Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Don’t break __________ unless legal and ethical guidelines stipulate you should do so. Confidentiality lives on after the client is deceased.

Pg. 648

A

confidentiality

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2
Q

Inform the client upfront that there are times when you need to break confidentiality, for example _________. This is known as “relative confidentiality” or the “limitations of confidentiality”. Your _________ information should also delineate freedom of choice issues, fees, techniques you utilize, and your qualifications.

Pg. 648

A

you are subpoenaed and asked to provide information about a client; informed consent

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3
Q

Never promise or guarantee that you will ________.

Pg. 648

A

cure the client

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4
Q

According to the ACA you may have a romantic or sexual relationship with a former client if you wait ____ years after the last contact. NBCC states _____ years after termination. The relationship cannot be exploitative.

Pg. 648

A

5; 2

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5
Q

If you don’t know how to handle a case _________. The “standard of practice/care” concept refers to the fact that competent peers would have handled the situation in the same manner as you.

Pg. 649

A

get supervision/consultation

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6
Q

Electronic client records require _________ so only appropriate staff can view them.

Pg. 649

A

restricted access

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7
Q

Breech confidentiality if a client threatens to hurt themself or someone else, relying on the principles of “__________”.

Pg. 649

A

minimal disclosure

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8
Q

Always contact a ________ regarding child abuse and/or abuse of elderly persons. Counselors are mandated reporters.

Pg. 649

A

hotline or appropriate organization

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9
Q

Practice ________ by keeping promises and being loyal to clients. Lying, not keeping appointments, and breaking confidentiality for no reason are examples of behavior that violates _________.

Pg. 649

A

fidelity; fidelity

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10
Q

Always secure _________ prior to seeing clients.

Pg. 649

A

malpractice (liability) insurance

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11
Q

Avoid dual/multiple relationships with current or former clients unless the relationship is ________ to the client. Document why you feel the interaction was beneficial in advance whenever possible. (If relationship is meeting your needs, and not you clients - avoid it!)

Pg. 650

A

beneficial

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12
Q

If you are a counselor educator you must infuse _________ material into all courses and workshops.

Pg. 650

A

multicultural and diversity

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13
Q

Never use a test, inventory, or assessment tool on a population unless is has been _________ on that population.

Pg. 650

A

normed

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14
Q

Never use a test or inventory that is ________ or make client decisions based on _______ test scores.

Pg. 650

A

obsolete; obsolete

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15
Q

Use the title “Dr.” only if your doctorate is ___________.

Pg. 650

A

in counseling or a closely related field

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16
Q

Do not use your ___________ to recruit clients for your private practice.

Pg. 650

A

regular counseling job

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17
Q

National Certified Counselors keep records for at least ___ years, unless the law says otherwise.

Pg. 650

A

5

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18
Q

If you are working with a terminally ill client who wishes to hasten their death you have a right to break or not break confidentiality after ____________.

Pg. 650

A

you consult with appropriate professional and legal sources

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19
Q

If you are using a _________ you must inform your client. You should also reveal the composition of the team.

Pg. 650

A

treatment team

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20
Q

If you provide technology-assisted services use ___________. Also check legal regulations and the licensing bureau of the state where __________ resides to determine if you must be licensed in that particular state.

Pg. 651

A

encrypted websites and email communications; the client

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21
Q

If you provide technology-assisted services, give the client ___________ in case technology fails. Also let the client know what services are covered under insurance and ensure that technological accessibility meets the ADA requirements.

Pg. 651

A

emergency procedures

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22
Q

If you are using a technique or treatment that is not proven via empirical evidence or a proven scientific foundation, always inform the client that ___________. Also discuss the possibility of harm with the client.

A

the intervention is “unproven” or “developing”

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23
Q

If you do unintentionally harm a client you must show that __________.

Pg. 651

A

you tried to remedy the harm incurred

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24
Q

A supervisor can legitimately recommend that a supervisee be __________ from a training program or professional setting.

Pg. 651

A

dismissed

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25
Q

____________ can legitimately terminate a supervisory relationship.

A

supervisor or supervisee

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26
Q

When possible, don’t use deception with subjects in research studies. If you cannot find an alternative, then ___________.

A

debrief the subjects as soon as possible

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27
Q

Avoid fee-splitting and never accept a __________ for a client.

A

referral fee

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28
Q

_________ is not a valid excuse for violating ethical guidelines.

A

ignorance

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29
Q

The application of human growth and development theories to the practice of counseling became popular in the ______.

Pg. 652

A

1980s

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30
Q

_________ refers to what happens to the fetus during gestation.

A

fetal origins

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31
Q

Changes to one’s growth and/or development can be either _________ (measured) or __________ (change in organization or structure).

A

quantitative; qualitative

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32
Q

__________ is the founder of psychology in the U.S. and the first president of the APA. He popularized the study of the child and child guidance.

A

Stanley Hall

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33
Q

________ was outlined by John Watson, Ivan Pavlov, Joseph Wolpe, and B.F. Skinner. Initially the mind is a blank slate and the child learns to behave in a certain manner. This model relies on empiricism (Locke’s view that knowledge is acquired by experience). All _________ is the result of learning.

A

behaviorism; behavior

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34
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages are based on ___________.

A

ego psychology and the epigenetic principle that states that growth is orderly, universal, and systematic

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35
Q

________ Qualitative stages of cognitive development:

  1. sensorimotor (birth - 2 yrs)
  2. preoperational (2-7 yrs)
  3. concrete operations (7-12 yrs)
  4. formal operations (11/12-16 yrs)
A

Piaget’s

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36
Q

Piaget

Patterns of thought and behavior are called ________.

A

schema

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37
Q

Piaget

________ occurs qualitatively (change in the person’s thought structure) when the individual fits information into existing ideas and modifies cognitive schemata to incorporate new information.

