11-2C-130 Vol3 Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
When is a mission commander required?
A
When more than two aircraft are assembled to perform missions away from home station.
(Should) For special, high visibility missions
2
Q
When is a deputy lead crew required?
A
For formations greater than four aircraft
IMC airdrops consisting of three or more aircraft
3
Q
Single element formations in IMC require?
A
Element lead crew or one IP (any position)
IMC airdrops require AWADS lead
4
Q
Multi-element formations in IMC require?
A
A flight lead crew or IP in the lead or deputy lead (if required) positions, and in each flight lead position
5
Q
Who may fly with passengers on board?
A
Current and qualified pilots
A non-current but qualified pilot under IP supervision
6
Q
What is Flight Duty Period (FDP)?
A
The period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the final engine shutdown of the day
7
Q
Maximum FDP? (Basic crew)
A
16 hours
12 hours with inoperative autopilot
All tactical events accomplished within the first 12 hours
PIC may seek MAJCOM approval for 2 hour extension
8
Q
What is Crew Duty Time (CDT)?
A
Period of time an aircrew may perform combined ground/flight duties
9
Q
Maximum CDT? (Basic crew)
A
18 hours
10
Q
Maximum FDP? (Augmented crew)
A
18 hours
16 hours with inoperative autopilot
All transition or tactical events in first 12 hours
11
Q
Maximum CDT? (Augmented crew)
A
20 hours
12
Q
When does CDT/FDP begin?
A
1 hour after aircrew alert notification
When the first aircrew member reports for assigned duties
13
Q
May aircrews self alert?
A
Yes, with C2 concurrence prior to entering crew rest
14
Q
Alcohol consumption: 12 hours is based on?
A
Scheduled takeoff
ALFA legal for alert
Earliest showtime from BRAVO alert
15
Q
How long is pre-departure crew rest for off station missions greater than 16 hours?
A
24 hours before legal for alert time
May perform non-flying duties during first 12 hours
OG may waive any portion of first 12 hours
16
Q
How long is off-station/enroute crew rest?
A
Minimum of 12 hours before legal for alert time or scheduled report time for self alerts
17
Q
How long is off-station/enroute ground time?
A
At least 16 hours between engine shutdown and subsequent takeoff
May be modified by mission planners, PICs, or C2 to no less than 12 hours from the time aircrew entered crew rest
18
Q
Post Mission Crew Rest
A
Only for missions off-station 16 hours or more
1 hour (up to 96) for each 3 hours off station
19
Q
Crew Chief Work/Rest Plan
A
8 hours of uninterrupted rest in each 24 hour period
20
Q
Aircrew alert time is normally __+__ __ hours before scheduled takeoff time
A
3+15 (1 hour for reporting, 2+15 for mission preparation)
21
Q
How long after the expected alert time may C2 alert an aircrew?
A
6 hours
PIC may extend to 8 hours for crew or 12 hours for MEP status
22
Q
If the mission cannot depart within __+__ __ hours of scheduled takeoff, coordinate with C2 to continue the mission or re-enter crew rest
A
4+00
The PIC may continue the mission after thorough re-evaluation of all ORM factors
23
Q
ALFA alert launch time
A
1 hour
24
Q
BRAVO alert launch time
A
3 hours
25
CHARLIE alert
Enter crew rest within 2 hours
26
Wing Standby Force
Legal for alert for 12 hours, able to launch within 3+15 hours
27
Is formation interfly authorized?
