Major 2 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

What defines are role and power? these powers are located in which part and section of the document

Answer

A

Emergencies Act 2004Section 34, part 3.2

Question 2

Q

Name 6 General powers of the chief officer

Answer

A

The chief officer of an emergency service may, for the protection or preservation of life, property or the environment:

<ol> <li>with any necessary assistance and force, enter land</li> <li>close a street or road to traffic</li> <li>bring equipment onto land or into a structure or vehicle</li> <li>open a container, or dismantle equipment, using any necessary or reasonable force</li> <li>remove, dismantle, demolish or destroy a structure or vehicle</li> <li>contain an animal or substance</li> <li>remove or destroy an animal, a substance or vegetation</li> <li>turn off, disconnect or shut down a motor or equipment</li> <li>control, shut off or disconnect a supply of fuel, gas, electricity, water or anything else</li> <li>use a supply of water without charge</li> <li>give directions to regulate or prohibit the movement of people, animals or vehicles</li> <li>evacuate people or animals from an area to another place</li> <li>close any premises</li></ol>

Question 3

Q

A firefighter slips on a wet floor and injures themselves. Describe the WHS reporting mechanism for reporting the incident and the chain of command

Answer

A

- Riskman

<ul> <li>Person reporting completes the report and forwards to their immediate supervisor - SO.</li> <li>SO sends it to Commander</li> <li>The Commander forwards to the HR Manager</li></ul>

Question 4

Q

Define the terms hazards and risk – give an example of each

Answer

A

HAZARD - source of danger. Anything which has the potential to cause injury, illness, damage or loss of property.

HAZARD EXAMPLES: sharps, debris, smoke

RISK - Is the likelihood that a hazard will cause injury or ill health to a person or to damage property.

RISK EXAMPLES: cutting yourself on exposed sharps, tripping/slipping

Question 5

Q

What are the different levels of PPC?

Answer

A

<ul> <li>Level A Fully encapsulated gas-tight suit</li> <li>Level B Splash suit with BA Level</li> <li>C Splash suit with respirator</li> <li>Level D Structural PPC (BA)</li> <li>Level E Wildfire PPC (respirator / mask as required)</li></ul>

Question 6

Q

State the PPC items worn for Level A - Fully encapsulated gas-tight suit

Answer

A

<ul> <li>Undergarments</li> <li>Disposable overalls (T-shirt optional),</li> <li>Socks</li> <li>Fully encapsulated suit</li> <li>Helmet - Lightweight (if fitting allows)</li> <li>BA</li></ul>

Question 7

Q

What do you wear for a Level B Splash suit with BA

Answer

A

<ul> <li>Undergarments - Disposable overalls (T-shirt optional)</li> <li>Socks</li> <li>Boots - Chemical resistant gumboots</li> <li>Gloves - Chemical resistant</li> <li>Helmet - Not required unless overhead hazard</li> <li>Splash suit</li> <li>BA</li></ul>

Question 8

Q

What do you wear for a Level C - Splash suit with respirator

Answer

A

<ul> <li>Undergarments - Disposable overalls (T-shirt optional),</li> <li>Socks</li> <li>Boots - Chemical resistant gumboots</li> <li>Gloves - Chemical resistant</li> <li>Helmet - Not required unless overhead hazard</li> <li>Splash suit</li> <li>SE400 respirator</li></ul>

Question 9

Q

What do you wear for a Level D - Structural PPC (BA)