A

adaptation

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38
Q

Piaget

_________ is when the individual fits information into existing ideas.

A

assimilation

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39
Q

Piaget

________ is when an individual modifies cognitive schemata to incorporate new information.

A

accommodation

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40
Q

Piaget

_________ occurs in the sensorimotor stage (an object the child can’t see still exists).

A

object permanence

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41
Q

Piaget

_________ occurs in the preoperational stage and is the act of focusing on one aspect of something.

A

centration

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42
Q

Piaget

_________ takes place in the concrete operations stage. The child knows that volume and quantity do not change, just because the appearance of an object changes.

A

conservation

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43
Q

Piaget

__________ takes place in the formal operations stage.

A

abstract scientific thinking

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44
Q

The 7th stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (35-60 yrs).

A

generativity vs. stagnation

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45
Q

The 8th stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (65 + yrs).

A

integrity vs. despair

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46
Q

The 1st stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (birth - 1.5 yrs).

A

trust vs. mistrust

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47
Q

The 2nd stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (1.5 - 3 yrs).

A

autonomy vs. shame & doubt

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48
Q

The 3rd stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (3-6 yrs).

A

initiative vs. guilt

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49
Q

The 4th stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (6-11 yrs).

A

industry vs. inferiority

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50
Q

The 5th stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (12-18 yrs).

A

identity vs. role confusion

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51
Q

The 8th stage of Erikson’s model is ___________ (18-35 yrs).

A

intimacy vs. isolation

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52
Q

________’s constructive developmental model emphasizes the impact of interpersonal interaction and our perception of reality.

A

Keagan’s

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53
Q

_________’s 3 levels of moral development:

Preconventional = behavior governed by consequences 
Conventional = a desire to conform to socially acceptable rules 
Postconventional = self-accepted moral principles guide behavior.  

**each level has 2 stages.

A

Lawrence Kohlberg’s

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54
Q

_________ illuminated the fact that Kohlberg’s research was conducted on males in her book, “In a Different Voice”. Women have a sense of caring and compassion.

A

Carol Gilligan

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55
Q

________ four major eras/transitions theory depicted the changes in men’s lives throughout the life span.

The four eras include: childhood & adolescence, early adulthood, middle adulthood, and later adulthood

A

Levinson’s

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56
Q

________ proposed that cognitive development is not the result of innate factors, but is produced by activities that take place in one’s culture.

His __________ refers to the difference in the child’s ability to solve problems on his own and his capacity to solve them with some help from others.

A

Vygotsky; zone of proximal development (ZDP)

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57
Q

Freud’s psychoanalytic/psychodynamic 5 psychosexual stages:

  1. ______ (birth 1 yr)
  2. _____ (1-3 yrs)
  3. _____ (3-7 yrs)
  4. _____ (3-5 yrs)
  5. _____ (adolescence - adulthood)
A
oral
anal
phallic
oedipal/electra complex
latency 
genital
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58
Q

_________ is the drive to live and the sexual instinct that is present even at birth. It is said to be sublimated in the latency stage as the individual has little interest in sex. This ends when puberty begins.

A

libido

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59
Q

_________ is the return to an earlier stage caused by stress.

A

regression

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60
Q

_________ implies that the person is unable to move to the next stage.

A

fixation

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61
Q

_______ is criticized for focusing on sex and not including the entire life span in his theory.

A

Freud

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62
Q

_______ interviewed self-actualized people. Lower-order physiological and safety needs must be fulfilled before self-actualization can occur.

A

Maslow

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63
Q

________ theory of intellectual & ethical development in adults/college students:

dualism = students view the truth as either right or wrong

relativism = the notion that a perfect answer may not exist. There is a desire to know various opinions.

commitment to relativism = individual is willing to change their opinion based on novel facts and new points of view

A

Perry’s

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64
Q

________ theory of faith and spiritual development:

0: undifferentiated (primal) faith (birth - 4 yrs)
1: intuitive-projective faith (2-7 yrs)
2: mythic-literal faith (childhood and beyond)
3: synthetic-conventional faith (adolescence and beyond) **a stage of conformity
4: individuative-reflective faith (young adulthood and beyond)
5: conjunctive faith (mid 30’s and beyond) **openness to other points of view, paradox, and appreciation of symbols and metaphors
6: universalizing faith (midlife and beyond) **few reach this stage

A

Fowler’s

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65
Q

According to _________, faith is not identical with one’s belief in religion. “Faith can be religious faith, but it can also be centered on a career, a country, an institution, a family, money, success, or even oneself”. Faith grows and changes throughout the life span.

A

Fowler

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66
Q

Baumrind’s Typology or Parenting Styles:

_________ = high expectations for the child, but is warm and nurturing. The child is given an explanation of the rules. Generally produces a child who is happy, does well in school, has good emotional regulation, and fine social skills.

A

authoritative

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67
Q

Baumrind’s Typology or Parenting Styles:

_________ = bossy parents which champions “follow my orders” with no explanation. Punishment and verbal insults are used liberally. Can produce anxious, withdrawn children who are likely to engage in antisocial behavior including alcohol and drug abuse, stealing, and gang activities.

A

authoritarian

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68
Q

Baumrind’s Typology or Parenting Styles:

_________ = parent has a low level of control and is easily manipulated. Rarely says “no” to a child and is nonpunitive. Very affectionate and wishes to please the child like a friend. Child can display a lack of social skills, boundaries, and can be extremely demanding. Children often use drugs and alcohol.

A

permissive passive indulgent

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69
Q

_________ appears to be the best treatment of choice for those with eating disorders.

A

family therapy

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70
Q

________ is defined as habits, customs, art, religion, science, and the political behavior of a given group of people during a given period of time.

A

culture

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71
Q

Cultures are said to be ________: each culture changing or evolving at its own rate.

A

dynamic

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72
Q

The dominant or major culture in a country is the _________, often contrasted with the smaller ________.

A

macroculture; microculture

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73
Q

Learning the behaviors and expectations of a culture is known as __________.