Yes, provided a thorough mission brief is conducted between all participants and local/command procedures are discussed
28
MEL Column A
Home Station
29
MEL Column B
Enroute
30
Minimum Equipment for NVG Operations
Pilot's radar altimeter
SCNS with one GPS or INS for low-level NVG altitudes
31
AC or IP will make all takeoffs and landings during:
Aircraft emergencies (MPD may)
Airlift of nuclear weapons
Max effort on unimproved airfields
When marginal conditions exist
32
PIC with less than 100 hours will make all takeoffs and landings when:
Ceiling/vis less than 300 and/or RVR 4000 (3/4 sm)
RCR less than 12
Crosswind component greater than 15 knots
33
Deviations observed by PM
Heading
Airspeed
Altitude deviations greater than 100 feet
34
Deviations observed by any crew member
200 feet
10 knots
Terrain/obstructions
Approach procedure deviations
35
Stabilized approach criteria
>1000 fpm unless required and briefed
+10/-5 knots from target
+/- 15 degrees bank from target
+/- 300 fpm from target
36
Sterile cockpit below:
18,000 except cruise flight
37
Minimum runway length (peace-time)
3000 feet
38
Minimum runway width
80 feet
60 for max effort
39
Minimum taxiway width
30 feet
40
Minimum runway length for normal takeoff
CFL or MFLMETO
41
Minimum runway length for normal landing
Landing distance
Ground roll + 500' for max efforts
42
For peacetime, compute landing performance with:
Two engines in reverse and two in ground idle
43
Max depth of slush or water covered runways
1 inch
44
Vmeto climb out speed
Max effort OCS
45
Vmca climb out speed
Vmca+10
46
In unable to clear obstacles using Vmeto and max effort OCS:
Reduced gross weight or delay mission for more favorable conditions
47
For peacetime, use the _________ of Vmeto or Vmca, unless obstacles are a factor
Higher
48
Ideal AGL altitude for fuel jettison
20,000
49
BWC low restrictions
None
50
BWC moderate restrictions
Initial takeoffs and landings authorized only when departure and arrival routes will avoid bird activity
51
BWC severe operating restrictions
All takeoffs and landings are prohibited
OG/CC or equivalent may waive
52
Bird strike procedures
Land as soon as conditions permit, or as practicable, have aircraft inspected by MX
53
Any crew member detecting the radar altimeter low altitude warning light will notify the __
PF
54
Before departure, set the radar altimeter for ____________ _____________
Emergency return
55
The __________ and the __________ will use the same radar altimeter setting, unless briefed otherwise
Pilot and navigator
56
Set the radar altimeter to _______ during instrument approaches
HAT/HAA
57
Reduced power takeoffs will use ___ TIT not to exceed _____ in/lbs of torque
900
19,600
58
Reduced power cruise operations
970/300 KTAS
<10,000 MSL, 210 KIAS or less
Consider 900 TIT
59
Are reduced power (970 TIT) max effort takeoffs authorized?
Nope
60
How long to file an ASAP?
24 hours
61
When will an ASAP not protect the submitter?
Willful disregard of regulations and procedures
62
When are helmets required?
When parachutes are required per the addenda A
NVGs
ACDT
Unpressurized flight
When mobile in cargo compartment during airdrop
63
Order of priority for departure planning (obstacle clearance)
Published climb restrictions OEI
Current SDP for "operational" missions
Subtract 48'/NM from published, OEI
VFR departure
64
Weather minimums for takeoff
Operational: 1000 RVR with dual RVR and Runway centerline lines
All Others: 1600 RVR for all read outs
1/2 SM if no RVR
65
Departure alternate minimums, within 30 minutes flying time:
Published approach minimums for one hour after takeoff
In no case lower than 200-1/2 (2400 RVR)
66
Departure alternate minimums, within 2 hours flying time:
500-1 above the lowest compatible
Not less than 600-2 for a precision or 800-2 for a non-precision
Forecast to remain so for one hour after ETA
67
File two alternates when:
Forecast vis is below mins for a precision
Forecast ceiling OR vis is below mine for all other approaches
Forecast surface winds out of limits
68
Flight into areas of forecast or reported ______ icing is prohibited
Severe
69
Freezing drizzle is equivalent to:
Moderate icing
70
Freezing rain is equivalent to:
Severe icing
71
Can you take off in freezing rain?
Nope
72
Can you take off in freezing drizzle?
Yes, if de-iced
73
When de-iced, PIC will ensure a visual inspection is completed within __ minutes of departure
Five
74
If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms by at least 2,000 feet, avoid them horizontally by:
20 NM at or above FL230
10 NM below FL230
5 NM for tactical low-level (at or above 0 degrees C)
75
Highest lightning potential occurs within ____ feet or plus/minus __ degrees C of the freezing level
5,000 feet
8 degrees
76
Dash one preflight is good for:
12 hours
72 if sealed
Until MX performs dash six preflight
77
Minimum LOX required:
5 liters
78
How many EPOS or PBEs for flight deck?
