11-251

Question 1

On student training sorties, the students are expected to obtain:

Answer 1

1. Relevant NOTAMs
2. Weather
3. Airfield status
4. Threat of the day
5. Emergency procedure of the day
6. Lineup card

Question 2

Keep hands clear anytime someone is ___.

Answer 2

Underneath the aircraft

Question 3

To reduce the risk of FOD during ground operations, do not place objects on the ___ during engine start or while engines are running

Answer 3

Cockpit glareshields

Question 4

Normally, a power setting less than ___% RPM should be enough to taxi

Answer 4

80% RPM

Question 5

Aircrews should taxi at a moderate speed, normally not greater than ___ knots groundspeed

Answer 5

25 knots ground speed

Question 6

When using the brakes, ensure the throttles are in ___

Answer 6

Idle

Question 7

Do not taxi within ___ feet of any obstacle. Do not taxi within ___ feet of an obstacle without a wing walker

Answer 7

10 feet

25 feet

Question 8

The maximum allowable error of each altimeter at a known elevation point is ___

Answer 8

75 feet

Question 9

NAVAID ground checkpoint checks allows a max of ___ CDI error from the depicted course, DME error no greater than ___ NM or ___% of the distance to the facility, whichever is greater

Answer 9

+/- 4 degrees CDI error

DME error no greater than 1/2 mile or 3% of the distance

Question 10

Ensure the magnetic compass is within ___ of a known heading and within ___ of EHSI readout

Answer 10

5 degrees of a known heading

8 degrees of EHSI

Question 11

When inspecting the flight control surfaces during the before-takeoff checks, what are the two separate tasks that must be accomplished?

Answer 11

1. Visually confirm free and proper movement of the flight control surfaces
2. Confirm the flight control surfaces return to neutral

Question 12

Rolling takeoffs can increase takeoff distance by ___ to ___ feet

Answer 12

150-300 feet

Question 13

Pilots should normally initiate backstick pressure at approx. ___ KCAS as set the foresight cross to ___ nose-high on the pitch ladder

Answer 13

145 KCAS

7 degrees nose high

Question 14

Nosewheel liftoff will occur at approx. ___ KCAS, and the aircraft should fly off the runway at approx. ___ KCAS, depending on gross weight

Answer 14

155 KCAS

165 KCAS

Question 15

Smoothly reduce power out of MAX between ___ and ___ KCAS, and terminate afterburner by ___ KCAS

Answer 15

Between 220 and 280 KCAS

300 KCAS

Question 16

Accelerate to 300 KCAS in MIL power using approx. ___ NH pitch until passing 10,000’ MSL

Answer 16

12 degrees nose high

Question 17

You may combine the climb check with the level-off check when cruise altitude is at or below ___

Answer 17

FL180

Question 18

As a technique, begin leveling off upon reaching ___% of the VVI

Answer 18

10% of VVI

Ex. with a 4,000 VVI, begin level off 400’ prior to altitude

Question 19

The priorities for maintaining directional control during an abort are:

Answer 19

1. Rudder
2. Differential braking
3. Nose wheel steering as a last resort

Question 20

Can you taxi the T-38 single-engine? Can you exit the runway single-engine if you have downside hydraulics or the landing gear is pinned (barring no greater emergency)?

Answer 20

No

Yes

Question 21

Initiate the break turn between ___ of the runway

Answer 21

The approach end of the runway and the first 3,000’

Question 22

Before initiating the break turn, ensure traffic is ____ for 3,000’ separation or ___ for 6,000’.

Answer 22

45 degrees off for 3,000’

Abeam for 6,000’

Question 23

Begin the closed pull-up with a minimum of ___ KCAS and maintain a minimum of ___ until wings-level on downwind

Answer 23

240 KCAS

200 KCAS

Question 24

What is the normal no-wind spacing of inside downwind for a 1,500’ AGL traffic pattern?

Answer 24

1.0-1.3 NM

Question 25

Prior to beginning the final turn, ensure the ___, and the flaps have traveled a sufficient amount to ensure no asymmetry exists, approx. ___%

Answer 25

Landing gear is down and locked | 60%

Question 26

Normally, the rollout point is approx. ____ feet AGL at ___ NM from the threshold

Answer 26

300-390 feet | 1.0-1.3 NM from the threshold

Question 27

A preceding T-38 should be ___ of the way through the final turn to ensure 3,000' spacing or ___ to ensure 6,000' spacing

Answer 27

2/3 for 3,000' | Abeam for 6,000'

Question 28

The vertical velocity will eventually indicate ___ the pattern altitude

Answer 28

Double

Question 29

What three criteria must be met to consider the final turn "made"?

Answer 29

1. Within 30 degrees of alignment with the runway 2. Less than 30 degrees of bank required 3. Less than 0.6 AoA required

Question 30

Once established on final, what is normal vertical velocity?