Answer

A

1. Boots - Structural

2. Socks

3. Trousers - Navy blue

4. Belt

5. Shirt Navy blue shirt or issue T-shirt (SO light blue)

6. Jumper - as required

7. Over pants - Structural

8. Coat - Structural

9. Flash hood

10. Helmet - Structural

11. Gloves - Structural

12. BA - As required

Question 10

Q

What do you wear for a Level E - MVA, bush/grass fire, Medical assist

Answer

A

1. Boots - Structural

2. Socks

3. Trousers - Navy blue

4. Belt

5. Shirt Navy blue shirt or issue T-shirt (SO light blue)

6. Jumper - as required

7. Over pants - Structural, only as required

8. lightweight coat

9. Helmet - Structural or wildfire

10. Gloves - wildfire or rescue

11. Goggles - Or safety glasses

Question 11

Q

Name 3 types of water mains used in ACT

Answer

A

1. Trunk main

<ul> <li>600mm to 3000mm</li> <li>Delivers water from source to treatment plants then onto reservoirs</li></ul>

2. Service mains

<ul> <li>100mm residential areas</li> <li>150-600mm in industrial areas</li> <li>Laid underground, consumers draw their water from them by smaller pipes</li></ul>

3. Ring mains

<ul> <li>High risk/priority areas e.g. schools, hospitals, fuel depots</li></ul>

Question 12

Q

What are the 3 main types of hydrants

Answer

A

1. Spring valve hydrant (ball valve)

2. High capacity hydrant

3. Pillar hydrants

Question 13

Q

What is water hammer and how can it be prevented

Answer

A

Occurs when water flow is suddenly shut off.

<ul> <li>The pressure of water must then be absorbed by the pipes and fittings</li> <li>This can rupture hose joints, hydrants, water mains or pump casings</li></ul>

To AVOID water hammer:

<ul> <li>shut off branches smoothly and steadily</li> <li>shut off hydrants smoothly and steadily</li> <li>shut off deliveries and collectors at the pump smoothly and steadily</li> <li>If driving over a hose that is charged it should be done slowly</li></ul>

Question 14

Q

Briefly describe 3 methods to prevent deterioration of lines

Answer

A

Chemical deterioration avoid:

<ul> <li>Storing on floors</li> <li>Excessive temperatures</li> <li>Exposure to acid and alkaline</li> <li>Leaving it in direct sunlight</li> <li>Bleaches and solvents</li></ul>

Mechanical deterioration avoid:

<ul> <li>Sharp bends, edges or kinks</li> <li>Dragging on ground</li> <li>Leaving it dirty</li> <li>Overloading</li></ul>

Question 15

Q

How do you inspect a rope?

Answer

A

Look and Feel

Question 16

Q

Describe 3 things to check for when checking/inspecting ropes

Answer

A

1. examine the line e.g changes in diameter

2. discoloration and powdering

3. check any signs of local abrasion

4. observe any kinks and cuts,

5. exposed and/or stiffened fibres

Question 17

Q

Describe how and where long lines should be stored when not on an appliance

Answer

A

Store in bags away from direct sunlight and heat.

Store away from generators, batteries, industrial processes

Question 18

Q

Name the 2 principals of good firemanship and 2 examples of each

Answer

A

ATTITUDE and WORK ETHIC ATTITUDE

<ul> <li>Remember that you are a part of a team; the team is only as good as it’s Members’ input.</li> <li>Show respect for the rank carried by all fellow firefighters and Officers.</li> <li>Respect the knowledge skills and experience of fellow firefighters and Officers and learn from them.</li> <li>Remember that if you are senior to one of your peers in either time or rank, this does not necessarily mean that you have more knowledge or greater skill in every aspect of your duties. Other team members may have skills such as trade certificates or life experiences.</li> <li>Do not take shortcuts or an ‘it’ll be right’ attitude; lives depend on things being done properly.</li> <li>Don’t leave a problem for others in the hope that they will discover it in time. If you can’t solve or fix it, then report it to your Station Officer. Take responsibility!</li> <li>The Fire Station is a second home for firefighters, 24 hours a day, 365 days a year. Treat it accordingly.</li></ul>

WORK ETHIC

<ul> <li>Use the correct tool for the task – use a spanner instead of a shifter, use a hammer not a coupling spanner.</li> <li>Do not drop any gear (such as hose couplings); place them on the ground.</li> <li>Do not drag equipment (such as branches when making up first aid reels).</li> <li>Clean and dry tools after use and during inspection procedures.</li> <li>Correct disposal or cleaning of all contaminated items e.g. surgical gloves, Hudson masks. Re-stow it if required.</li> <li>If you don’t know or don’t understand – ask somebody!</li></ul>

Question 19

Q

Explain how and where to find Brigade Forms

Answer

A

ACTF&R Intranet home page – Under brigade forms heading

Question 20

Q

Where and how would you find BA wearing forms and under what heading/sub section?

