeks

if first SSRI not effective after 12 weeks → CLOMIPRAMINE or alternative SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Personality disorders: what are the three clusters?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is cluster A?

A

Odd or Eccentric = paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

Paranoid

  • Hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted
  • Unwarranted tendency to question the loyalty of friends
  • Reluctance to confide in others
  • Preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meaning
  • Unwarranted tendency to perceive attacks on their character

Schizoid

  • Indifference to praise and criticism
  • Preference for solitary activities
  • Lack of interest in sexual interactions
  • Lack of desire for companionship
  • Emotional coldness
  • Few interests
  • Few friends or confidants other than family

Schizotypal

  • Ideas of reference (differ from delusions in that some insight is retained)
  • Odd beliefs and magical thinking
  • Unusual perceptual disturbances
  • Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
  • Odd, eccentric behaviour
  • Lack of close friends other than family members
  • Inappropriate affect
  • Odd speech without being incoherent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is cluster B?

A

Dramatic, Emotional or Erratic = Antisocial, Borderline (EU), Histrionic

Antisocial

  • Failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviours as indicated by repeatedly performing acts that are grounds for arrest;
  • More common in men;
  • Deception, as indicated by repeatedly lying, use of aliases, or conning others for personal profit or pleasure;
  • Impulsiveness or failure to plan ahead;
  • Irritability and aggressiveness, as indicated by repeated physical fights or assaults;
  • Reckless disregard for the safety of self or others;
  • Consistent irresponsibility, as indicated by repeated failure to sustain consistent work behaviour or honour financial obligations;
  • Lack of remorse, as indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another

Borderline - also known as Emotionally Unstable

  • Efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment
  • Unstable interpersonal relationships which alternate between idealization and devaluation
  • Unstable self image
  • Impulsivity in potentially self damaging area (e.g. Spending, sex, substance abuse)
  • Recurrent suicidal behaviour
  • Affective instability
  • Chronic feelings of emptiness
  • Difficulty controlling temper
  • Quasi psychotic thoughts

Histrionic

  • Inappropriate sexual seductiveness
  • Need to be the centre of attention
  • Rapidly shifting and shallow expression of emotions
  • Suggestibility
  • Physical appearance used for attention seeking purposes
  • Impressionistic speech lacking detail
  • Self dramatization
  • Relationships considered to be more intimate than they are

Narcissistic

  • Grandiose sense of self importance
  • Preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, power, or beauty
  • Sense of entitlement
  • Taking advantage of others to achieve own needs
  • Lack of empathy
  • Excessive need for admiration
  • Chronic envy
  • Arrogant and haughty attitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is cluster C?

A

Anxious and Fearful = OCD, Avoidant, Dependent

Obsessive-compulsive

  • Is occupied with details, rules, lists, order, organization, or agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is gone
  • Demonstrates perfectionism that hampers with completing tasks
  • Is extremely dedicated to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities
  • Is meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, or values
  • Is not capable of disposing worn out or insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning
  • Is unwilling to pass on tasks or work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things
  • Takes on a stingy spending style towards self and others; and shows stiffness and stubbornness

Avoidant

  • Avoidance of occupational activities which involve significant interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism, or rejection.
  • Unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked
  • Preoccupied with ideas that they are being criticised or rejected in social situations
  • Restraint in intimate relationships due to the fear of being ridiculed
  • Reluctance to take personal risks due to fears of embarrassment
  • Views self as inept and inferior to others
  • Social isolation accompanied by a craving for social contact

Dependent

  • Difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance from others
  • Need for others to assume responsibility for major areas of their life
  • Difficulty in expressing disagreement with others due to fears of losing support
  • Lack of initiative
  • Unrealistic fears of being left to care for themselves
  • Urgent search for another relationship as a source of care and support when a close relationship ends
  • Extensive efforts to obtain support from others
  • Unrealistic feelings that they cannot care for themselves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do we manage personality disorders?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Cotard Syndrome?

A

Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patientbelieves that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary.

Cotard syndrome is associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

A 60-year-old male is admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit last night. On reviewing him this morning, he is a poor historian, answering most questions minimally and stating he does not need to be here as he is deceased, and hospitals should be for living patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Atypical antipsychotics: adverse effects

A
  • weight gain
  • clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis
  • hyperprolactinaemia

Specific medications:

  • clozapine
  • olanzapine: higher risk of dyslipidemia and obesity
  • risperidone
  • quetiapine
  • amisulpride
  • aripiprazole: generally good side-effect profile, particularly for prolactin elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does clozapine cause? (2 and others)

A

Agranulocytosis and neutropenia

  • agranulocytosis (1%), neutropaenia (3%)
  • reduced seizure threshold - can induce seizures in up to 3% of patients
  • constipation
  • myocarditis: a baseline ECG should be taken before starting treatment
  • hypersalivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When should you introduce clozapine?

A

Clozapine should be introduced if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs(one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug), each for at least 6–8 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When would you dose adjust clozapine?

A

Dose adjustment of clozapine might be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

smoking cessation causes a rise in clozapine blood levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is Lithium used + normal range

A

Lithium is mood stabilising drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lithium adverse effects

A
  • nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea
  • fine tremor
  • nephrotoxicity: polyuria, secondary to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • thyroid enlargement, may lead to hypothyroidism
  • ECG: T wave flattening/inversion
  • weight gain
  • idiopathic intracranial hypertension
  • leucocytosis
  • hyperparathyroidism and resultant hypercalcaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Monitoring patients on lithium therapy

A
  • when checking lithium levels, the sample should be taken 12 hours post-dose
  • after starting lithium levels should be performed weekly and after each dose change until concentrations are stable
  • once established, lithium blood level should ‘normally’ be checked every 3 months
  • after a change in dose, lithium levels should be taken a week later and weekly until the levels are stable.
  • thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months
  • patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card and record book
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is anxiety disorder?

