Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Robert Hooke Contribution to science

A

All Life is mad of cells

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2
Q

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek Contribution to science

A

First to describe bacteria

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3
Q

Kircher Contribution to science

A

infectious micro organisms, hygienic measures to prevent spread of disease.

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4
Q

What is spontaneous generation?

A

Idea that living things arise from non-living matter.

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5
Q

Louis Pasture

A

Disproved spontaneous generation. coined the term germ theory.

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6
Q

What glass wear did pasture use in his experiment to disprove spontaneous generation?

A

Swan Neck Flask

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7
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis Contribution to science

A

found the cause of childbed fever and advocated hand washing

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8
Q

Joseph Lister

A

Antiseptic techniques

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9
Q

Florence Nightingale

A

First nursing school

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10
Q

Robert Koch

A

Explained germ theory “specific pathogens caused specific disease”

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11
Q

Hans Christian Gram

A

Developed Stains for bacteria

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12
Q

Ann Hesse

A

Created Agar plates used today

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13
Q

Koch and Walther Hess

A

Created culturing methods

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14
Q

Koch’s 4 postulates

A

1) culture infection
2) isolate pathogen
3) Infect healthy
4) isolate pathogen and compare

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15
Q

Martinus Beijerinck Contribution to science

A

developed enrichment culture technique.

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16
Q

Albert Kluyver Contribution to science

A

Unity in biochemistry “its all the same”

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17
Q

Avery McCarty Contribution to science

A

Nature of transforming Bacteria

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18
Q

Watson Crick and Franklin Contribution to science

A

Structure of DNA

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19
Q

Zuckerkandl and Pauling Contribution to science

A

Molecular sequences could be used to reconstruct evolutionary relationships

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20
Q

Carl Woese Contribution to science

A

discovery of Archea and sequenced 16s and 18s subunit of RNA

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21
Q

Tree of life 3 Domains

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

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22
Q

What is growth in terms of prokaryotes?

A

an increase in population size.

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23
Q

what is generation time?

A

the time it takes for the population to double

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24
Q

what is binary fission?

A

a bacteria splits down the middle into 2 daughter cells.

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25
Q

what is budding?

A

new organism develops
from an outgrowth due to cell
division at specific site

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26
Q

What are 4 forms of direct measurement?

A
  • Direct microscopic counts
  • Viable counts = plate counts
  • Filtration
  • Most probable number (MPN)
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27
Q

what are 2 forms of indirect measurement?

A
  • Turbidity (cloudiness of a culture)
  • Metabolic Activity (production of CO2, acids)
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28
Q

what is form of measurement is “microscopic cell count” and what is it?

A

direct measurement, counting the total number of cells on a grid.

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29
Q

what form of measurement is “Viable plate counts” and what is it?

A

Direct measurement, Measurement of living, reproducing population

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30
Q

What is “The great plate count anomaly”?

A

only about 1% of bacteria will grow on a plate.

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31
Q

what is form of measurement is “Filtration” and what is it?

A

Direct measurement, aquatic bacteria is filtered trapped and counted.

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32
Q

what form of measurement is “Most probable number” and what is it?

A

direct measurement, estimate the concentration of viable microorganisms in a sample by means of 10x dilutions

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33
Q

what form of measurement is “Turbidity” and what is it?

A

indirect measurement, Optical density is proportional to cell number.

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34
Q

what form of measurement is “Metabolic activity” and what is it?

A

indirect measurement, amount of acid produce/product produced, or oxygen consumed under specific
conditions during a fixed time period is
proportional the magnitude of the bacterial
population

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35
Q

what 3 Categories of microbial growth media is there?

A
  • Defined
  • Complex
  • Selective/anaerobic
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36
Q

what is defined media?

A

the exact chemical composition of the medium is known

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37
Q

what is complex/undefined media?

A

exact chemical composition of the medium is unknown

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38
Q

what is Selective/anaerobic media?

A

Special type of selective media made by excluding oxygen

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39
Q

what is the optimum temperature range of a Psychrophile?