Answer 30

700-900 fpm

Question 31

How far down the runway is the normal "shift"?

Answer 31

100-200 feet

Question 32

How far from the threshold is the normal power reduction to idle?

Answer 32

300-500 feet

Question 33

What is considered "fully flared"?

Answer 33

20-25 KCAS below approach speed

Question 34

What is the normal landing zone?

Answer 34

150-1,000 feet down the runway

Question 35

How is normal landing distance calculated?

Answer 35

2,500 + Gas + touchdown distance

Question 36

What are the T-38 groundspeed checks at the 3/2/1 boards?

Answer 36

90 / 60 / 30 knots ground

Question 37

Keep the stick full aft until ___ KIAS to maximize aerodynamic deceleration

Answer 37

50 KIAS

Question 38

When do crosswind procedures go into effect? What are crosswind procedures?

Answer 38

When the crosswind component exceeds 15 knots 1. Touchdown on the upwind side 2. Do not aerobrake, maintain the landing attitude 3. Ensure 6,000' spacing between aircraft

Question 39

For a crosswind landing, what flight control inputs should be made?

Answer 39

Aileron into the wind, rudder to maintain centerline/proper track down the runway

Question 40

Applying crosswind landing procedures may increase landing distance by approx. ___%

Answer 40

50%

Question 41

Normal spacing for a no-flap pattern is approx. ____NM

Answer 41

1.5 NM

Question 42

What does no flap configuration do to your landing distance?

Answer 42

Doubles the landing distance | i.e. (2,500 + Gas + touchdown distance)*2

Question 43

When performing an actual or simulated single-engine landing with 60% flaps, the landing roll will be approx. ___ feet longer

Answer 43

500 feet

Question 44

During a practice single-engine approach, the simulated inoperative engine is set to no less than ___% RPM

Answer 44

60%

Question 45

If a single-engine pattern is practiced from an overhead, use both engines until ___

Answer 45

Rolling out on final

Question 46

Once the simulated single-engine go-around exercise is complete, advance the simulated inoperative engine to ___ prior to coming out of afterburner on the other engine

Answer 46

MIL

Question 47

An actual stall may be preceded by what two aerodynamic indications?

Answer 47

1. Heavy, low-frequency buffet | 2. Moderate wing rock (in most cases)

Question 48

An actual stall may be indicated by what three things?

Answer 48

1. Very high sink rate 2. Heavy buffet 3. High AoA (above 1.0)

Question 49

Describe the different types of typical Airframe Buffet

Answer 49

1. Light Buffet = 0.60 AoA - Optimum final turn AoA 2. Moderate Buffet = 0.70 through DIBI - Red chevron above the green donut 3. Definite Increase in Buffet Intensity = >0.80 AoA - Increase in Amplitude, decrease in rate 4. Heavy Buffet = Higher than DIBI up to Full aft stick

Question 50

What situations would require an immediate stall recovery in the pattern?

Answer 50

1. Definite increase in Buffet Intensity (DIBI) 2. Aural, HUD, or MFD stall warning 3. Excessive sink rate

Question 51

What are the immediate actions of the stall/sink recovery?

Answer 51

1. Advance both throttles to MAX 2. Relax backstick pressure as required 3. Roll wings level

Question 52

For a go-around from a no-flap final turn, what steps can be taken to minimize the effects of an overshoot?

Answer 52

Rolling flaps to 60%

Question 53

What is typically used as the go/no-go decision for touch and go aborts?

Answer 53

Throttle setting

Question 54

The most common rule of thumb for energy exchange is 1,000 feet of altitude is worth about ___ knots of airspeed in MIL power

Answer 54

50 knots

Question 55

The speed brake has minimal effect below ___ KCAS

Answer 55

250 KCAS

Question 56

For the G-ex, set the flight path marker to approx ___ degrees nose low to hold 4-4.5 G's, and ___ degrees nose low to hold 5-5.5 G's

Answer 56

8-10 degrees nose low | 18-20 degrees nose low

Question 57

Begin practice traffic pattern stalls below ___ with power set no lower than ___

Answer 57

FL200 | 80% RPM

Question 58

A full aft stick stall is reached around ___ KCAS, ___ AoA, and ___ VVI

Answer 58

140 KCAS 1.1 AoA 6,000 fpm

Question 59

For the low-speed stability exercise, set the power no lower than ___

Answer 59

85% RPM

Question 60

The two simulated turning traffic pattern stall types are ___.

Answer 60

Level final turn (slower stall onset/recovery) | Diving final turn (faster onset/recovery)

Question 61

A common technique for the landing attitude stall is to maintain level flight to approx ___ VVI

Answer 61

0-1,000 fpm VVI

Question 62

The minimum turn radius of the T-38 is achieved between approx ___ and ___.

Answer 62

250 knots and corner velocity (approx 400 knots)

Question 63

Over-the-top maneuvers will lose approx ___ feet per maneuver.