Answer

A

ACTF&R Intranet homepage > Operations > “BA Wearing” section

Question 21

Q

Describe three (3) of the daily checks carried out on your ACTF&R Harris radio at the start of a shift?

Answer

A

1. Ensure Zone A: Ch 1OPS1 on the Front Screen

2. Battery minimum 80%

3. check Back/top light setting

4. Check that aerial and mike attachments (if applicable) are firm

5. Listen for the “OPS ONE” announcement

6. Ensure Channel Knob is reset to position 1 and Group Selector is reset at Group A

Question 22

Q

Your ACTF&R Harris radio is not transmitting. List and describe three (3) possible causes and their remedies:

Answer

A

1. Empty Battery – Change battery

2. Radio shadowing caused by large structures or objects – Move to a different location

3. On the wrong channel

4. Radio tower is down – switch to a different tower

Question 23

Q

Colour coded pre-fixes are used by ACTF&R when sending certain radio messages. List all and state the reason/use for each?

Answer

A

YELLOW - General/routine checks, non urgent communication, Reporting inventory etc

GREEN - S.O. Responsibility, Given at the end of an incident

BLUE - Relating to an active incident

WHITE - Priority. Report new incident whilst mobile

RED - Urgent, Takes priority over anything else

Question 24

Q

Name 5 safe practices for search and rescue

Answer

A

1. PPE and BA are worn

2. Scene size up before committing crew

3. where possible, isolate utilities

4. BA Control in place

5. Remain in contact, visible, verbal, physical at all times

6. Be alert for changing conditions that may present any dangers

7. Good communications on fire ground e.g. changing conditions, radio chatter

8. carry necessary equipment e.g. hose line

Question 25

Q

Fault reporting, list in correct order (5Rs)

Answer

A

1. Report - Report to SO

2. Rectify - Fix it at station (if possible)

3. Replace - Replace or exchange

4. Repair - Talk to TOSS or brigade workshops to arrange repair

5. Re-stow - May be necessary depending on the situation

Question 26

Q

Detail the daily check procedure for the ACTF&R Dräger Resuscitator Kit

Answer

A

1. Open Cylinder and ensure cylinder pressure is at least 100 bar

2. Check function of oxygen therapy outlet by rotating flow control valve

3. Connect demand valve and resus bag - squeeze bag and ensure demand valve refills bag

4. Check suction device by pressing operating button while covering suction inlet with finger. Air should come out of suction tube

5. Close cylinder

6. Release pressure by pressing suction button

7. Check all inventory

Question 27

Q

List the procedure after a Dräger becomes contaminated after use at an incident

Answer

A

<ul> <li>The unit needs to be sent to the BA section for cleaning and restocking. A replacement Dräger will be sent out</li> <li>When sending the Dräger to the BA Section all single use items which were used need to be disposed of</li> <li>A laminated sheet found in the main section of the kit labelled “Resuscitator Equipment used” needs to be filled out</li> <li>The Dräger is then placed in a clear plastic bag with the sheet attached</li> <li>The Brigade Ute is usually responsible for arranging pick up and delivery</li></ul>

Question 28

Q

Detail the first aid procedure for a suspected Asthma attack casualty

Answer

A

<ul> <li>Treat for anaphalaxis as well as asthma</li> <li>Administer Epipen</li> <li>Administer asthma reliever (4 x 4 rule)</li> <li>Monitor for deterioration of condition and treat for breathing complications (eg. CPR if required)</li></ul>

Question 29

Q

You are the motor driver at an incident. Calculate the head of pressure at 8th floor of a building.

