11-2T-38 Vol. 3 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 11-2T-38 Vol. 3 Deck (85)
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1

With squadron supervisor approval, pilots may reduce gross weight by burning down fuel to a predetermined usable fuel weight prior to taking the runway for takeoff.

True

2

For local sorties, begin briefings a minimum of 1 hour before scheduled takeoff.

True

3

An alternate mission

A. Should be briefed for each flight, when appropriate.
B. Will be less complex than the primary mission.
C. Should parallel the primary mission. D. All of the above.

D

4

If unit-developed checklists are used in lieu of flight manual checklists, carrying a flight manual checklist and having it immediately available on all flights is optional.

False

5

The crew chief will repeat ground visual signals when it is safe to operate the system.

True

6

Objects will not be placed on top of the glare shield during start with canopies open.

True

7

Minimum taxi interval is:

A. 150 feet staggered or 300 feet in trail.
B. 300 feet when ice or snow is present.
C. May be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.

8

Minimum taxi interval may be reduced when holding short of or entering the runway.

True

9

For formation takeoffs, place the wingman on the upwind side if the crosswind exceeds ____ knots.

5

10

Pilots will remove and properly stow ejection seat and canopy jettison safety pins once clear of the aircraft parking area, but not later than the before takeoff checklist.

True

11

Do not takeoff when The runway condition reading (RCR) is less than

10

12

Do not takeoff when Computed takeoff roll exceeds ____% of the available runway (single ship or interval).

80

13

Do not take off when Computed takeoff roll exceeds ____% of the available runway (element takeoff).

70

14

Single-ship rolling takeoffs are authorized:

A. When available runway exceeds CFL by 1,000 feet or more.
B. During daylight hours only.
C. After the pilot has considered TOLD with a runway length 300 feet less than the available runway.
D. Both A and B above.
E. Both B and C above.

E

15

For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is less than or equal to RS-EF, go/no-go speed is:

RS-EF

16

For operations with a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS:
A. OG/CC approval for takeoff is required.
B. Use TOS as the go/no-go speed (performance data must result in a valid DS and SETOS).
C. Only a rated pilot or student under IP supervision may perform the takeoff
D. All of the above.

D

17

For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is less than RS-BEO, go/no-go speed is:

RS-BEO

18

For operations without a remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF, takeoffs are not authorized.

True

19

For operations with a raised, non-remotely controlled BAK-15, when DS is greater than RS-EF and less than TOS, with OG/CC approval (as long as performance data results in a valid DS and SETOS):


A. Use SETOS as the go/no-go speed.
B. Pilots will delay rotation until 155 KCAS (T-38C) or 150 KIAS (T-38A) and ensure the nose is off the runway no later than 174 KGS/KIAS respectively.
C. Only a rated pilot or student under IP supervision may perform the takeoff.

20

When aircraft operate on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots will remain on the frequency of the agency that controls the runway and the arresting system until safely airborne.

True

21

The MA-1A is suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod.

False

22

The minimum runway required for operations is 8,000 feet or 7,000 feet with squadron supervision level approval.

False

23

Which of the following does not prohibit a formation takeoff:
A. Runway width less than 150 feet.
B. Standing water, ice, slush, or snow on runway.
C. Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 knots.
D. CFL within 1,000 feet of available runway.

D. CFL within 1,000 feet of available runway.

24

Which of the following is not true concerning flight join-up and rejoin:
A. Weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling are 1500/3.
B. Flight leads will not normally exceed 30 degrees of bank during a turning join-up.
C. For a straight-ahead rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the left wing unless otherwise briefed.
D. For a turning rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the outside of the turn unless otherwise briefed.

D. For a turning rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join on the outside of the turn unless otherwise briefed.

25

A battle damage check is mandatory after every mission prior to or during return to base.

True

26

The maximum flight size is two aircraft in IMC conditions.

False

27

The minimum altitude for changing leads is:

A. 500 feet AGL over land.
B. 1,000 feet AGL over water.
C. 1,500 feet AGL in IMC or at night unless on radar downwind.

28

The parameters for a safety observer in a chase aircraft are:

A 30- to 60-degree cone out to 1,000 feet.

29

The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is 150 KTS unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows a slower airspeed for the training to be conducted.

True

30

Which of the following is not a prohibited maneuver:
A. Practice single-engine circling approaches or overhead patterns.
B. Overhead patterns to set up a practice single-engine go around using 60% or 100% flaps and both throttles until rolling out on final.
C. Practice minimum roll landings.
D. Practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than 2,500 pounds of fuel.

B. Overhead patterns to set up a practice single-engine go around using 60% or 100% flaps and both throttles until rolling out on final.