A

acculturation

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74
Q

Cultural ________ is a way to view cultural _________ as an ongoing process and not an end product. The construct suggests you need lifelong commitment to self-evaluation; fix power imbalances where they should not exist; and develop partnerships to advocate for others.

A

humility; competency

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75
Q

_________ implies that we are all genetically and biologically similar - “biological sameness” (i.e., we all need air, food, and water).

A

universal culture

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76
Q

________ can determine our language, political views, and laws

A

national culture

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77
Q

_________ gives us the behavior for a certain region

A

regional culture

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78
Q

_________ where factors such as earthquakes, floods, and food supply may influence our behavior

A

ecological culture

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79
Q

_________ occurs when one race views itself as superior to others. A given race has a set of genetically transmitted characteristics such as white, African American, or Asian.

A

Racism

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80
Q

_________ means that a given group sees itself as the standard by which other ethnic groups are measured.

A

ethnocentrism

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81
Q

In the ______ approach the counselor helps the client understand their culture. In the _____ approach the counselor focuses on the similarities in people; treating people as being the same.

A

emic; etic

**M = me/I
T = those/others
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82
Q

_______ implies that the counselor helps the client change to cope with their environment.

A

autoplastic

**auto = 1 person (autobiography)

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83
Q

_______ occurs when the counselor has the client try to change the environment

A

alloplastic

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84
Q

______ and nosological systems such as the DSM can have a Eurocentric or Euro-American bias

A

tests

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85
Q

_________ implies that the client’s tone of voice, loudness, vocal inflections, and speed of delivery, silence, and hesitation must be taken into consideration. It is part of the study of nonverbal communication and is usually considered more accurate than verbal communication.

A

paralanguage

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86
Q

_________ communication implies that there will be a precise explicit verbal explanation and possibly repetition such as summarizing at the end of a class, meeting, or group therapy session. Popular in the US, UK, Canada, and Germany.

A

low context

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87
Q

_________ communication is implicit. It is common in the Middle East, Italy, Spain, and Asian countries. It relies on nonverbal over verbal, respect for tradition and the past, and is readily understood by others in the culture with a shared frame of reference.

A

high context

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88
Q

_________ is the act of thinking that all people of a group are alike. Can be good or bad.

A

stereotyping

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89
Q

_________ occurs when we have an opinion based on insufficient evidence.

A

prejudice

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90
Q

_________ is the notion that psychologically healthy people possess both masculine and feminine characteristics.

A

androgynous/androgyny

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91
Q

________ addresses the issue of personal space, also known as spatial relations. Communication and social relations are impacted by this.

A

proxemics

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92
Q

_________ theory, popularized by early research by Festinger, postulates that we evaluate our behaviors and accomplishments by comparing ourselves to others.

A

social comparison

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93
Q

Festinger is also well known for his ___________ theory asserting that individuals will change their beliefs to match their behavior when there is a mismatch. This reduces the tension created by the initial inconsistency.

A

cognitive dissonance

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94
Q

_________ is to acknowledge information that supports your point of view and ignore that which does not.

A

confirmation bias

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95
Q

Counselors strive to understand a client’s ________ (the way the client sees the world due to attitudes, value systems, an beliefs).

A

worldview

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96
Q

__________ factors must be taken into account when counseling clients.

A

socioeconomic

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97
Q

The statement “misery loves company” is often true according to ________.

A

Schachter

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98
Q

_________ theory asserts that people from other cultures would do well to forget about their heritage and try to become like those in the dominant macroculture.

A

Anglo-Conformity

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99
Q

5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model:

stage 1: _________ = lean toward dominant culture and prefer a counselor from the dominant culture

A

conformity

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100
Q

5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model:

stage 2: _________ = question and confusion, prefer a counselor from a minority group

A

dissonance

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101
Q

5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model:

stage 3: __________ = reject the dominant culture while accepting one’s own culture

A

resistance and immersion

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102
Q

5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model:

stage 4: __________ = mixed feelings related to the previous stage, prefer a counselor from one’s own racial/ethnic group

A

introspection

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103
Q

5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model:

stage 5: _________ = stop racial and cultural oppression, prefers a counselor with a similar attitude or worldview over merely a counselor who is the same race/ethnicity, but has different beliefs.

A

synergetic articulation and awareness

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104
Q

In the 5-Stage Atkinson, Morten, & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) - aka Minority Identity Model _______________.

A

not everyone goes through all stages and some individuals never progress beyond the second or third stage. An individual can also go backward.

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105
Q

________ may be used to describe the view that women are subservient to men and that men are expected to provide for the family.

A

machismo

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106
Q

The _________ experiment: a situation can control behavior as well as assigned roles, such as telling subjects to be a guard or a prisoner. Would not be ethical today.

A

Stanford Prison Experiment

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107
Q

The ________ experiment: two opposing groups of boys ended up working together because they were both attempting to solve the same problem (called superordinate goal).

A

Robbers’ Cave (Sherif)

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108
Q

The ________ experiment: in a social or group situation people would sell out and agree with the opinions of others about the length of the line even when they knew the individuals were clearly wrong.

A

Solomon Asch Situation (1950s studies regarding conformity based on the length of a line)

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109
Q

The _________ experiment: the greater the number of people in a group, the LESS likely they are to assist a person in need (and will be slower if they do intervene)!

A

Darley & Latane (bystander effect/apathy)

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110
Q

The ________ experiment: 65% of subjects gave painful electrical shocks to innocent victims when instructed to do so by an authority figure. Some experts insist this could explain the Holocaust.

A

Stanley Milgram (1963 Obedience to authority experiment)

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111
Q

Research illuminates that the __________ contributes to 30% of the client outcome.

A

therapeutic relationship

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112
Q

Freud’s Psychodynamic Psychoanalysis is a ___________. It it long-term. This form of therapy is said to be historic since it focuses on the past.