3
79
Loadmasters will wear a harness below ___ or above _____
800 AGL
25,000 MSL
80
On time departures are within -__ or +__ minutes
-20
+14
81
NVG departure weather minimums:
Same as normal departures (1000, 1600, 1/2)
1500/3 if non-current and/or unqualified
82
SCNS waypoints, another pilot or navigator will verify the __________ and __________ against the flight plan
Coordinates and distances
83
Weather minimums for an approach must be at or above the required ____________ for straight-in/side step or __________ and __________ for circling approaches
Visibility
Ceiling and visibility
84
If ALS is into and no notes on NOTAMS, ATIS, or the approach plate, increase the published vis by:
1/2 SM
85
Partial panel approach minimums:
300'
4000 RVR or 3/4 SM with no RVR
86
What may not be accomplished on training missions with PAX?
Initial qualification/re-qualification
Multiple approaches/landings
NVG training
Airdrops
Simulated EPs
87
Minimum runway length for touch and go 50% flap landings:
5,000 feet
88
Minimum runway length for other than 50% flap touch and go landings:
6,000 feet
89
Minimum ceiling/vis for touch and go landings:
300' and RVR 4000 (3/4 SM) with an IP
600-2 for certified ACs
90
Can you do touch and goes on a slush covered runway?
Nope
91
Can you perform 0% flap, ground idle touch and goes?
Nope
92
Can you perform touch and goes with hazardous cargo on board?
Nope
93
Simulated engine shutdowns require an __ or and __ in one of the pilot seats
IP or EP
94
7 simulated engine failure limitations:
Do not simulate more than one engine
IP required, unless IP candidate (EP required)
FLIGHT IDLE authorized on one engine, at not less than Vmca, and not less than 300 AGL
AC upgrade and above for OEI no flap
No planned go arounds from OEI no flap
OEI no flap go arounds, if required, will be 4 engines 50% flap
No additional EPs during OEI circles
95
8 prohibited flight maneuvers:
Full stalls
Unusual attitudes
Simulated engine driven hydraulic system loss
Bank angles greater than 60 degrees
Rudder reversal/spins
Simulated runaway trim
Simulated two engine approaches/landings
Simulated OEI takeoffs
96
Approach to stalls minimum altitude:
10,000 AGL or 5,000' above the cloud deck
97
Instrument steep turns minimum altitude and maximum bank angle:
5,000 AGL if greater than 45 degrees of bank
60 degrees max
98
Slow flight minimum altitude and maximum bank angle:
5,000 AGL
15 degrees of bank
99
Initiate a planned missed approach no lower than ____ AGL for simulated emergency procedures during visual approach
200
100
9 no flap landing limitations:
IP required
No copilots with less than 500 PAA
No circling approaches for copilots
No OEI for copilots
No additional EPs during circles
Max 120,000 lbs.
Crosswinds in recommended zone
Day IMC if above circling minimums
Night with greater of 1000-2 or circling mins
Must be 50% flap go around
101
7 stop and go landing limitations:
Only authorized on training, eval, or currency missions
Must be C-130 qualified pilot
Greater than or equal to CFL
Crosswinds in recommended zone
300-3/4 (RVR 4000)
Not in conjunction with no flaps
Wake turbulence criterion must be met
102
Max effort brake cooling <35 degrees C (115,000-130,000 lbs.)
No more than three consecutive without 15 minute airborne cooling
103
Max effort brake cooling >35 degrees C (115,000-130,000 lbs.)
No more than two consecutive without a 15 minute airborne cooling
104
Max effort brake cooling (<115,000 lbs.)
No more than three consecutive without a 15 minute airborne cooling
105
Actual engine shutdown and air start limitations:
IP required
No lower than 2,500 AGL or MSA, whichever is higher
Day VMC
106
Does a FIR reflect international borders or sovereign airspace?
Nope
107
Can ATC grant diplomatic clearances of sovereign airspace?