A

Anxiety is a common disorder that can present in multiple ways. NICE define the central feature as an ‘excessive worry about a number of different events associated with heightened tension.’

Always look for a potential physical cause when considering a psychiatric diagnosis. In anxiety disorders, important alternative causes include hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease and medication-induced anxiety (NICE). Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants and caffeine

  • Fatigue.
  • Trouble sleeping.
  • Muscle tension or muscle aches.
  • Trembling, feeling twitchy.
  • Nervousness or being easily startled.
  • Sweating.
  • Nausea, diarrhea or irritable bowel syndrome.
  • Irritability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do we manage GAD?

A

NICE suggest a step-wise approach:

  • step 1: education about GAD + active monitoring
  • step 2: low-intensity psychological interventions (individual non-facilitated self-help or individual guided self-help or psychoeducational groups)
  • step 3: high-intensity psychological interventions (cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation) or drug treatment. See drug treatment below for more information
  • step 4: highly specialist input e.g. Multi agency teams

Drug treatment

  • NICE suggest sertraline should be considered the first-line SSRI
  • if sertraline is ineffective, offer an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
    • examples of SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine
  • If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, consider offering pregabalin
  • interestingly for patients under the age of 30 years NICE recommend you warn patients of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm.
  • Weekly follow-up is recommended for the first month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do we manage panic disorder?

A

Again a stepwise approach:

  • step 1: recognition and diagnosis
  • step 2: treatment in primary care - see below
  • step 3: review and consideration of alternative treatments
  • step 4: review and referral to specialist mental health services
  • step 5: care in specialist mental health services

Treatment in primary care

  • NICE recommend either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment
  • SSRIs are first-line. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks then imipramine or clomipramine should be offered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome (NB: WEKS)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome (NB: WEKS)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Panic disorder is a mental health condition where you have regular panic attacks.

Symptoms of panic disorder include feeling anxious and having sudden panic attacks.

Panic disorder is usually treated with talking therapies and medicines. Things like exercise, massage, breathing techniques and yoga can also help.

Panic may be triggered by misinterpretation of physical anxiety symptoms as signs of major catastrophe
Safety behaviours may be adopted which reinforce beliefs (e.g. avoiding situations)
CBT educates the patient on the true meaning of the symptoms (i.e. panic not perish)
Helps them test whether their behaviours keep them safe and whether their beliefs are true or misinterpretations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Panic disorder is a mental health condition where you have regular panic attacks.

Symptoms of panic disorder include feeling anxious and having sudden panic attacks.

Panic disorder is usually treated with talking therapies and medicines. Things like exercise, massage, breathing techniques and yoga can also help.

Panic may be triggered by misinterpretation of physical anxiety symptoms as signs of major catastrophe
Safety behaviours may be adopted which reinforce beliefs (e.g. avoiding situations)
CBT educates the patient on the true meaning of the symptoms (i.e. panic not perish)
Helps them test whether their behaviours keep them safe and whether their beliefs are true or misinterpretations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

examples of unexplained symptoms

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

poor oral compliance with antipsychotics → what next?

A

Patients with poor oral compliance to antipsychotics should be considered for once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Depression vs dementia

A

Factors suggesting diagnosis of depression over dementia

  • short history, rapid onset
  • biological symptoms e.g. weight loss, sleep disturbance
  • patient worried about poor memory
  • reluctant to take tests, disappointed with results
  • mini-mental test score: variable
  • global memory loss (dementia characteristically causes recent memory loss)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

anorexia nervosa: epidemiology and diagnosis

A

Epidemiology

  • 90% of patients are female
  • predominately affects teenage and young-adult females
  • prevalence of between 1:100 and 1:200

Diagnosis is now based on the DSM 5 criteria. Note that BMI and amenorrhoea are no longer specifically mentioned:

1. Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health.

  1. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
  2. Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

anorexia nervosa: features

A

Anorexia nervosa is associated with a number of characteristic clinical signs and physiological abnormalities which are summarised below

  • most things low
  • G’s and C’s raised: growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia

Features

  • reduced body mass index
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • enlarged salivary glands
  • lightheaded, hair loss, dry skin
  • taking medicine to reduce hunger (appetite suppressants)

Physiological abnormalities

  • hypokalaemia
  • low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone → oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea
  • raised cortisol and growth hormone
  • impaired glucose tolerance
  • hypercholesterolaemia
  • hypercarotinaemia
  • low T3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

hx taking anorexia nervosa

A

fear of gaining/becoming weight

weight loss relative

self-perception

control, self-esteem, perfectionism

appetite suppressants, laxatives, diuretics

making themselves sick

excess exercise

missing meals, eating little, avoiding certain foods

bowels/sex drive/weak/tired/concentration/memory/swelling

sx: lightheaded, hair loss, dry skin, oligo/amenorrhoea

protective factors

school/work

depression/OCD/substance misuse

SUICIDE RISK/SELF-HARM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

anorexia nervosa tx

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what’s raised and what’s reduced in anorexia nervosa?