A

theory of personality & a form of psychotherapy

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113
Q

Freud’s Psychodynamic Psychoanalysis

Patient is asked to engage in _________, which is saying whatever comes to mind.

A

free association

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114
Q

Freud’s Psychodynamic Psychoanalysis

_______ are very important and generally viewed as a process for wish fulfillment. Research does not support this notion.

A

dreams

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115
Q

Freud’s Psychodynamic Psychoanalysis

__________ is examined.

A

unconscious material

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116
Q

_________ emphasized ego defense mechanisms:

repression, displacement, projection, reaction formation, sublimation, rationalization, identification, suppression or denial

A

Freud

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117
Q

________ = something that is too painful for face is totally forgotten (not aware you are doing this)

A

repression

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118
Q

________ = taking your anger out on a safe target rather than the source of your anger

A

displacement

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119
Q

________ = you can’t accept a quality about yourself so you attribute it to others (i.e., you think you’re looking out a window but you are really looking in a mirror)

A

projection

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120
Q

_________ = you deny an unacceptable unconscious impulse by acting in the opposite manner

A

reaction formation

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121
Q

________ = express an unacceptable impulse in a socially acceptable manner

A

sublimation

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122
Q

_________ = when a person overrates or underrates a reward or outcome

A

rationalization

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123
Q

_________ = joining a feared person (such as a gang) to relieve your anxiety

A

identification

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124
Q

_________ = when you purposely don’t think of a situation

A

suppression or denial

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125
Q

The discharge of repressed emotions is called _________.

A

abreaction or catharsis

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126
Q

According to Freud’s structural theory, the personality has 3 systems:

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = morals, houses conscience and ego ideal
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = reality principle that balances the id and superego
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = biological forces, especially sex and aggression.  Operates on the pleasure principle striving for immediate gratification
A

superego
ego
id

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127
Q

______ is the life instinct

______ is the death instinct

A

eros

thanatos

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128
Q

Carl Jung’s Analytic (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Unconscious has 2 parts: Personal unconscious & collective unconscious

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = similar to what Freud postulated 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = composed of archetypes passed down through the ages (common to all people).
A

personal unconscious

collective unconscious

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129
Q

Carl Jung’s Analytic (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Archetypes include…
________ = a social mask the person wears
________ = masculine side of the female
________ = feminine side of the male
Individuals are said to be ___________, having both male & female characteristics.
________ = dark side of the personality related to animal instincts

A
persona
animus
anima
androgynous
shadow
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130
Q

Carl Jung’s Analytic (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

The ______ is symbolized via a mandala or a balance between the personal unconscious and the collective unconscious.

A

self

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131
Q

Carl Jung’s Analytic (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Jung created the ____________ typologies. He felt that we possess both; however, one is dominant. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) has its roots in this work.

A

extroversion/introversion

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132
Q

Carl Jung’s Analytic (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

__________ was Jung’s term for becoming a unique human being.

A

individuation

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133
Q

Adler’s Individual (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Adler’s approach focuses on the fact that the behavior is one’s unconscious attempt to compensate for feelings of __________. An individual constructs a lifestyle which is chosen.

A

inferiority

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134
Q

Adler’s Individual (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Adler stressed the “__________” to generate feelings of superiority.

A

“will to power”

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135
Q

Adler’s Individual (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

The theory adheres to the principle of __________ or the notion that behavior is motivated primarily by future opportunities rather than the past.

A

fictional finalism

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136
Q

Adler’s Individual (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Adler felt __________ (also called place in the family constellation) was important.

1st born children are conservative leaders.
2nd born children tend to be more competitive and rebellious.
Sibling interaction can have a greater impact than parent-child interaction.

A

birth order

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137
Q

Adler’s Individual (Psychodynamic) Psychology:

Since Adler felt behavior is highly influenced by future goals rather than one’s past, this is a ____________.

A

teleological theory

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138
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Newer exams often refer to behavior modification as __________.

A

applied behavior analysis (ABA)

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139
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

ABA looks at observable behavior, rather than __________.

A

hypothetical constructs.

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140
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

The key concept is that behavior is ____________.

A

learned and not pathological

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141
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Watson coined the word “__________” while Lazarus created the term “___________”.

A

behaviorism; behavior therapy

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142
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

The __________ of behavior therapy are that is does not yield insight, it treats symptoms not the root cause, and it can be manipulative and often changes behavior but not underlying feelings.

A

criticisms

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143
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

___________ purports that behavior is molded solely by its CONSEQUENCES. This paradigm is known as operant or instrumental conditioning.

A

B. F. Skinner’s radical behaviorism

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144
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

A _________ reinforcer is a stimulus that raises the probability that a behavior will be repeated. The reinforcer must come after the behavior (or operant).

A

positive

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145
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ reinforcers also raise behavior. For example, a recruit in the military makes a bunk bed to avoid being yelled at by a drill instructor. All reinforcers, whether positive or negative, raise behavior. All reinforcers are said to follow or come AFTER a behavior.

A

negative

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146
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

________ speaks of social learning theory. Here the person’s own behavior increases when they see somebody else getting reinforced for it; also referred to as vicarious learning or modeling.

A

Bandura

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147
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ is intended to lower behavior by suppressing it.

A

punishment

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148
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Behaviorists champion _________ (e.g., assertive behavior).

A

role-playing

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149
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ will lower behavior after an initial extinction burst or response burst.

A

extinction

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150
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

________ schedules of reinforcement rely on work output, whereas ________ schedules rely on time. Ratio schedules are ________ effective than interval schedules.

A

ratio; interval; more

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151
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ reinforcement occurs when each behavior is reinforced. Good when first learning a new behavior.

A

continuous

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152
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

__________ reinforcement occurs some of the time, but not all of the times the desired behaviors are reinforced. This type of reinforcement is MORE effective than a fixed schedule where you always reinforce in the same manner.