Nope
108
RVSM required equipment
Both pilots altimeters
One autopilot
Altitude alerter
Transponder
109
VFR ARA ceiling and vis mins
1500-3
110
IFR ARA ceiling and vis mins
500-1
300-1 with AWADS certified crews
111
Standard width for a tactical corridor:
3 NM
112
Minimum day VMC enroute altitude:
500 AGL modified contour using visual references or the radar altimeter
113
Minimum night VMC enroute altitude:
500' above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400' plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within the tactical corridor to include the aircraft turn radius over each turn point
114
Minimum NVG enroute altitude:
500' above the highest spot terrain elevation, or 400' plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within the tactical corridor
115
If factor obstacles are not identified within the tactical corridor, the aircrew will:
Climb to 500' above the obstacle or avoid it laterally by 2 NM
116
Minimum Safe Altitude
Indicated altitude of 500' above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400' plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within 5 NM of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius
117
Minimum IFR enroute altitude
1000' (2000' in mountainous terrain) above the highest obstruction to flight, within 5 NM of route centerline
118
Emergency Safe Altitude
1000' (2000' in mountainous terrain) above the highest obstruction to flight within 22 NM of planned route centerline
119
Day VMC drop altitude
IAW with AFI 11-231
120
Night VMC drop altitude (non-NVG)
If not on NVGs, fly minimum night VMC run-in altitudes through slowdown, at an indicated altitude of 500' above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400' plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within 3 NM of run-in centerline
121
Night VMC drop altitude (NVGs)
Fly NVG enroute altitudes through slowdown
122
When may you descend from run-in altitude to drop altitude during night VMC drops (both with/without NVGs)
After slowdown, when the drop zone is in sight and will remain in sight, or when a positive position is identified and adequate terrain clearance is assured
123
IMC drop altitude
500' above the highest obstruction to flight, or 400' plus one contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within 3 NM either side of the run-in centerline from DZ entry to DZ exit, or as specified in AFI 11-231, whichever is higher
124
Formation will not descend until the last aircraft is at or past the:
DZ entry point
125
Minimum LCLA drop altitude:
Dependent upon the type of parachute, but no lower than 300' AGL
126
Plan to roll out on final from low altitude approaches at ________ airspeed no lower than ______ AGL
Final approach airspeed
150' AGL
127
With the exception of ______ ______ ______, do not ERO _______ _______ unless authorized in the JA/ATT, exercise operation or contingency ATO
Small arms ammunition
Explosive cargo
128
Do not combat offload explosives and munitions (with the exception of small arms ammunition) unless:
Rigged for airdrop
129
For combat offloads, a minimum of ____ feet is required, but ____ is desired
500' required
1000' desired
130
Single or double/triple married pallets may be combat offloaded, without ballast, provided their total weight does not exceed:
12,000 pounds
131
CDS bundles may be combat offloaded, provided:
The static line retriever is used manually (manual gate cut if inop)
CVR loads are done one stick at a time
12,000 lbs. ballast limit is observed
132
Maximum weight for combat offload method "B"
15,000 lbs.
133
NVG approaches/landings. The navigator will program a backup ___ in SCNS, and configure the ______ to monitor the approach course
ARA
Radar
134
For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed __ degrees, and the aircraft will jot descend below ___' AGL until rolled out on final
45 degrees
150' AGL
135
Formation takeoff/landings minimums:
Are the minimums for the airport navigation aid used, but no lower than 200/1
Adhere to both ceiling and vis requirements
136
Lead will announce airspeed changes of __ knots or greater at night
15
137
Basic visual spacing between element leads:
8000 feet
138
SKE must be operational for night, unaided visual formations or the formation is restricted to ____' in trail
2000
139
____ are required for night threat reactions
NVGs
140
Rejoining aircraft will maintain ____ ' above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted
500'
141
Rejoining aircraft must be in position at formation altitude by _____ _____ to accomplish the drop
Green light
142
Minimum CDS spacing:
6000 feet
143
The desired landing interval is __ seconds, __ seconds minimum
20 seconds desired
15 seconds minimum
144
During SKE climbs/descents, lead announces the altitude passing each ____ feet
2000
145