A

G’s and C’s raised: growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia

Everything else low:

  • reduced body mass index
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • lightheaded, hair loss, dry skin
  • hypokalaemia
  • low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone → oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anti-psychotics: monitoring

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Anticonvulsant

Can cause toxicity at high doses
Induces liver enzymes
Close monitoring of carbamazepine levels is essential Check for drug interactions before prescribing

  • P450 enzyme inducer
  • dizziness and ataxia
  • drowsiness
  • headache
  • visual disturbances (especially diplopia)
  • Steven-Johnson syndrome
  • leucopenia and agranulocytosis
  • hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

Carbamazepine is known to exhibit autoinduction, hence when patients start carbamazepine they may see a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks of treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pseudohallucinations

A 44-year-old man attends his GP surgery. He explains that his long term partner died last month. When he woke up this morning he thought he was lying next to her. He claims he heard her voice saying his name. Although he realizes this is not possible it has caused him significant distress. He is worried that he may be ‘going mad.’ He has no other psychiatric history of note.

A

pseudohallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of external stimuli when the affected is aware that they are hallucinating.

There is disagreement among specialists about not only the definition but also the role in the treatment of pseudohallucinations. Many specialists feel that it is more appropriate to think about hallucinations on a spectrum from mild sensory disturbance to hallucinations to prevent symptoms from being mistreated or misdiagnosed.

An example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination which occurs when transitioning from wakefulness to sleep. These are experienced vivid auditory or visual hallucinations which are fleeting in duration and may occur in anyone. These are pseudohallucinations as the affected person is able to determine that the hallucination was not real.

The relevance of pseudohallucinations in practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not mean that they will develop a mental illness.

Pseudohallucinations commonly occur in people who are grieving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Type 1 vs type 2 BPAD

A
  • type I disorder: mania and depression (most common)
  • type II disorder: hypomania and depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Mani vs hypomania

A
  • both terms relate to abnormally elevated mood or irritability
  • with mania, there is severe functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more
  • hypomania describes decreased or increased function for 4 days or more
  • from an exam point of view the key differentiation is psychotic symptoms (e.g.delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations) which suggest mania
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Organic co-morbidities of BPAD

A

there is a 2-3 times increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Primary care referral for BPAD

A
  • if symptoms suggest hypomania then NICE recommend routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT)
  • if there are features of mania or severe depression then an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

BPAD Mx

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why is sertraline good?

A
  • sertraline is useful post myocardial infarction as there is more evidence for its safe use in this situation than other antidepressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do we have to be careful with with citalopram?

A
  • It advised that citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in those with: congenital long QT syndrome; known pre-existing QT interval prolongation; or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval
  • the maximum daily dose is now 40 mg for adults; 20 mg for patients older than 65 years; and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which SSRI for children?

A

SSRIs should be used with caution in children and adolescents. Fluoxetine is the drug of choice when an antidepressant is indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Adverse effects of SSRIs

A
  • gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect
  • there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding in patients taking SSRIs. A proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if a patient is also taking a NSAID
  • patients should be counselled to be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI
  • fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

SSRI and interactions with other drugs

A
  • NSAIDs: NICE guidelines advise ‘do not normally offer SSRIs’, but if given co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor
  • warfarin / heparin: NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine (NaSSA)
  • aspirin: see above
  • triptans - increased risk of serotonin syndrome
  • monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) - increased risk of serotonin syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How long to gradually reduce SSRI when stopping it

How long to continue SSRI when good response

A

4 weeks

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are some discontinuation symptoms?

A

increased mood change

restlessness

difficulty sleeping

unsteadiness

sweating

GI symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting

paraesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which SSRI has a high incidence of discontinuation symptoms

A

Paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

SSRIs and pregnancy

which SSRI specifically

A

BNF says to weigh up benefits and risk when deciding whether to use in pregnancy.

  • Use during the first trimester gives a small increased risk of congenital heart defects
  • Use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
  • *- Paroxetine** has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is Munchausen syndrome (factitious disorder)?

A

intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is malingering?

A

Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is somatisation disorder?

A

Multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years

patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)?

A

Persistent belief in the presence of an underlying SERIOUS DISEASE, e.g. cancer

patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

loss of motor or sensory function

may be caused by stress

patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek maternal gain (malingering)

patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder - la belle indifference - although this has not been backed up by some studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is dissociative disorder?

A

‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness

in contrast to conversion disorder involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. amnesia, fugue, stupor

DID is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Risk of developing schizophrenia (Fhx and other RFs)

A

The strongest risk factor for developing a psychotic disorder (including schizophrenia) is family history. Having a parent with schizophrenia leads to a relative risk (RR) of 7.5.

Risk of developing schizophrenia

  • monozygotic twin has schizophrenia = 50%
  • parent has schizophrenia = 10-15%
  • sibling has schizophrenia = 10%
  • no relatives with schizophrenia = 1%

Other selected risk factors for psychotic disorders include:

  • Black Caribbean ethnicity - RR 5.4
  • Migration - RR 2.9
  • Urban environment- RR 2.4
  • Cannabis use - RR 1.4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do we differentiate between severe depression and dementia

A

Severe depression can mimic dementia but gives a pattern of global memory loss rather than short-term memory loss - this is called pseudodementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Depression vs dementia

A
  • short history, rapid onset
  • biological symptoms e.g. weight loss, sleep disturbance
  • patient worried about poor memory
  • reluctant to take tests, disappointed with results
  • mini-mental test score: variable
  • global memory loss (dementia characteristically causes recent memory loss)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the features of EUPD/Borderline Personality Disorder

A
  • Efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment
  • Unstable interpersonal relationships which alternate between idealization and devaluation
  • Unstable self image
  • Impulsivity in potentially self damaging area (e.g. Spending, sex, substance abuse)
  • Recurrent suicidal behaviour
  • Affective instability
  • Chronic feelings of emptiness
  • Difficulty controlling temper
  • Quasi psychotic thoughts

feelings of emptiness, unstable relationships, and an unpredictable affect with threats/acts of self-harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What can cause hyponatraemia regarding psych?