A

intermittent or variable

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153
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

________ with successive approximations is reinforcing small chunks of behavior that lead to the desired behavior.

A

shaping

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154
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

__________ reinforcement of other/alternative behavior (DRO/DRA) takes place when the helper reinforces behaviors other than the dysfunctional behavior to reduce the dysfunctional target behavior (e.g., you want a child to quit talking in class so you give them a gold star only when they are doing their work and not talking). This procedure relies on reinforcement AND extinction.

A

differential

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155
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

In Skinnerian __________, the behavior is affected by the consequences that come after the behavior.

A

operant conditioning

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156
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

________ popularized what is now known as classical conditioning.

A

Ivan Pavlov

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157
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Behavior modification/applied behavior analysis is generally based on ________, while behavior therapy usually has its roots in __________.

A

Skinner; Pavlov

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158
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Interventions based on __________ conditioning include:

  • sensate focus (sex therapy)
  • systematic desensitization
  • flooding (aka in vivo exposure with response prevention or deliberate exposure with response prevention)
  • implosive therapy
  • assertiveness training
A

classical

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159
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

__________ conditioning = learning by pairing things together

A

classical/respondent

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160
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ conditioning based on the work of Skinner & Thorndike = learning by consequences occurring after a behavior

A

operant

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161
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Wolpe’s __________ can be conducted individually or in a group to curb fears and abate anxiety. This technique relies on relaxation and imagining feared stimuli. Newer research has revealed that this is a form of extinction.

A

systematic desensitization

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162
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

Behaviorists may also use _________ therapy where the client imagines scary or feared stimuli in the safety of the counselor’s office.

A

implosive

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163
Q

Behaviorism, Behavior Modification, and Behavior Therapy:

_________ devices are used to enhance the client’s self-control of the autonomic nervous system. Examples include heart rate or brain waves. This is a form of OPERANT conditioning.

A

biofeedback

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164
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

3 conditions for effective helping…

  1. _________
  2. ________
  3. display ________
A

show empathy
be genuine/congruent
unconditional positive regard

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165
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

_________ created a five-point empathy scale with a level-five response as the best response.

A

Carkhuff

166
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

Counselor strives to improve __________ so that the person is more like their ideal self.

A

congruence

167
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

Rogerians are not big fans of traditional diagnosis and testing. Moreover, they do not believe in the _________. Humans can control their own behavior.

A

unconscious

168
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

Critics are concerned that this approach is too _________ and may not be the treatment of choice for severely disturbed individuals or very young children.

A

optimistic

169
Q

Roger’s Person-Centered Humanistic Therapy:

Natalie Rogers, Carl Roger’s daughter, created ____________. This method strives to generate a creative connection with inner feelings via such things as movement, sound, art, writing, and journaling, which are shared with the helper.

A

person-centered expressive arts therapy (PCEA)

170
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

This is a ___________ form of therapy. Change your thinking (cognitions) and you can change your life.

A

cognitive-behavioral

171
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

________ beliefs are replaced by _______ beliefs via the counseling process.

A

irrational; rational

172
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

Uses the ABC or ABCDE model of personality.

A = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ event 
B = client's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ system 
C = emotional \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
D = counselor \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the irrational belief at B
E = new \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ consequence that occurs when B becomes rational
A
activating 
belief
consequence 
disputes
emotional
173
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

Humans have an innate tendency to think in an irrational, illogical, unscientific manner. Thought is referred to as ___________.

A

self-talk or internal verbalizations

174
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

Shoulds, oughts, musts, terriblizing, and awfulizing causes __________.

A

irrational thought

175
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

This is an active directive form of therapy utilizing lots of _____________.

A

homework, bibliotherapy, and even rational imagery (RI)

176
Q

Ellis’s Active Directive Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT):

________ of this approach insist that it does not emphasize the counselor client relationship, feelings, and that REBT is mechanistic or sterile. It may be too complex for those with psychosis or thought disorders.

A

critics

177
Q

Beck’s Cognitive Therapy:

This therapy is similar to REBT, emphasizing that the client has __________ which are distortions of reality such as…

  • polarized black and white thinking
  • overgeneralizing based on a single event
  • personalization (wrongly attributing an event to yourself and drawing conclusions without real evidence)
A

automatic thoughts

178
Q

Beck’s Cognitive Therapy:

________ as confrontational as Ellis/REBT.

A

NOT

179
Q

Beck’s Cognitive Therapy:

_________ is sometimes employed.

A

socratic questioning

180
Q

Beck’s Cognitive Therapy:

Clients are urged to keep a record of __________.

A

dysfunctional thoughts

181
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

This experiential/existential approach focuses on the ___________ in an attempt to help the client become whole again.

A

here and now

182
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

Gestalt is an experiential form of therapy and it relies on __________.

A

dream work, role-playing, confrontation, the top dog/underdog concept, hot seat, and the empty chair technique

183
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

Modern gestalt therapists are not as abrupt with clients as Perls was. The therapy is now considered a ________ treatment.

A

softer, gentler

184
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

Gestalt is a German word that basically means “_________”. The view of human nature is that humans want to be self-actualized and complete (whole).

A

organized whole

185
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

_______ are the royal road to integration. Counselor asks client to recount the dream as if it is occurring in the present moment.

A

dreams

186
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

___________ questions are used more than why questions (e.g., what is your foot doing now?”).

A

what & how

187
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

Goal is for the client to take responsibility and achieve _________ in the here and now. Doing is emphasized over just ___________.

A

awareness; talking about problems

188
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

___________ helped develop the approach and made it more popular with women in therapy.

A

Laura Perls (Fritz Perls’s wife)

189
Q

Fritz Perls’s Gestalt Therapy:

________ charge that this approach is “gimmicky”, puts little or no stock in diagnosis and psychological testing, and at times it “antitheoretical”. On occasion, the approach can lead to self-centeredness.

A

Critics

190
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

A here-and-now approach that took Freudian terminology and made it __________.