What should you set your pump pressure to if the crew on the 8th floor request 1300 kPa at their branch? (show ALL working out)

Answer

A

Head = H x 10 kPa

Each floor approx. 3m high 3 x 10 = 30 per floor

30 x 8 floors = 240 kPa

240kPA + 1300 kPa = 1540 kPa at pump panel

Question 30

Q

List the 7 main components of a complete SCBA set used by ACTF&R and describe the function(s) of each:

Answer

A

1. HARNESS & BACKPLATE – holds cylinder and hoses in place and enables ergonomic wearing of BA Set

2. CYLINDER – holds the air the wearer breaths

3. CYLINDER CONNECTOR, BAND & CLAMP – holds in place air cylinder at back of backplate

4. PRESSURE REDUCER – reduces the high pressure from the cylinder to a more manageable pressure for the wearer to breath

5. DEMAND VALVE & SUPPLY HOSE – Demand valve connects to facemask and provides air via hose from pressure reducer

6. FACEMASK - provides a positive pressure environment to breath and enables the wearer to see. Inner mask serves to reduce CO2 dead space and stop misting of the visor

7. PRESSURE GUAGE & WARNING WHISTLE – provides a pressure reading in bar and sounds a whistle when a pressure around 50 bar is reached

FOR SOME REASON THIS IS NOT IN THE EXAM ANSWERS BUT IS A PART OF IT

8. RESCUE SECOD MASK CONNECTOR (RSMC) – enables an escape mask or airline to be connected

Question 31

Q

List and describe 5 pre-entry safe working practices for Breathing Apparatus use?

Answer

A

1. 2 personnel minimum

2. BA to be worn if there is any doubt for air quality

3. 260 bar minimum

4. Wear BA if inert gas fire suppression system has been used

5. Carry out all pre-operational checks

6. BA control is in use

7. Don facemask in fresh air

8. Helmets are always to be worn

9. Do not use BA under water

Question 32

Q

Describe 5 correct work practices when communicating on fire and rescue microphones / things not to do

Answer

A

DO NOT

<ul> <li>use profane or obscene language</li> <li>use jargon</li> <li>have private / personal conversations</li> <li>use first names e.g. use SO XX, Motor Driver XX DO RSVPS 1.</li></ul>

Rhythm

<ul> <li>Speak naturally and with a normal rhythm.</li> <li>Speak in complete phrases that make sense</li></ul>

Speed

<ul> <li>Speak steadily.</li> <li>If your message is to be written down…pause between phrases.</li></ul>

Volume

<ul> <li>Talk slightly louder than in a normal conversation, but do not shout</li> <li>Hold the mike in a consistent position (reasonably close)</li> <li>Speak across the microphone</li></ul>

Pitch

<ul> <li>slightly higher than normal.</li></ul>

Sentences

<ul> <li>Should be short.</li> <li>Where appropriate, use the phonetic alphabet to spell out words.</li> <li>Use of pro words helps to keep transmissions brief.</li></ul>

Question 33

Q

5 safe work practices when working with ladders

Answer

A

1. Wear a helmet

2. Check for overhead wires, branches, projections

3. Footed while ascending, descending and working on ladder

4. Tie of head of ladder for security

5. 3 points of contact

6. leg lock may be required when working on ladders

Question 34

Q

Explain five considerations when applying a tourniquet If bleeding doesn’t stop what do you do?

Answer

A

<ol> <li>PPE</li> <li>Hight, tight and wide</li> <li>3 finger rule (above wound location and above or below a joint)</li> <li>Turn until bleeding stops plus on extra full turn</li> <li>If bleeding starts again apply a second tourniquet (don’t retighten first one)</li> <li>Never remove once fitted</li> <li>Note date and time in 24hr format on tourniquet (or casualty’s forehead)</li></ol>

Question 35

Q

Explain the first aid response when treating an unconscious non breathing casualty?