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the criteria for PTSD?

A

Sx present for more than a month following a traumatic event

  • re-experiencing = flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and sdistressing intrusive images
  • avoidance = avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
  • hyperarousal = hyper vigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentration
  • emotional numbing = lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached

Others = depression, drug or alcohol misuse, anger, unexplained physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acute stress disorder vs PTSD

A

Acute stress disorder is less than 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do we manage PTSD?

A
78
Q

Risk factors for GAD development

A

Aged 35-54

Being divorced or separated

Living alone

Being a lone parent

79
Q

Protective factors for GAD

A

Aged 16-24

Being married or cohabiting

80
Q

Which types of self-harm is common in females and males

A

deliberate self-harm is more common in females

completed suicide is more common in males.

81
Q

Factors increasing risk of suicide

A
  • male
  • hx of deliberate self-harm
  • alcohol or drug misuse
  • hx of mental illness (depression, schizophrenia)
  • hx of chronic disease
  • advancing age
  • unemployment or social isolation/living alone
  • being unmarried, divorced or widowed

If attempted suicide → risk of completed suicide:

  • efforts to avoid discovery
  • planning
  • leaving a written note
  • final acts such as sorting out finances
  • violent method
82
Q

Features of schizophrenia

A

SCHNEIDER’S FIRST RANK SYMPTOMS

  • Auditory hallucinations = 2 or more voices discussing patient in third person, thought echo, voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour
  • Thought disorder = insertion, withdrawal, broadcasting
  • Passivity phenomena = bodily sensations being controlled by external influence, actions/impulses/feelings – experienced which are imposed on the individual or influences by others
  • Delusional perceptions = two-stage process, the traffic light is green therefore I am the King

Other features:

  • Impaired insight
  • Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
  • Decreased speech
  • Neologisms: made-up words
  • Catatonia
  • Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia, alogia, avolition
83
Q

What is insomnia related to?

A

SCHIZOPHRENIA

sleep disturbances such as insomnia often reported by patients as their symptoms of schizophrenia develop

84
Q

Delirium investigations in the elderly

A

HbA1C = diabetes control (hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia)

CXR = chest infection

CT head = for elderly patients with new sudden onset psychosis to rUle out an organic cause (e.g. brain tumour, stroke or cos INFECTION)

85
Q

serotonin syndrome features

A

mild (shivering and diarrhea) to severe (muscle rigidity, fever and seizures)

86
Q

Side effects of mirtazapine

A

large increase in appetite → weight gain

drowsiness

87
Q

What are the 3 types of anovulation?

A

Class 1 (hypongonadtropic hypogonadal anovulation) = hypothalamic amenorrhoea

Class 2 (normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation) = PCOS (80% cases)

Class 3 (hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation) = POI → ovulation induction unsuccessful → IVF with done oocytes to conceive required

88
Q

4 forms of ovulation induction (least invasive to most invasive)

A

Exercise and weight loss

  • 1st line for PCOS (overweight/obese women)

Letrozole

  • 1st line for PCOS over clomiphene citrate.
  • Aromatase inhibitor → reduce -ve feedback caused by oestrogen to pituitary gland → increase in FSH for follicular development
  • higher rate of mono-follicular development
  • side effects = fatigue, dizziness

Clomiphene citrate

  • SERM → acts on hypothalamus → increase GnRH → increase FSH + LH → follicular development
  • 2nd line PCOS
  • side effects = hot flushes, abdominal distension and pain, N+V

Gonadotropin therapy

  • for class 1 ovulatory dysfunction
  • risk of multi-follicular development and subsequent multiple pregnancy much higher
  • higher risk of OHSS
  • GnRH IV infusion pump → endogenous FSH + LH production → follicular development
89
Q

What should you do with antidepressants like sertraline before ECT

A

r. With antidepressants and ECT, you do not suddenly stop them when the patient commences ECT treatment. The recommended regime is to safely reduce them to the minimum dose. You may actually add an increased dose of antidepressant towards the end of the ECT course.

90
Q

Panic Disorder Mx

A
91
Q

What drug class is mirtazapine and side effects

A

Mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant which is an alpha-2 receptor antagonist, but is often not tolerated by patients as it commonly causes increased appetite and sedation.

92
Q

maoi examples and side effects

A
  • rasagiline
  • selegiline
  • isocarboxazid
  • phenelzine

tyramine cheese reaction = high tyramine foods (e.g. cheese) → hypertensive crisis

Increased risk of serotonin syndrome

93
Q

What is post-concussion syndrome?

A

Post-concussion syndrome is seen after even minor head trauma

Typical features include

  • headache
  • fatigue
  • anxiety/depression
  • dizziness
94
Q

What are features of catatonic schizophrenia?

A

characterised by negative symptoms including blunting of affect, alogia (poverty of speech) and avolition (poor motivation), echolalia

95
Q

What is echolalia?