A

Optimum 15°C or lower
• Inhabit constantly cold environments

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40
Q

what is the optimum temprature range for a Psychrotolerant/Psychrotroph?

A

Optimum 20-40°C
• Many pathogenic bacteria assoc. with dairy, refrigeration, home freezer, food contamination.

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41
Q

what 6 adaptations do cold tolerant and cold loving micro organisms have?

A

-More α-helices than β-sheets
• More polar amino acids
• Fewer hydrophobic amino acids
• Fewer weak bonds (hydrogen & ionic bonds)
• Cold Shock Proteins, and cryoprotectants
• More unsaturated fatty acids

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42
Q

what is the optimum temprature range for a Mesophile?

A

Optimum 39°C

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43
Q

what is the optimum temprature range for a Thermophile?

A

Optimum greater > 45°C

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44
Q

what is the optimum temprature range for a Hyperthermophile

A

Optimum greater > 80°C

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45
Q

what are bacterial adaptations for high tempratures?

A

-Heat tolerant proteins
• Increased ionic bonding
• Highly hydrophobic interiors
- saturated fatty acids

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46
Q

Acidophiles optimum pH is?

A

pH<5.5

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47
Q

Neutrophiles Optimum pH is?

A

pH 5.5-7.9

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48
Q

Alkaliphiles optimum pH is?

A

pH ≥ 8.0

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49
Q

what is Halotolerant?

A

Grow best in the absence of added salt

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50
Q

what is a Halophiles?

A

Have a specific salt requirement

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51
Q

What is an Extreme halophile?

A

Require very high levels (15-30%) of salt

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52
Q

what is an Osmophile?

A

require High lvl sugar environments

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53
Q

what is an Xerophile?

A

Requires Dry environments

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54
Q

what are 3 major prokaryotic cell shapes?

A
  • Coccus
  • Bacillus
  • Spirillum
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55
Q

what are 3 major prokaryotic cell arrangements?

A
  • Chains
  • Clusters
  • Cubes
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56
Q

what are 3 unusual prokaryotic cell shapes?

A
  • Spirochetes
  • Appendaged
  • Filamentous
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57
Q

what is the smallest a prokaryotic cell can be?

A

0.2um

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58
Q

what does a high surface area to volume ratio provide? (4)

A

• Increased exchange of nutrients and waste
• Tend to grow faster than larger cells
• Faster replication results in greater total
number of mutations
• Prokaryotes are haploid, so mutations
readily expressed

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59
Q

what does a Larger population per unit of
resource Provide? (4)

A

• More opportunity for genetic diversity in
large populations
• Genetic diversity is advantageous
• Adapt to changing environments
• Exploit new habitats

60
Q

why can prokaryotic cells adapt faster than eukaryotic cells?

A

bacteria don’t have multiple chromosomes that have to be sorted out into daughter cells and thus are able to grow and divide faster.

61
Q

what are 3 membrane functions and what do they do?

A
  • permeability barrier (prevents leaking and transports nutrients and waste into and out of the cell)
  • protein anchor (sites of protein that participate in transport, chemotaxis and bioenergetics)
  • energy conservation (site of generation and dissipation of the proton motive force
62
Q

what structure of cell is this?

A

gram positive

63
Q

What structure of cell is this?

A

Gram Negative

64
Q

what structure of cell is this?

A

Mycobacterium

65
Q

Name the parts of the cell.

A
  1. Extracellular space
  2. Periplasmic space
  3. Bacterial Proton Pumps
  4. ATPase
  5. Cell Membrain
  6. Cell wall
  7. Outter Membrain
  8. Cytoplasm (Middle Space)
66
Q

What membrain strengthener is used in eukaryotes, Prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes- Sterols

Prokaruotes- Hopanoids

67
Q

Bacteria and eukaryotes
both have fatty _______ in their
phospholipids

A

Fatty Acids

68
Q

Fatty acids linked to the
glycerol via __________

A

Ester Linkages

69
Q

• Fatty acid saturation and branching patterns differ among taxa, what can this be used for?