Answer

A

<ul> <li>DRSABCD (for personal safety)</li> <li>Use Orynphageal airway – ensure correct size and technique when inserting it</li> <li>Commence CPR immediately</li> <li>connect and use a defibrillator immediately</li></ul>

Question 36

Q

Describe the difference between flow and pressure

Answer

A

FLOW is the quantity of water delivered in a given time

PESSURE is the force at which water is delivered from the mains.

Question 37

Q

3 hazards associated with RCR and how do we manage them

Answer

A

<ol> <li>Fire – PPC/ PPE, Fire protection (extinguisher/HP line)</li> <li>Cuts – Edge protectors, PPC</li> <li>Spills (fuel or oil) – Stop leak, contain, Spongelite, ppc</li> <li>Trip hazards - clean site, ppc, staging areas</li> <li>Breaking glass – wear ppc, p2 and glass management</li> <li>Electrical - contact ACTEWAGL</li> <li>Bio Hazards - PPE, avoid direct contact, dispose of contaminated good, wash hands</li> <li>Hybrid vehicle - turn off, disconnect battery</li> <li>Crowd control - barrier tape, AFP Assistance</li> <li>Traffic control - witches hats, bollards, strobe lights, AFP assistance</li> <li>SRS - awareness, communicate with crew, peak and peel, 30 60 30 SRS safety zone, disconnect battery</li> <li>Stabilisation – vehicle – casualty – scene</li></ol>

Question 38

Q

3 ways of accessing casualty trapped in vehicle

Answer

A

1. Through doors

2. Through windows

3. By compromising body of the vehicle

Question 39

Q

Describe the Eight (8 Stages) of RCR Rescue Operations

Answer

A

PRIGEDRT

1. PREPERATION

<ul> <li>Train personnel regularly</li> <li>Maintain Rescue Equipment</li></ul>

2. RESPONSE

<ul> <li>Consider approach to accident and position of vehicle with consideration of other support agencies</li> <li>Presence of medical aid</li> <li>Safe travel to the scene</li></ul>

3. INCIDENT MANAGEMENT

<ul> <li>Assessment (outer and inner circle)</li> <li>Action Circle</li> <li>Hazard Controls</li> <li>Equipment staging area and parts dump</li></ul>

4. GAINING ACCESS

<ul> <li>Should be rapid and safe, vehicle stabilisation should be carried out</li></ul>

5. EMERGENCY CARE

<ul> <li>DRSABCDS – stabilise the patient</li></ul>

6. DISENTAGLEMENT

<ul> <li>Disassembly, displacement, distortion or severance</li> <li>Unless lives are in danger no casualty to be moved until emergency care has been administered</li></ul>

7. REMOVAL AND TRANSFER

<ul> <li>In consultation with medical personnel (or AFP for deceased casualty)</li> <li>Fully support and protect patient</li> <li>Patient’s body should not be flexed, extended or rotated</li> <li>Transfer > from point outside vehicle to ambulance.</li> <li>Watch manual handling. ACTFR personnel might have to drive ambulance.</li></ul>

8. TERMINATION

<ul> <li>Final Check</li> <li>Vehicle & surroundings</li> <li>Removal of Debris</li> <li>Scene Clean up</li> <li>Equipment</li> <li>Hygiene</li> <li>Make notes in blue book</li> <li>Restow of Appliance</li></ul>

Question 40

Q

Describe the term peer support and how is it available?