A

Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech including the questions being asked. It is a feature of schizophrenia, typically catatonic schizophrenia

96
Q

Paranoid PD

A
  • Hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted
  • Unwarranted tendency to questions the loyalty of friends
  • Reluctance to confide in others
  • Preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meaning
  • Unwarranted tendency to perceive attacks on their character
97
Q

Schizoid PD

A
  • indifference to praise and criticism
  • preference for solitary activities
  • lack of interest in sexual interactions
  • lack of desire for companionship
  • emotional coldness
  • few interests
  • few friends or confidants other than family
98
Q

Schizotypal PD

A
  • Ideas of reference (differ from delusions in that some insight is retained)
  • Odd beliefs and magical thinking
  • Unusual perceptual disturbances
  • Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
  • Odd, eccentric behaviour
  • Lack of close friends other than family members
  • Inappropriate affect
  • Odd speech without being incoherent
99
Q

Antisocial PD

A
  • Failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviours as indicated by repeatedly performing acts that are grounds for arrest;
  • More common in men;
  • Deception, as indicated by repeatedly lying, use of aliases, or conning others for personal profit or pleasure;
  • Impulsiveness or failure to plan ahead;
  • Irritability and aggressiveness, as indicated by repeated physical fights or assaults;
  • Reckless disregard for the safety of self or others;
  • Consistent irresponsibility, as indicated by repeated failure to sustain consistent work behaviour or honour financial obligations;
  • Lack of remorse, as indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another
100
Q

Borderline/EUPD

A
  • efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment
  • unstable interpersonal relationships which alternate between idealisation and devaluation
  • unstable self-image
  • impulsivity in potentially self damaging area (e.g. spending, sex, substance abuse)
  • recurrent suicidal behaviour
  • affective instability
  • chronic feelings of emptiness
  • difficulty controlling temper
  • quasi psychotic thoughts

Mx: DBT

  • Understand and accept your difficult feelings
  • Learn skills to manage them
  • Become able to make positive changes in your life
101
Q

Histrionic PD

A
  • Inappropriate sexual seductiveness
  • Need to be the centre of attention
  • Rapidly shifting and shallow expression of emotions
  • Suggestibility
  • Physical appearance used for attention seeking purposes
  • Impressionistic speech lacking detail
  • Self dramatization
  • Relationships considered to be more intimate than they are
102
Q

Narcissistic PD

A
  • Grandiose sense of self importance
  • Preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, power, or beauty
  • Sense of entitlement
  • Taking advantage of others to achieve own needs
  • Lack of empathy
  • Excessive need for admiration
  • Chronic envy
  • Arrogant and haughty attitude
103
Q

OCD PD

A
  • Is occupied with details, rules, lists, order, organization, or agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is gone
  • Demonstrates perfectionism that hampers with completing tasks
  • Is extremely dedicated to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities
  • Is meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, or values
  • Is not capable of disposing worn out or insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning
  • Is unwilling to pass on tasks or work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things
  • Takes on a stingy spending style towards self and others; and shows stiffness and stubbornness
104
Q

Avoidant PD

A
  • Avoidance of occupational activities which involve significant interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism, or rejection.
  • Unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked
  • Preoccupied with ideas that they are being criticised or rejected in social situations
  • Restraint in intimate relationships due to the fear of being ridiculed
  • Reluctance to take personal risks due to fears of embarrassment
  • Views self as inept and inferior to others
  • Social isolation accompanied by a craving for social contact
105
Q

Dependent PD

A
  • Difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive reassurance from others
  • Need for others to assume responsibility for major areas of their life
  • Difficulty in expressing disagreement with others due to fears of losing support
  • Lack of initiative
  • Unrealistic fears of being left to care for themselves
  • Urgent search for another relationship as a source of care and support when a close relationship ends
  • Extensive efforts to obtain support from others
  • Unrealistic feelings that they cannot care for themselves
106
Q

Scoring system for OCD?

A

Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)

107
Q

What is Othello’s Syndrome?

A

Othello syndrome is pathological jealousy, most commonly the belief that their partner is not faithful, and can be isolated delusion or secondary to an affective state, schizophrenia or a personality disorder.

The patient often obsessively searches for evidence, but is not satisfied when none is found. Can then result in violent behaviour.

108
Q

Persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild to moderate depression with inadequate response to initial interventions, and moderate and severe depression

For these patients NICE recommends an antidepressant (normally a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, SSRI)

The following ‘high-intensity psychological interventions’ may be useful:

A
108
Q

Persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild to moderate depression with inadequate response to initial interventions, and moderate and severe depression

For these patients NICE recommends an antidepressant (normally a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, SSRI)

The following ‘high-intensity psychological interventions’ may be useful:

A
109
Q

Which antidepressant for children?

A

Fluoxetine

110
Q

MMSE scores

A
  • 24-30- no cognitive impairment
  • 18-23- mild cognitive impairment
  • 0-17- Severe cognitive impairment
111
Q

MMSE depression vs dementia

A

As a rule of thumb, when performing a mini mental state examination on a patient with depression they will answer with ‘I don’t know’, whereas patients with Alzheimer’s will try their best to answer your questions, but answer incorrectly.

Score more variable in depression

112
Q

Anorexia can cause what endocrine problem?