A
  • Can be used to fingerprint Genus/Species
  • Characterize and quantify microbial communities
70
Q

______________ is
the lipid in Archaeal
membranes instead
of fatty acid(s)

A

Phytanyl (isoprene)

71
Q

Archea

______ bonds between glycerol
and a repeating 5-C branched
side chains (phytanyl) instead of
fatty acids

A

Ether

72
Q

Archea

Glycerol and phytanyl
line up and form a
________

A

fluid bilayer

73
Q

what is the Membrane of Hyperthermophilic Archaea?

A

LIPID MONOLAYER

74
Q

Cell walls are not found in what?

A

Animals

75
Q

what is the function of a cell wall? (2)

A
  • Shape and rigidity of cell
  • Protects against osmotic pressure
76
Q

BACTERIAL cell walls are made of what?

A

Peptidoglycan

77
Q

what polymer chains make up a bacterial cell wall? (3)

What are they crosslinked by?

A
  • N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
  • N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
  • β-1,4 linkages

• Cross linked by peptide interbridges

78
Q

what enzyme cleaves glycosidic bonds?

A

Can be destroyed by lysozyme

79
Q

What Bacterial Cell Wall Polymer is this?

A

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)

80
Q

What Bacterial Cell Wall Polymer is this?

A

N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

81
Q

NAM and NAG connected by ß-1,4-linkages.
What other polysaccharides have similar linkages? (3)

A
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Cellulose
82
Q

how does Penicillin Kill Bacteria?

A

Penicillin blocks the production of
transpeptide bridges between NAG-NAM

83
Q

The enzyme secreted to
break down beta-lactam compounds?

A

Beta-lactamase

84
Q

Is This cell Gram Pos Or Neg

A

Pos

85
Q

Label the parts of the Gram Posative Bacteria

A
  1. Teichoic Acid
  2. Wall associated Protein
  3. Peptidoglycan
  4. Lipoteichoic acid
  5. Cytoplasmic Membrain
86
Q

Is this bacterial cell Gram Pos or Neg?

A

Neg

87
Q

Lable the Left Side of this Gram Neg Cell

A
  1. Cell Wall
  2. Outter
  3. Periplasm
  4. Cytoplasm
88
Q

Lable the Right Side of this Gram Neg cell.

A
  1. O-specific Polysaccrides
  2. Core Polysaccrides
  3. Lipid A
  4. Phospholipid
  5. Braun Lipoprotein
  6. Peptidoglycain
  7. Liposaccrides (LPS)
89
Q

Lable the top of this Gram Negative Cell

A
  1. Porin
  2. Protein
90
Q

Gram positive cell walls are made up of ______ peptidoglycan

A

90%

91
Q

what gives the cell wall an overall negative charge?

A

teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids

92
Q

Gram negative bacteria have a thin layer of ______ found in the Periplasm.

A

• Thin layer of peptidoglycan

93
Q

Periplasm what does it do?

A

• Houses many extracellular proteins

94
Q

Porins What do they do? (3)

A
  • Transmembrane protein channels
  • Permit solute to enter/exit periplasm
  • Specific and nonspecific classes known
95
Q

Outer membrane What does it do? (2)

A

• Barrier to harmful compounds
• Outer leaflet composed mainly
of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

96
Q

what does the LPS Structure Consist of? (3)

A
  • O-specific polysaccharide
  • Core polysaccharide
  • Lipid A
97
Q

what is Lipid A

A

• Endotoxin – is toxic in animals.
common to Gram-Negative

98
Q

O-specific polysaccharide is made of?

A

• Monomers contain a variety of sugars

99
Q

Core polysaccharide is made of? (2)

A
  • Glucose and galactose
  • N-acetylglucosamine
100
Q

Lipid A (endotoxin) is made of?(2)

A
  • Glucosamine
  • Fatty acids
101
Q

what is the Surface layer (S-layer)?