Answer

A

<ul> <li>FF and SO's trained in support techniques, roles etc to support ACTF&R personnel</li> <li>24hrs contactable, number available via comcen</li></ul>

Question 41

Q

Who else is it available to

Answer

A

Immediate family and those residing in the same property

Question 42

Q

List and explain 3 indicators and causes of cavitation when pumping

Answer

A

CAUSES

<ul> <li>Lift too high for the volume of water and pressure being discharged</li> <li>Hose diameter too small for volume of water being discharged</li> <li>Restriction or partial collapse of suction line</li> <li>Water temp being pumped is too high</li> <li>Over-running supply</li></ul>

INDICATORS

<ul> <li>Sound of gravel passing through pump</li> <li>engine revs increase</li> <li>Shows negative pressure or moving towards negative pressure</li> <li>Collector hose goes soft</li> <li>Decrease in delivery flow and pressure</li></ul>

Question 43

Q

In relation to foam making operations on the Series 4 Scania appliances fitted with the LDMH 1000 pump, What are the operating water pressure and litres per minute for:

a. The 38mm inline Eductor?

b. The 64mm inline Eductor?

Answer

A

a. The 38mm inline Eductor?

<ul> <li>1400 kPa</li> <li>230 litres per minute</li></ul>

b. The 64mm inline Eductor?

<ul> <li>1400 kPa</li> <li>475 litres per minute</li></ul>

Question 44

Q

Explain why foam branches must always be operated in the fully open position?

Answer

A

If they’re not fully open it creates back pressure which disturbs the water flow with the “Venturi” induction process inside the Eductor

Question 45

Q

What is the combined flow rate of two HP pressure hose reels operating at their maximum capacity at 3000 kPa?

How long will the 1500L onboard supply of an ACTF&R pumper last until empty?

Answer

A

3000 (drop a zero) = 300– 50 = 250 L/min x 2 = 500L per minute (for both reels)

1500 L divided by 500 L/min = 3 minutes. The onboard supply will last 3 minutes

Question 46

Q

Urgent Duty Driving must be cancelled when the conditions presented deem that UDD is unsafe by:

A)The Officer in Charge or Comcen

B)The Officer in Charge

C) The Driver

D) The driver or the Officer in Charge

Answer

A

D) The driver or the Officer in Charge

Question 47

Q

In an open school zone the driver of an appliance responding to an emergency must:

A. Switch off lights and siren and obey normal road rules

B. Obey reduced speed limit

C) Take all reasonable care and ensure lights and sirens are on

D. Obey restricted speed limit if children are at the crossing

Answer

A

C) Take all reasonable care and ensure lights and sirens are on

Question 48

Q

Which are the correct sequences for the system of vehicle control:

A. Mirros & Signals | Brakes | Gears & Mirrors | Emergency Action | Course selected

B. Course | Mirrors and signals | Brakes | Gears and mirrors | Evasive action

C. Course selected | Mirrors & Signals | Brakes | Evasive Action | Gears and mirrors

Answer

A

B) - Course - Mirrors and signals - Brakes - Gears and mirrors - Evasive action

Question 49

Q

The main cause of skidding (over and understeer) are :

A. The centre of gravity is wrong

B. Formula 1/2 MV²

C. The pitch of the vehicle is excessive

D. Excessive speed

Answer

A

B) Formula 1/2 MV²

Question 50

Q

The hang back rules for trucks is:

A. At least 2 seconds on a dry road and at least 5 seconds on a wet road

B. 3 seconds on a dry road and 6 seconds on a wet road

C. 6 seconds on a dry road and 12 seconds on a wet road

Answer

A

C) 6 Seconds on a dry road, 12 seconds on a wet road

Question 51

Q

3 control zones for hazmat and describe purpose for each

Answer

A

1. HOT ZONE - identified as the area of isolation where contaminant levels are considered sufficiently high to threaten life and safety. Only PPE equipped personnel to enter

2. WARM ZONE - immediate area surrounding the hot zone and is where decontamination commences. This area may still pose an exposure risk to unprotected personnel

3. COLD ZONE - immediately surrounding the warm zone. It is a clean zone. Access is restricted to support agencies. Site control, casualty treatment and marshalling/assembly areas are generally established in this zone.

Question 52

Q

List the 4 detector capabilities on the 4 head detector (microrae)

Answer

A

LEL, OXYGEN, CO and H2S

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Major 2 Flashcards

Major 2

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