A

hypothyroidism → weight gain and tiredness

113
Q

What is NMS and it’s FOUR features, what do you need to measure?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare reaction to antipsychotic drugs that treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other mental health conditions. The condition is serious, but it’s treatable

4 features:

  • hyperthermia
  • rigidity
  • autonomic instability
  • altered mental state

Ix = CPK (baseline, repeat if there are signs and symptoms of NMS)

114
Q

Ix’s and monitoring for antipsychotics

A

Blood glucose (fasting and HbA1c)

Blood lipids (fasting)

FBC = blood dyscrasias

LFTs = liver toxicity

U+Es and renal function = renal toxicity

TFTs = only for BPAD

CPK = for NMS (just baseline)

Prolactin = just baseline

ECG = annually

BP and pulse

Weight + BMI

Smoking Status = e.g. for clozapine

Side effects

115
Q

What should monitor closely for schizophrenia management?

A

cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients (linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates)

QRISK3 Scoring

116
Q

What is the mechanism for alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors
  • alcohol withdrawal is thought to be lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission)
117
Q

Features of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Symptoms start at 6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, tachycardia, anxiety

peak incidence of seizures at 36 hours

peak incidence of delirium tremens at 48-72 hours: coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia

118
Q

Alcohol withdrawal mx

A
  • atients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol (i.e. delirium tremens, seizures, blackouts) should be admitted to hospital for monitoring until withdrawals stabilised
  • first-line: long-acting benzodiazepines e.g. chlordiazepoxide or diazepam. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol
  • carbamazepine also effective in treatment of alcohol withdrawal
  • phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures

regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement = prophylaxis for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

119
Q

what is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric disorder caused by thiamine deficiency which is most commonly seen in alcoholics. Rarer causes include: persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, dietary deficiency.

A classic triad of ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, ataxia and confusion may occur.

In Wernicke’s encephalopathy petechial haemorrhages occur in a variety of structures in the brain including the mamillary bodies and ventricle walls.

Ix = decreased red cell transketolase, MRI

Tx = urgent replacement of thiamine

120
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Overview

  • marked memory disorder often seen in alcoholics
  • thiamine deficiency causes damage and haemorrhage to the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus
  • in often follows on from untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Features

  • anterograde amnesia: inability to acquire new memories
  • retrograde amnesia
  • confabulation
121
Q

What is Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

If not treated Korsakoff’s syndrome may develop as well. This is termed Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and is characterised by the addition of antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the above symptoms.

››

122
Q

antipsychotic monitoring at 3 months?

A

lipids and blood glucose

CK is done if NMS is suspected

123
Q

What else do we monitor for antipsychotics?

A

emergence of any movement disorders

124
Q

Which antipsychotic causes big weight gain? which is weight neutral?

A

olanzapine

aripripazole

125
Q

How can we explain schizophrenia?

A

Schizophrenia is an illness that affects how someone thinks, feels and behaves, and can often cause someone to lose touch with reality

1% of population

Age of onset 16-35

Prodrome phase = social withdrawal, nervousness, anxiety, depression, difficulty concentrating, excessive worrying

GENETICS

126
Q

4 pathways in schizophrenia and what they relate to

A

Mesolimbic pathway overactivity = positive symptoms

Mesocortical pathway = negative and cognitive symptoms

Tuberoinfundibular pathway = hyperprolactinaemia

Nigrostriatal = EPSE

127
Q

Prodrome phrase features

A

social withdrawal, nervousness, anxiety, depression, difficulty concentrating, excessive worrying

128
Q

Social mx of schizophrenia

A
129
Q

Baby blues vs postpartum depression

A
130
Q

Post partum psychosis

A
131
Q

Questions to use in perinatal psychiatry

A

Do you have new feelings and thoughts which you have never had before, which make you disturbed or anxious?

Do you feel able to look after your baby adequately?

Sometimes people feel like they are incompetent, as though they can’t cope, or estranged from your baby, does this happen to you? Are these feelings persistent?

Are you experiencing thoughts of suicide or harming yourself in violent ways?

Sometimes people have unpleasant thoughts about harming their baby, does that happen to you?

132
Q

Medications in BPAD in pregnancy

A

Olanzapine and Fluoxetine

Li not totally contra-indicated

NOT NaVal

133
Q

Anorexia nervosa vs bulimia nervosa

A
134
Q

Schizophrenia diagnosis: positive and negative symptoms

A

1 month, Sx’s present most of the time

  • POSITIVE = passivity (external influence), hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder (chaotic thinking, tangentiality, flight of ideas, word salad)
  • Catatonia (lack of movement, communication, agitation, confusion, restlessness) disorganised behaviours)
  • NEGATIVE = poor volition, poor cognition, blunted affect
135
Q

ARFID and OSFED and Binge Eating Disorder

A

avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder = is an eating disorder similar to anorexia. Both conditions involve intense restrictions on the amount of food and types of foods you eat. But unlike anorexia, people with ARFID aren’t worried about their body image, shape, or size

Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder

Binge Eating Disorder = NO compensatory mechanism

136
Q

ED Ix

A

Protective factors = peers partner, work, supportive family

Stressors = school, work, peers, unsupportive family

137
Q

Bulimia Mx

A

Fluoxetine + CBT for ED

138
Q

Management of refeeding syndrome

A
139
Q

Section laws

A

HTT IS THE CRISIS TEAM

140
Q

Mechanism of alcohol withdrawal

A
  • chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors
  • alcohol withdrawal is thought to be lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission)
141
Q

symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A
  • symptoms start at 6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, tachycardia, anxiety
  • peak incidence of seizures at 36 hours
  • peak incidence of delirium tremens is at 48-72 hours: coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia
142
Q

Assessments for severity and nature of alcohol misuse (4)

A
  • AUDIT – alcohol use disorders identification test (>15 requires comprehensive assessment)
  • SADQ – severity of dependence
  • CIWA-Ar – clinical institute withdrawal assessment of alcohol scale (for severity of withdrawal)
  • APQ – alcohol problems questionnaire (assess the nature and extent of the problems arising from alcohol misuse)
143
Q

Ix for alcohol misuse

A

Bloods = FBC, LFT, B12/folate, U+Es, clotting screen, glucose

Blood alcohol level or breathalyser

UDS

Rating scale (e.g. AUDIT, CIWA-Ar, APQ)

Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ)

144
Q

What is disulfiram (Antabuse)?