A

fun and easy to understand

191
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

The theory takes into account transactions between individuals. It is often combined with ________ therapy.

A

gestalt

192
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

TA is a ________ approach.

A

cognitive

193
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

TA insists that the person unconsciously develops a life plan at an early age called a __________.

A

life script

194
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

_________ assumes the person is at least partially living the preprogrammed script. The script concept is also used in narrative therapy.

A

script analysis

195
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

Ego states are the…

These states roughly correspond to Freud’s superego, ego, and id.

A
parent = superego
adult = ego
child = id
196
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

Uses __________. I’m ok, you’re ok (healthy); I’m ok, you’re not ok; i’m not ok, you’re ok; and i’m not ok, you’re not ok.

A

Tom Harris’s life positions

197
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

Games a played to avoid __________. Somebody is always hurt in a game.

A

intimacy

198
Q

Berne’s Transactional Analysis (TA):

___________ = a person changes their position from victim to persecutor to rescuer during discussion

A

Karpman’s drama triangle

199
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

This therapy focuses on ________ behavior. Clients are taught that they create their own personal reality with the behaviors they choose.

A

present

200
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

Glasser believes that “behavior is the control of our perceptions” and that a __________ is the result of being loved and accepted.

A

success identity

201
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

Glasser has been criticized for downplaying the role of the _________ in terms of impacting ethnic minorities.

A

environment

202
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

Reality therapy have also been deemed “weak” in terms of not dealing with ___________.

A

dreams, the past, or traumatic memories

203
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

According to Glasser, psychiatric medicines are _________.

A

not the answer

204
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

The 8 steps of reality therapy:

  1. build a _________ with the client
  2. focus on _________ behavior
  3. help the client to __________ their current behavior
  4. develop a contract with an __________
  5. have the client _________ to the plan
  6. accept no _________
  7. do not use _________
  8. refuse to __________
A
relationship
present moment
evaluate 
action plan
commit
excuses
punishment 
give up on your client
205
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

The approach emphasizes _________ treatment and is very _________.

A

short-term; concrete

206
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

Psychological needs include ___________.

A

belonging, power, freedom, and fun

207
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

Robert Wubbolding expanded the theory with his introduction of WDEP.

W = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (belonging, freedom, fun, belonging, power, and independence)
D = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (is the client doing something to take them in the best direction?)
E = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (how is the behavior working for the client?)
P = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (should be immediate, attainable, and measurable)
A

wants
direction and doing
evaluation or self-evaluation
plan

208
Q

Glasser’s Reality Therapy with Choice Theory:

__________ of reality therapy is a bit too simplistic, does not take into account developmental stages, and has changed its focus over the years.

A

criticisms

209
Q

Lynn Rehm’s Self-Control Therapy:

This is a self-control ________ paradigm of therapy which relies on self-monitoring, evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

A

behavioristic

210
Q

Hypnosis:

_______ for pain, insomnia, anxiety, and habit control such as overeating and smoking.

A

helpful

211
Q

Hypnosis:

Can be used to elicit _________, however, the memories are often dubbed as “pseudomemories”, meaning they are not accurate.

A

memories

212
Q

Feminist/Non-Sexist Therapy:

No single theorist is the founder. Has its origins in the ___________ of the 1960s.

A

women’s movement

213
Q

Feminist/Non-Sexist Therapy:

Some similarities to _________ counseling.

A

multicultural

214
Q

Feminist/Non-Sexist Therapy:

A strong ________ on women’s rights, sex-role stereotyping, and the oppression of women.

A

focus

215
Q

Feminist/Non-Sexist Therapy:

Approach postulates that most therapies have an __________ (centered on men) and are not ideal and sometimes harmful to women.

A

androcentric bias

216
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Social constructionism emphasizes that realities are __________.

A

socially constructed

217
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

________ therapy & ________ therapy are constructivist approaches.

A

brief; narrative

218
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

________ therapy postulates that individuals construct their lives by stories they tell and about themselves and stories others create about them. Stories create meaning and this becomes the client’s identity.

A

Narrative

219
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

In _________ therapy, sessions consist of the client describing their life experiences and then rewriting the narrative in a new way.

A

narrative

220
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

A narrative therapist _________ the problem in their progress notes and sends it to the client as a letter between sessions.

A

externalizes

221
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

In __________ therapy, rather than the counselor saying “you are a cocaine addict”, they would say “cocaine has been trying to wreck your life.”

A

narrative

222
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

The narrative therapist sees themself as a _________ with the client. Some cultures want an expert therapist, and thus this can sometimes create a problem for multicultural counseling.

A

consultant/collaborator

223
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Narrative therapy is often recommended (with or without CBT) for working with ________ and _________ who want to tell their stories. Journaling works well with this population and more disclosure is generally possible in individual rather than group sessions.

A

refugees and immigrants

224
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

___________ counselors should allow the clients to choose the language spoken in the interview and language switching is often appropriate.

A

bilingual

225
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Solution-focused brief therapy (SFBT) was created by __________.

A

Steve de Shazer & Insoo Kim Berg

226
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Narrative therapy was created by ___________.

A

Michael White & David Epston

227
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

SFBT focuses on _________ and NOT on an understanding of the problem. The focus is on exceptions to the rule – what is working.

A

solutions

228
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

_________ therapy uses so-called exception questions: a client who is depressed is asked, “when aren’t you depressed?”.

A

SFBT

229
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

In SFBT, goals are ___________.

A

small & realistic

230
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

The miracle question is a ________ technique.

A

SFBT

231
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

SFBT also uses ___________. This is a homework assignment given after the first session.

A

formula first session task (FFST)

232
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Recently, ________ has gained popularity in group treatment settings.

A

SFBT

233
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

__________ is becoming the norm in many instances since managed care firms often restrict the number of sessions the client can attend.

A

Brief therapy

234
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

Psychotherapy integration was created by __________.