A

a crystalline sheet consisting of
proteins or glycoprotein

102
Q

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick, amorphous, multilayered coat of _______, _______, and _______

A

peptidoglycan, teichonic and lipoteichonic acid

103
Q

Prokaryotes lacking a cell wall use what insted?

A

ough cell membranes called mycoplasmas

104
Q

Archaeal Cell Walls lack what main component?

A

No peptidoglycan

105
Q

Archeal cell wall use _______ insted

A

Pseudomurein

106
Q

Pseudomurein differes from peptidoglycan is what ways? (3)

A
  • β-1,3 glycosidic bonds instead of β-1,4
    • Amino acids all L-stereoisomer
    • Is impervious to lysosome and penicillin
107
Q

what are 3 kinds of Archeal Cell walls?

A
  1. Paracrystalline S-layer (majority_
  2. Pseudopeptidoglyan/Ps (some)
  3. Sugar+protein
108
Q

Archaeal transpeptidase is different from Bacteria in that ______

A

not affected by penicillin

109
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
110
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
111
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
112
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
113
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
114
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
115
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
116
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
117
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
118
Q

What is The Blank Structure Called?

A
119
Q

What does the slime layer and capsule do for the cell? (4)

A
  • Attachment
  • Biofilm formation
  • Virulence
  • Prevent desiccation
120
Q

what do the Fimbriae do for the cell?

A

Fimbriae allow attachment to
initiate disease and pellicle formation

121
Q

what is different about Pili then fimbriae and what do

Pili do for the cell?

A

Pili typically longer and join cells to transfer
DNA

122
Q

what do Conjugative pili do?

A

Transfer DNA between cells (bacteria sex)

123
Q

what do Type IV pili do? (2)

A
  • Specific adhesion (colonization)
  • Twitching motility
124
Q

Hamus/hami in SM1 group of Archaea (4)

A

• Surface attachment
• Biofilm formation
• Structurally similar to
type IV pili
• Ends in a barbed
structure

125
Q

Cell Inclusions what are they?

A

Intracellular partitions surrounded by a thin membrane

126
Q

what funtions do Cell Inclusions have? (4)

A
  • Energy reserves
  • Carbon reservoirs
  • Mineral reservoirs
  • Special functions
127
Q

what are common Cell Inclusions?

A
  • Carbon storage polymers
  • Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid
  • Glycogen
  • magnetosomes
128
Q

what are Gas Vesicles and what do they do? (4)

A

Protein structures
• Conical shape made of proteins
• Filled with gas
• Impermeable
• Decrease cell density

129
Q

what are the 3 Cs of an Endospore

A
  • Coat of the spore
  • Cortex
  • Core
130
Q

what flagellar arrangement is this?

A

Monotrichous

131
Q

what flagellar arrangement is this?

A

Lophotrichous

132
Q

what flagellar arrangement is this?

A

Amphitrichous

133
Q

what flagellar arrangement is this?

A

Peritrichous

134
Q

how does a Flagellar function in bacteria?

A

Rotor turns due to “proton turbine” The flow of H+ (protons) moves the motor

135
Q

what is the flagella called in Archea?

A

Archaella

136
Q

Archaella rotors are tured by what mechanisum?

A

Rotation driven by energy from ATP

137
Q

what is Gliding Motility?

A

Motility without flagella

138
Q

what causes Gliding Motility to work? (3)

A
  • Slime production
  • Type IV pili/twitching motility
  • Gliding-specific proteins
139
Q

what is Chemotaxis?

A

Movement up or down a
chemical gradient.

Directionality obtained through
regulation of runs and tumbles

140
Q

bacteria perform a Run which is a Smooth forward motion. in what way does the flagellar motor rotate?

A

• Flagellar motor rotates counter
clockwise

141
Q

Bacteria performs a Tumble in which the Cell stops and jiggles in a circle. in what way is the flagglar rotor turning?

A

• Flagellar motor rotates clockwise

142
Q

what is Phototaxis?

A

Move up a gradient of light

143
Q

what is Scotophobotaxis

A

Movement away from darkness

144
Q
A
145
Q
A
146
Q
A