PCO

Question 1

Slot numbers should be between:

Answer 1

1 and 39 (10, 20, and 30 not used)

Question 2

The priority of FCI signals is:

Answer 2

Altitude

Heading

Airspeed

Question 3

When executing a SKE overrun as a wingman, all of the following are true except:

Answer 3

Turn in the safest direction and set 800 XTRK

Question 4

Which component is used to enter SKE formation data into the system?

Answer 4

Secondary control panel

Question 5

Which SKE components display intrack and cross track information?

Answer 5

Range indicator and ADI

Question 6

Select the component which allows TWS data to be displayed on the ADI

Answer 6

ADI mode selector switches

Question 7

How many minutes must the SKE battery circuit breaker be in to allow the station keeper electronic clock to stabilize?

Answer 7

15

Question 8

In order to perform the SKE parameters checklist, which AC bus must be powered?

Answer 8

Main

Question 9

When must the SKE parameters checklist be re-accomplished?

Answer 9

If power to the equipment is interrupted during ground or flight operation

Question 10

The ESA provides terrain clearance within which of the following distances from the intended route centerline?

Answer 10

22 NM

Question 11

The first priority when route planning in a combat situation is which of the following?

Answer 11

Avoiding any known or possible threats

Question 12

Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible for maintaining the desired track over the DZ?

Answer 12

PF

Question 13

After a CDS drop, when may the pilot call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?

Answer 13

When the loadmasters calls “load clear”

Question 14

Who has the most significant effect on operations?

Answer 14

The user

Question 15

According to AFTTP 3-3, which of the following is the most effective method of terrain masking?

Answer 15

Direct

Question 16

For personnel airdrops:

Answer 16

The ramp and door and the paratroop doors cannot be used simultaneously

Question 17

The right hand dual rail latches are unique in that they:

Answer 17

Have 11 latches providing a forward restraint of 20,000 lbs. and variable up to 4000 lbs. aft

Question 18

Do not descend from the last IFR enroute altitude until the following conditions are met:

Answer 18

Lead’s position is positively known, the entire formation is within 3 NMs of DZ run-in course centerline, and the last aircraft is at or past the DZ entry point

Question 19

Which publication contains guidelines for in flight briefings?

Answer 19

Either b. or c.

3-3 CMG) (-1

Question 20

When operating from locations without a C2 agency, you pass your movement information:

Answer 20

By the most expeditious means available prior to crew rest

Question 21

A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:

Answer 21

Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute

Question 22

When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:

Answer 22

Extend additional flaps and lower the nose

Question 23

All of the following are advantages of a two-ship element formation except for:

Answer 23

Inability to transition between VFR and IFR

Question 24

Flights are composed of how many aircraft?

Answer 24

4

Question 25

Standard fluid trail maneuvering is from ______ to _______ feet behind lead up to the 3/9 line:

Answer 25

2000-6000

Question 26

When executing inadvertent weather penetration without SKE, in a four element formation, at what altitude will the first element level off?

Answer 26

Base + 1500 feet

Question 27

Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for air land arrivals?

Answer 27

Concentric circles

Question 28

Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased "G" loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:

Answer 28

Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation

Question 29

What is the minimum taxi interval when two engines are shutdown?

Answer 29

Two aircraft lengths

Question 30

Below 10,000 MSL, what is the formation assembly airspeed?

Answer 30

180 KIAS

Question 31

The first consideration while planning an airland combat mission should be:

Answer 31

The threat

Question 32

What should be your primary planning consideration affecting an NVG approach?

Answer 32

Terrain and obstacles

Question 33

Which of the following is a technique for altitude/MSA sectoring for airland arrivals?

Answer 33

Concentric circles

Question 34

If utilizing the Arrival and Departure Corridors (iron cross) method to determine NVG altitude sectoring, the arrival corridor should be how wide?

Answer 34

6 NM

Question 35

If landing after another C-130 on a dusty LZ, landing intervals may need to be as long as ___ minutes in low wind conditions due to dust clouds

Answer 35

5

Question 36

When performing and objective area analysis prior to an NVG airland operation, which of the following would be helpful?

Answer 36

All the above | FLIP, ASRR, JEPPESON publications (One-meter and five-meter imagery) (PFPS, FALCONVIEW, SKYVIEW)

Question 37

To asses the security of specific airfields, the aircrew can use the BEST acronym, BEST stands for:

Answer 37

Boundary Enemy Security forces Topography

Question 38

Minimizing the use of high bank angles, increased "G" loading, and rapid airspeed changes during NVG tactical VFR approaches will:

Answer 38

Reduce the potential for spatial disorientation

Question 39

Which of the following is a disadvantage for a low-level arrival?

Answer 39

All of the above are true (Places aircraft in the WEZ of all low altitude threats) (Flown in close proximity to the ground) (Navigation and LZ acquisition is more difficult)

Question 40

Day low level arrivals are normally flown at what altitude range above the ground?

Answer 40

300-500 feet

Question 41

Low altitude arrivals are normally flown at what minimum altitude above field elevation for NVG visual approaches?