Answer 63

500 feet

Question 64

What is the flight lead responsible for?

Answer 64

Safe and effective conduct of the mission

Question 65

What is the nav lead responsible for?

Answer 65

Navigating and clearing for the formation

Question 66

What is the admin lead responsible for?

Answer 66

Run all aspects of the profile to include navigating, radios, and making profile changes as required. A/C are re-numbered to match new position. Flight lead still holds ultimate responsibility for the flight.

Question 67

What is the tactical lead responsible for?

Answer 67

Tactical, navigation, and radio. Flight lead still holds ultimate responsibility for the flight.

Question 68

What is the wingman responsible for?

Answer 68

1. Fly a safe jet 2. Stay visual with flight lead 3. Be in the perfect formation position 4. Everything else (radios, FENCE-In/Out, back up flight lead)

Question 69

Who is primarily in charge of deconfliction within the flight?

Answer 69

The wingman

Question 70

A directive then descriptive traffic call from the wingman should follow the BRA format. Give an example

Answer 70

Directive: "KILLR 69, climb, Bearing: traffic 12 o'clock, Range: 2.5 miles, Altitude: level."

Question 71

Who is primarily responsible for visual lookout within the flight?

Answer 71

All flight members are responsible

Question 72

Unless already established on the RTB, wingman will inform lead of reaching ___ and ___ and receive ___.

Answer 72

Joker Bingo Acknowledgment from flight lead

Question 73

Preface all communications to external agencies when in formation with ___.

Answer 73

The entire flight callsign ("MUZZY 41)

Question 74

Do not initiate a lead change when the wingman is further aft than ___ or greater than ___ degrees aft from line abreast position.

Answer 74

Normal fingertip/route position | 30 degrees aft

Question 75

Minimum wingtip spacing on runway lineup is ___ feet if both crews are dual or ___ feet if either crew is solo.

Answer 75

10 feet | 50 feet

Question 76

During the formation engine run-up, continue to primarily focus your attention ___ with only short glances ___.

Answer 76

Outside the jet | Inside the jet

Question 77

For interval takeoff, minimum spacing is ___ seconds for single aircraft and ___ seconds for an element takeoff.

Answer 77

10 seconds | 15 seconds

Question 78

Unless briefed otherwise, the wingman will rejoin to ___.

Answer 78

the inside of the first turn out of traffic

Question 79

For interval takeoffs, wing should delay coming out of afterburner until ___.

Answer 79

Sufficient overtake is achieved

Question 80

For an instrument trail departure, T/O spacing will be no less than ___ seconds

Answer 80

20 seconds

Question 81

For an instrument trail departure, all aircraft will use ___ degrees of bank

Answer 81

30 degrees of bank

Question 82

For instrument trail departure, each aircraft will maintain at least ___ feet of vertical separation from the preceding aircraft (may be reduced by flight lead to ___ feet to comply with MSA

Answer 82

1,000 feet | 500 feet

Question 83

Maintain a minimum of ___ feet of lateral separation between all formation members during the G-exercise

Answer 83

4,000 feet

Question 84

For a 3 or 4 ship BD check, lead will direct ___ to check the flight. Once back in position, ___ is automatically cleared to check number 2.

Answer 84

Number 2 | Number 3 or 4

Question 85

For a formation approach, wing will fly fingertip until ___.

Answer 85

On glidepath

Question 86

Wingman will "stack level" on a formation approach when ___ or ___, whichever occurs later.

Answer 86

VMC or on glidepath

Question 87

The FCP visual references for stack level is to place the helmet of the FCP pilot in the lead aircraft ___, ensure nugget ___, and lead's main landing gear should resemble ___.

Answer 87

On the horizon Nugget abeam the slab bolt Figure 8

Question 88

A VMC drag will achieve a minimum of ___ feet of runway separation between aircraft in formation.

Answer 88

3,000 feet

Question 89

Prior to VMC drag, lead will slow to ___ KCAS and coordinate with ATC for non-standard formation during the remainder of the approach.

Answer 89

250 KCAS

Question 90

The latest VMC drag point will be ___ miles from the runway.

Answer 90

8 miles

Question 91

When lead directs the formation to drag, wing will follow what procedure?

Answer 91

1. Select IDLE power and extend speed brake until airspeed is below 240 KCAS 2. Select landing gear down, flaps (as required), and speed brake up 3. Set TCAS as appropriate as task management permits 4. Fly final approach speed minimum and remain within proper formation position

Question 92

During a VMC drag, lead will maintain 250 KCAS until ___ miles from the runway.

Answer 92

5 miles

Question 93

At 5 miles from the runway, lead will follow what procedure for VMC drag?

Answer 93

1. Select IDLE power and extend speed brake until airspeed is below 240 KCAS 2. Select landing gear down, flaps (as required), and speed brake up 3. Maintain a minimum of 180 KCAS until 3 miles from the runway, then slow to final approach speed