A

irreversible inhibitor of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. This inhibition causes the buildup of acetaldehyde. The build-up of acetaldehyde within twenty to thirty minutes of alcohol consumption results in unpleasant symptoms, including facial flushing and nausea and vomiting. The reaction can be life-threatening, so disulfiram is not recommended for patients with underlying frailty, neurological, cardiac or hepatic conditions.

Disulfiram is taken once daily and its effects last seven days, working as a deterrent to prevent alcohol relapse.

145
Q

What is acamprosate (Campral)?

A

taken three times a day and has shown to be effective in preventing alcohol relapse in combination with psychological support following detoxification in alcohol dependence syndrome. It is typically described as an ‘anti-craving’ medication and the underlying mechanism of action remains unclear. Acamprosate has a minimal side-effect and risk profile and is safe in combination with alcohol.

another anti-craving drug is NALTREXONE

146
Q

What is buprenorphine?

A

mixed opioid agonist/antagonist. It is typically given as a sublingual tablet and provides an alternative opiate replacement therapy to methadone. Patient’s often describe buprenorphine as less sedating, which can be a benefit or drawback depending on the context and patient. Prescribers must also be aware that because of the opioid antagonist properties of methadone it can render regularly prescribed analgesia, such as co-codamol, ineffective.

147
Q

Alcohol detoxification drugs

A

Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine often used as part of a reducing regime during alcohol detoxification.

Diazepam is also a benzodiazepine. Diazepam is typically used as an anxiolytic but is also used as part of a reducing regime during alcohol detoxification.

Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used as an anti-emetic. Ondansetron is often used to manage these symptoms during detoxification from alcohol or opiates

148
Q

Alcohol mx: needs of family/carers, establishing goals and principles of interventions

A

Family/carers:

  • offer carers assessment if necessary
  • consider offer guided self-help for families and provide resources about support groups
  • consider offering family meetings, usually 5 weekly meetings

Abstinence best treatment goal = if co-morbid mental health issues don’t improve within 3-4 wk abstinence, consider referring for specific treatment

Principles of interventions

  • motivation interview
  • interventions to promote abstinence as part of intensive structured community-based intervention
  • homeless = residential rehabilitation services (max 3 months)
  • routinely monitor outcomes
  • Info = AA, SMART Recovery, Change Grow Live (CGL)
  • Care coordination
  • Case management = individualised care plan
149
Q

Alcohol misuse: interventions for harmful drinkers and mild alcohol dependence

A

Psych intervention (e.g. CBT, behavioural therapy, social network and environment-based) focuses on alcohol-related cognitions → weekly 1 hour sessions for 12 weeks

Behavioural couples therapy if regular partner present

If not response to above/pharm tx requested: psych therapy with

  • acamprosate (anti-craving)
  • naltrexone
150
Q

Alcohol misuse: assisted withdrawal

A

Pabrinex if at risk of WE

Withdrawal sx worst within 48 hours, takes 3-7 days after last drink to completely resolve

If >15 units/day or >20 on AUDIT, consider offering:

  • community-based assisted withdrawal (BEST OPTION) = via CGL, 2-4 meetings in first week, if complex then 4-7 days per week over 3 wk period
  • management in specialist alcohol services if there are safety concerns
151
Q

When do we consider inpatient assisted alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • 30 units+ a day
  • 30+ on SADQ
  • hx of epilepsy, delirium tremens or withdrawal-related seizures
  • need concurrent withdrawal of alcohol and BDZPs
  • significant psychiatric comorbidity or significant LD
  • lower threshold for inpatient tx in vulnerable groups (e.g. homeless, older people)
  • children (10-17) → should receive FAMILY THERAPY for about 3 months
152
Q

Alcohol misuse: detoxification dn after successful withdrawal

A
153
Q

Alcohol misuse mx summary

A
154
Q

Give some metabolic side effects of antipsychoics

A

dyslipidaemia, weight gain, dysglycaemia, DM, increased glucose tolerance

155
Q

PHQ-9 scoring

A
  • 0-4 no depression identified
  • 5-9 mild depression
  • 10-14 moderate depression
  • 15-19 moderately severe depression
  • 20-27 severe depression
156
Q

alcohol withdrawal and hepatic failure

A

use LORAZEPAM

157
Q

what is delusional parasitises?

A

relatively rare condition where a patient has a fixed, false belief (delusion) that they are infested by ‘bugs’ e.g. worms, parasites, mites, bacteria, fungus. This may occur in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions or may present by itself, with patients often otherwise quite functional despite the delusion.

158
Q

What is capgras syndrome?

A

this is a delusional misidentification syndrome whereby the patient believes that someone significant in their life, such as a spouse or a friend, has been replaced by an identical imposter.