A

Frederick Thorne

235
Q

Postmodern Social Constructivist Theories:

___________ uses strategies from a number of counseling schools. Instead of merely using techniques from the approaches in eclecticism, this approach assumes that using or integrating 2 or more theories will often produce results that are superior to a single school of therapy.

A

psychotherapy integration

236
Q

Family Counseling:

The client is the ________ and NOT the identified patient.

A

family

237
Q

Family Counseling:

Family therapists believe in _________ rather than linear causality.

A

circular

238
Q

Family Counseling:

___________ occurs when a client makes a superficial change to deal with a problem, but the change does not alter the underlying structure of the family.

_________ alters the underlying structure and thus makes a difference that is longer lasting.

A

first-order change; second-order change

239
Q

Family Counseling:

_________ feedback loops are not necessarily bad, but keep the family in homeostasis and functioning the way the family always has.

________ feedback loops induce change in the family system.

A

negative; positive

240
Q

__________ takes place when several helpers from the same agency or different agencies work together without duplicating services to help an individual client.

A

case integration

241
Q

_________ therapy urges helpers to change the client’s entire environment (social and physical) to help the client. Hence, treatment is not limited to counseling sessions. In most instances, this takes place in inpatient treatment facilities.

A

Milieu

242
Q

Famous Family Therapists:

________ used the psychoanalytic or psychodynamic approach.

A

Ackerman

243
Q

Famous Family Therapists:

Experimental conjoint family therapist _________ popularized the notion that in times of stress, family members use 4 inept patterns of communication.

  1. __________ (tries to please everyone)
  2. __________
  3. __________ (who intellectualizes)
  4. __________ (interrupts and changes the topic to something irrelevant)
A

Virginia Satir

  1. placator
  2. blamer
  3. reasonable analyzer
  4. irrelevant distractor
244
Q

Famous Family Therapists:

Experimentalist _________ could be very wild, radical, and creative, and often utilized a co-therapist.

A

Carl Whitaker

245
Q

Famous Family Therapists:

__________ is a key name in intergenerational therapy. His approach is often referred to as extended family systems therapy.

A

Murray Bowen

246
Q

Bowen Family Therapy:

________ occurs when two people who are stressed, bring in a third party to reduce the dyad’s stress level and restore equilibrium.

A

triangulation

247
Q

Bowen Family Therapy:

________ are actually graphic diagrams of the family from a minimum of 3 generations.

A

genograms

248
Q

Bowen Family Therapy:

________ is a blurring of the psychological boundaries between the self and others. A person driven by fusion can’t separate thinking and feeling well.

A

fusion

249
Q

Bowen Family Therapy:

__________ is the ability to control reason over emotion. People often secure their level of this from a multigenerational transmission process.

A

differentiation

250
Q

Structural Family Therapy:

________ is the leading name behind structural family therapy.

A

Salvador Minuchin

251
Q

Structural Family Therapy:

_______ or blending in with the family is used. The therapist uses a popular strategy of this, known as ________, to imitate or copy the family’s communication and patterns.

A

joining; mimesis

252
Q

Structural Family Therapy:

The therapy proposes that changes in the family system, subsystems, and family organization must take place in order for individual family members to ___________.

A

resolve their systems

253
Q

Structural Family Therapy:

Structural therapy is ________ and performed in the _________.

A

directive; here and now

254
Q

Strategic Family Counseling:

_________ are powerful names in this therapy (also referred to as the MRI model and the communications model).

A

Jay Haley & Cloe Madanes

255
Q

Strategic Family Counseling:

In this paradigm, the therapist gives directives or prescriptions, often __________ (e.g., telling a client who is afraid he will shake, to shake as much as he can).

A

paradoxical

256
Q

Strategic Family Counseling:

__________ problems is common in this modality.

A

reframing/relabeling

257
Q

Strategic Family Counseling:

This approach warns us that _________ (e.g., a parent telling a child she loves her while beating her severely) could cause serious psychopathology, even schizophrenia.

A

double-bind communication

258
Q

__________ is used when a client is experiencing an expected NORMAL reaction to stress. Therapy, on the other hand, is aimed at reducing abnormal & pathological behaviors and symptoms.

A

crisis intervention

259
Q

__________ uses a treatment team with a one-way mirror.

A

Milan Model

260
Q

________ is known as the father of mental health consultation.

A

Gerald Caplan

261
Q

Edgar Schein’s Models:

_________ = where you buy the person’s information and knowledge

_________ = you aren’t sure what the problem is, so you hire an expert to diagnose and treat it

_________ = the consultant helps the consultee with the process

A

expertise model
doctor-patient model
process consultation model

262
Q

_________ models focus on the process, while _______ models focus on the imparting knowledge to the consultee.

A

process; content

263
Q

Brain Chemicals & Neurotransmitters Related to Neuroscience:

_________ = mood

Most prescription medicines given to clients for mental health issues impact serotonin (e.g., SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) drugs or the old tricycle antidepressants).

A

serotonin

264
Q

Brain Chemicals & Neurotransmitters Related to Neuroscience:

_________ = excess is thought to fuel schizophrenia, while very low levels are implicated in Parkinson’s disease. Some experts believe addictive behaviors such as gambling can flood the brain with dopamine.

A

dopamine

265
Q

Brain Chemicals & Neurotransmitters Related to Neuroscience:

_________ = is a trace mineral or rare earth. It helps stabilize mood, especially in clients with bipolar conditions. An excess caused by prescription dosages can cause liver damage or tremors.

A

lithium

266
Q

The _______ hemisphere of the brain is logical, verbal, and analytic, but the ______ hemisphere is emotional, creative, and artistic. This notion is still controversial.

A

left; right

267
Q

The _________ or balance of good bacteria (such as probiotics) and bad bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract can affect our mood, digestion, and general health. This is sometimes called the gut-brain connection.