Priority of FCI signals
Altitude
Heading
Airspeed
146
Minimum SKE spacing:
4000 feet
147
SKE lead will signal turns of __ degrees or more and airspeed changes of __ knots or more
10 degrees
10 knots
148
For formation check turns, all aircraft will use __ degrees of bank unless otherwise briefed
30
149
VMC loss of SKE
If only the DVST/PPI is inop, aircraft may elect to stay in position with leads occurrence
150
IMC loss of SKE
Breakout via:
Straight and level: climb 500', turn 30 degrees in the safest direction for 30 seconds
In a turn: roll out and climb 500'
151
For SKE rejoins:
Set SKE range x1000 switch at max range
Approach from 1000 above or below
Establish radio contact and leader/slot number
Ensure master lost extinguished
Complete FCI checks
Remain 1000' above or below until stabilized in position and the last aircraft in formation is identified
152
SKE rejoining aircraft must be stabilized in position at formation altitude by the __ (IMC) or the ___ (VMC) to accomplish the drop
IP
One minute
153
Formation lead will not pass back revised drift/ballistic winds until:
After level at drop altitude
154
After slowdown, element leads are restricted to __ degrees of bank
10
155
Upon reaching ___ KIAS, the formation may descend to drop altitude using ____ FPM
140 KIAS
1000 FPM
156
Do not initiate formation descent until:
Lead position is positively identified
The entire formation is within 3 NM of DZ run-in centerline
The last aircraft is at or past the DZ entry point
157
Each element will stack __ feet above the preceding element's drop altitude
50
158
Element leaders will maintain formation position with TWS until they are established on drop altitude and airspeed, at which point they are cleared their own:
Independent run-in to their own CARP
159
The minimum SKE landing interval is ____ required, ____ desired
5000 required
6000 desired
160
AWADS lead will verify at least _____ OAPs during the run-in
Two
161
AWADS leads will have an OAP active on the run-in at from the __________ through the __________
One minute advisory through the escape point
162
AWADS, GRADS, PADS, or a radar beacon drop will be made for CDS or equipment drops above:
3000 AGL
163
May a SKE wingman execute a SKE timing drop off a lead that used AWADS, GRADS, or a radar beacon drop?
Yep
164
Overwater airdrops may be conducted up to _____ AGL using standard methods
5000' AGL
165
Personnel required to be mobile in the cargo compartment will wear protective headgear from the ___________ to the ____________ if an actual threat is briefed
Combat entry to combat exit
166
During airdrops, loadmasters will be on interphone from completion of ____________ until ___________
Pre-slowdown checks to completion of drop checklist
167
Which time advisories are required for personnel airdrops?
20, 10, 1 minute, and 5 second
168
Which time advisories are required for CDS and equipment drops?
1 minute and 5 second
169
During personnel airdrops, the aircraft must be at or above drop altitude and stable not later than _________
One minute out (two minutes for jump master directed)
170
Who will acknowledge a no drop call?
PM and Loadmaster
171
Jump master directed drops are limited to how many aircraft?
Single ship only
172
For I-CDS/JPADS, both pilots will review preflight _____ and _____ for each respective airdrop
CARP and ADE
173
During dropsonde release, what is the aircraft configuration and airspeed?
Flaps up
170-180 KIAS
174
For I-CDS operations, a FOM of ______ or verification of waypoints by ___________ is required
FOM of 3
AWADS OAPs
175
For JPADS operations, a FOM of ________ is required
3
176
What are JPADS wind limits for 2K/10K?
18 knots
177
Use pre-breathing procedures when dropping from _________ MSL or higher
20,000'
178
For which airdrop operations are two loadmasters required?
Actual equipment drops from ramp and door
Other than single CDS with manual gate cut
Airdrops at and above 14,000' MSL
179
Max tailgate jumpers per pass:
20
180
During CDS drops, when should the flaps be reset to 50%?
When the loadmaster calls "load clear"
181
LCLA configuration and airspeed:
50% flaps
130 KIAS
182
Minimum bailout altitude for static line jumpers:
400' AGL
183
Minimum bailout altitude for free fall jumpers:
2000' AGL
184
What is the recommended aircraft configuration for a towed parachutist from the troop door?
Gear down
Flaps 100%
185
For towed multiple 28' extraction parachutes, do not allow the aircraft to slow below:
Vmeto
186
When notified of a CDS malfunction, pilots will:
Extend additional flaps
Maintain a slight nose down attitude until the ramp and door are closed and the load secured
Maintain drop altitude and airspeed
Avoid flying over or upwind of water/built up areas
187
If patients are onboard, how many AE crew members must remain on board during aircraft servicing?
Two