159
Q

What is Fregoli syndrome?

A

This is another delusional misidentification syndrome where the patient believes that multiple people are in fact all the same person, who is constantly changing their appearance.

160
Q

How do we manage catatonia

A

BDZPs and ECT

161
Q

What is post-concussion syndrome?

A

post-concussive syndrome symptoms last more than three months after the initial injury. They are often non-specific neurological symptoms. The initial injury is often trivial and can be overlooked by patients. This patient has a history of contact sports which he states included trauma.

Post-concussion syndrome is seen after even minor head trauma

Typical features include

  • headache
  • fatigue
  • anxiety/depression
  • dizziness
162
Q

Long acting or short acting BDZPs in acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

LONG ACTING (e.g. chlordiazepoxide) over short acting (e.g. lorazepam) as long acting has longer half life so more likely to prevent seizures

163
Q

Hypokalaemia rhyme

A

U - U waves
No Pot - No potassium
No T - no T waves
Long PR - long PR interval
Long QT - long QT interval

tall p wave

164
Q

BPAD Epidemiology

A
  • typically develops in the late teen years
  • lifetime prevalence: 2%
165
Q

2 types of bPAD

A
  • type I disorder: mania and depression (most common)
  • type II disorder: hypomania and depression
166
Q

Features associated with poor prognosis of schizophrenia

A

strong FHx

gradual onset

low IQ

prodromal phase of social withdrawal

lack of obvious precipitant

167
Q

Abnormal grief reaction features

A

more than 6 months following bereavement

168
Q

Features of normal grief reaction

A

Pseudohallucinations = alse sensory perception in the absence of external stimuli when the affected is aware that they are hallucinating.

169
Q

Common side-effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A
  • drowsiness
  • dry mouth
  • blurred vision
  • constipation
  • urinary retention
  • lengthening of QT interval
170
Q

Which TCA to use?

A
  • low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache (both tension and migraine)
  • lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
  • amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose
171
Q

More sedative, less sedative TCAs

A
172
Q

More sedative, less sedative TCAs

A
173
Q

What is sleep paralyses

A

Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep or less often while falling asleep. It is thought to be related to the paralysis that occurs as a natural part of REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. Sleep paralysis is recognised in a wide variety of cultures

Features

  • paralysis - this occurs after waking up or shortly before falling asleep
  • hallucinations - images or speaking that appear during the paralysis

Management

  • if troublesome clonazepam may be used
174
Q

How do benzodiazepines work and what are they used for?

A

enhance the inhibitory NT GABA by increasing frequency of chloride channels

  • sedation
  • hypnotic
  • anxiolytic
  • anticonvulsant
  • muscle relaxant
175
Q

How long to prescribe BDZP

A

2-4 weeks as patients commonly develop tolerance and dependence to them

176
Q

How do we withdraw BDZPs?

A

The dose should be withdrawn in steps of about 1/8 (range 1/10 to 1/4) of the daily dose every fortnight. A suggested protocol for patients experiencing difficulty is given:

  • switch patients to the equivalent dose of diazepam
  • reduce dose of diazepam every 2-3 weeks in steps of 2 or 2.5 mg
  • time needed for withdrawal can vary from 4 weeks to a year or more
177
Q

What happens when you withdraw too quickly from BDZPs?

A

his may occur up to 3 weeks after stopping a long-acting drug. Features include:

  • insomnia
  • irritability
  • anxiety
  • tremor
  • loss of appetite
  • tinnitus
  • perspiration
  • perceptual disturbances
  • seizures
178
Q

GABAa drugs 2 types

A
179
Q

Circumstantiality, flight of ideas, perseveration, tangentiality (thought disorders), word salad, echolalia, Knight’s move thinking, clang association, neologisms

A

Circumstantiality describes a situation in which a patient may reply to a question with an irrelevant, detailed answer, but will eventually return to the point.

Tangentiality describes speech which wanders from a topic, without returning to it.

Flight of ideas, a feature of mania, is thought disorder where there are leaps from one topic to another but with discernible links between them.

Knight’s move thinking is a severe type of loosening of associations, where there are unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. It is a feature of schizophrenia.

Perseveration describes persistent repetition of speech on the same subject, despite attempting to change the subject.

Word salad is completely incoherent speech where real words are strung together into nonsense sentences.

Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

Neologisms are new word formations, which might include the combining of two words.

Clang associations are when ideas are related to each other only by the fact they sound similar or rhyme.

180
Q

Acute Stress Disorder

A

<4 weeks

features

  • intrusive thoughts e.g. flashbacks, nightmares
  • dissociation e.g. ‘being in a daze’, time slowing
  • negative mood
  • avoidance
  • arousal e.g. hyper vigilance, sleep disturbance
181
Q

How do we manage acute stress disorder

A

TF-CBT

BDZPs for acute sx (e.g. agitation, sleep disturbance)

use with caution

182
Q

how is akathisia txed?

A

propanolol

183
Q

ICD-11 Personality Disorders

A
184
Q

Depression mx

A
185
Q

Cognitive distortions

A
186
Q

MUS tip

A
  • Somatisation = Symptoms
  • hypoChondria (illness anxiety disorder)= Cancer
187
Q

Alcohol withdrawal timeline

A
  • symptoms: 6-12 hours
  • seizures: 36 hours
  • delirium tremens: 72 hours
188
Q

What are SNRIs associated with?

A

HTN (measure BP prior and dose titration)

189
Q

SSRI monitoring

A

U+Es for hyponatraemia