Answer 41

500-1000' AGL

Question 42

What colors are the day landing zone marking panels?

Answer 42

Orange and cerise

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT considered a major factor in determining a slowdown point for a straight-in arrival to an LZ?

Answer 43

Airfield Lighting

Question 44

Which type arrival does NOT permit the crew to dissipate energy through bank angle and "G" loading?

Answer 44

Straight-in

Question 45

Which tactical VFR arrival is easily adaptable to landing on either runway?

Answer 45

Beam

Question 46

Which of the following high altitude descents involves flying at L/D max airspeeds until 20,000 feet and then 250 KIAS?

Answer 46

Penetration descent

Question 47

When performing an NVG max effort landing, crews must avoid factor obstacles and may descend from the NVG enroute altitude when:

Answer 47

Aircraft position is positively known and terrain clearance is assured along the approach

Question 48

When flying an NVG assault landing the pilot should:

Answer 48

Avoid a very steep "two-step" approach

Question 49

Which of these options is NOT a good recommendation if threat considerations are the primary factor?

Answer 49

Accelerate to 250 KIAS before then fence line then execute a zoom maneuver to clear the small arms WEZ

Question 50

While flying as PF on short final to an NVG assault landing, you experience and NVG failure. You should consider:

Answer 50

Both 1+2 | Performing a go-around (Transitioning to overt lighting)

Question 51

As the AC on an NVG airland mission in IMC, you have briefed that the copilot will fly the IAP and you will accomplish the landing. Transfer of aircraft control will be no lower than:

Answer 51

300 AGL

Question 52

On an NVG final approach, the PM should verbalized airspeed and VVI beginning at _____ AGL

Answer 52

300

Question 53

As PF, you are accomplishing an NVG takeoff with a takeoff/refusal speed of 105 KIAS. AT 90 KIAS, you experience an NVG failure. You should:

Answer 53

Consider continuing the takeoff as it may be safer than performing a high-speed abort

Question 54

Max effort operations must fall into what area of the crosswind charts?

Answer 54

Recommended

Question 55

What is the minimum MFLMETO (non-peacetime)

Answer 55

Charted

Question 56

Peacetime restrictions to maximum effort operations prohibit the use of runways less than how many feet in length?

Answer 56

3,000

Question 57

What is the minimum runway width (in feet) for tactical assault operations?

Answer 57

60 feet

Question 58

What is the minimum runway length required for a maximum effort landing (non-peacetime)

Answer 58

Ground roll + 500'

Question 59

At aircraft gross weights less than 130,000 lbs. what is the maximum allowable rate-of-sink?

Answer 59

540 fpm

Question 60

What engine/braking configuration is used to compute landing performance during peacetime?

Answer 60

Two in reverse/two in ground idle/full brakes

Question 61

An assault landing with the anti-skid inoperative is:

Answer 61

Not authorized

Question 62

When using the landing charts, what percentage of a tailwind component is applied?

Answer 62

150%

Question 63

Which of the following is used to determine minimum field length for an assault landing?

Answer 63

Ground roll

Question 64

Slowdown during personnel drops (non JM directed) should be planned to allow jump master access to paratroop doors no later than:

Answer 64

One minute prior to TOT

Question 65

Which crew members requirement determine when the preslowdown checklist will be initiated?

Answer 65

Loadmaster

Question 66

Once the PF and navigator confirm the release point location and track required, who is responsible FO maintaining the desired track over the DZ?

Answer 66

PF

Question 67

When executing an airdrop slowdown maneuver, retard all throttles to 1000 in lbs. or prebriefed power setting, lower the flaps to 50% on speed or as briefed and slow to:

Answer 67

140 KIAS

Question 68

After a CDS drop, when may the PF call for the flaps to be reset to 50%?

Answer 68

At "load clear"

Question 69

A towed parachutist will indicate ready to cut by:

Answer 69

Maintaining a tight body position and placing both hands on his or her reserve parachute

Question 70

If a non-EPJS HE load fails to extract with multiple 28' extraction parachutes outside the aircraft, the loadmaster will do which of the following?

Answer 70

Ensure the right rail control handle is in emergency

Question 71

When notified of a CDS malfunction, the PF should first:

Answer 71

Extend additional flaps and lower the nose

Question 72

If an SATB exits the aircraft and fails to separate, what action should be taken?

Answer 72

The LM should cut it loose

Question 73

Which block letters are authorized for non-circular drop zones?

Answer 73

A and S

Question 74

Which of the following is the proper signal for a "no drop" condition?

Answer 74

Red flare/Smoke

Question 75

Who WILL acknowledge a "no drop" call?

Answer 75

PM and LM

Question 76

In a visual formation, you will find the timeline of events on:

Answer 76

The 280

Question 77

Formation taxi interval with two engines at normal ground idle and two engines at LSGI is:

Answer 77

One aircraft length

Question 78

A push call requires a formation check-in on the new frequency T or F?

Answer 78

False

Question 79

During a formation takeoff:

Answer 79

All of the above

Question 80

For wingmen, correct altitude references during day visual formation are:

Answer 80

Terrain, radar altimeter, and position relative to lead