A

microbiome

268
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

________ = xanax, librim, klonopin ativan, and valium

A

anxiety (benzodiazepines)

269
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = prozac, zoloft, luvox, celexa, paxil, and lexapro (SSRIs), cymbalta, pristiq, and effexor (SNRIs), elavil, tofranil, and pamelor (TCAs)

A

depression

270
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = ritalin, concerta, adderall, vyvanse (adderall& vyvanse also used for binge eating)

A

ADHD

271
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = risperdal, zyprexa, lithobid, depakote, tegretol, and lithium

A

bipolar

272
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = prozac, paxil, luvox, zoloft, anafranil, effexor

A

OCD

273
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = ativan & paxil

A

panic disorder

274
Q

Popular Psychiatric Medicines:

_______ = abilify, geodon, risperdal, clorzaril, and zyprexa

A

antipsychotic/schizophrenia

275
Q

Group Counseling:

A major name in group therapy is existential expert and psychiatrist __________.

A

Irvin Yalom

276
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. _________ = giving help to others gives members a sense of well-being.
A

altruism

277
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. _________ = simply the notion that you are not the only one in the world with a particular problem
A

universality

278
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. __________ = members expect the group to work
A

installation of hope

279
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. _________ = talking about your difficulties is beneficial
A

catharsis

280
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. _________ = sense of we-ness
A

group cohesiveness

281
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = members copy or model the leader and the other members
A

imitative behavior

282
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = group helps abet family origin issues and feelings and the group allows you to work through them
A

family reenactment

283
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = can be advice or even psychodynamic insights
A

imparting information

284
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = members receive feedback regarding how their behavior affects others
A

interpersonal learning

285
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = such as feedback and instruction are helpful
A

socialization techniques

286
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom’s 11 Reasons Groups Work So Well…

  1. ________ = for example discovering that life can have meaning even if it is seemingly unjust and unfair at times
A

existential factors

287
Q

Group Counseling:

Yalom is a proponent of working in the here and now and emphasizes the __________ is a powerful ingredient.

A

therapeutic alliance

288
Q

Group Counseling:

Ideal group size is _______ members, with 8 being preferable.

Groups that are conducted for a long time (6 months or more) can function effectively with up to ____ members.

Size should be ______ with children.

_________ can refer to the length of the group sessions or how long the group will run.

A

5 or 6 - 8

10

smaller

duration

289
Q

Group Counseling:

________ of co-leaders…

  • having two role models (perhaps 2 genders)
  • more feedback
  • one leader can deal with the client is there is transference
  • two leaders can better see what is transpiring in the group
A

Advantages

290
Q

Group Counseling:

_______ of co-leaders…

  • leaders can work at cross-purposes
  • may have conflicting models of therapy
  • could be in a power struggle
  • may each decide to charge the client a different fee
A

Disadvantages

291
Q

Group Counseling:

Most experts believe in the stage models to explain development and dynamics.

  1. ________ stage = getting acquainted
  2. ________ stage = characterized by power struggles for control and resistance, and some members will rate their satisfaction as lower
  3. ________ stage = group works toward goals in a cohesive manner
  4. ________ stage = members must deal with saying good-bye
A
  1. initial/forming/orientation
  2. transition/conflict/storming
  3. working/productive/performing/action
  4. termination/closure/completion/mourning/adjourning
292
Q

Group Counseling:

Members often experience feelings of __________. Referrals for additional intervention may be prescribed.

A

improved insight, awareness, accomplishment, and enhanced self-esteem

293
Q

Group Counseling:

Group member roles that are ________ include helping others and being a stellar role model.

Other roles, such as monopolizing the group, intellectualizing too much, being silent, or attacking others are considered __________.

The _________ is the member who is blamed for the group’s problems. This term is also used in family therapy.

A

positive
negative
scapegoat

294
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

Adept group leaders model appropriate behavior to enhance participation. This is especially important with __________ clients.

A

resistant

295
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

Leaders rely on a strategy called _______ to determine how rapidly the group progresses.

A

pacing

296
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

__________ style = advocates making decisions for members. It is appropriate during crisis or when a quick decision is in order but in MOST situations it will foster resentment.

A

autocratic / authoritarian

297
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

_________ style = leader has little involvement. This approach is appropriate when all members are very committed to a group outcome or goal.

A

Laissez Faire / hands-off

298
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

_________ style = allows input from members, including input into the decisions made. This is generally the best style.

A

democratic

299
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

_________ style = leaders are often seen as charismatic. They rely on their personal power and charisma to move the group in a desirable direction. They are often adorned and group members look up to them, though they are not peer oriented.

A

speculative

300
Q

Group Leadership Styles:

________ style = the leader reveals the impact that their own behavior has on themself as well as the impact that other group members have on them.

A

confrontive

301
Q

Types Of Groups:

__________ = provide members with information relevant to their situation

A

psychoeducational / old name guidance groups

302
Q

Types Of Groups:

_________ = focus on conscious issues related to personal growth and development

A

counseling groups

303
Q

Types Of Groups:

________ = (term coined by Moreno) can focus on unconscious material, the past, and personality change

A

group therapy

304
Q

Types Of Groups:

________ = often intended for business or personal motivation

A

T-Groups (training groups)

305
Q

Types Of Groups:

_______ = centered around certain issues, such as shyness or how to prepare for a job interview

A

structured groups

306
Q

Types Of Groups:

_______ = not led by a professional. These groups have been dubbed as support groups and for those that follow the AA model are often called 12-step groups.

A

self-help / mutual help / support groups

307
Q

Group Counseling:

_________ bias in relation to groups = when the groups is productive or successful the person takes credit for it, but when the group is unproductive or not successful, it is the fault of others.

A

self-serving attribution

308
Q

Group Counseling:

The ________ phenomenon is when members make more risky decisions in a group than they would on an individual basis.

________ suggests that members of a group make more extreme decisions than they would individually.

A

risky shift

group polarity

309
Q

Group Counseling:

_________ guidelines are intended to specifically help counselors apply ACA’s Code of Ethics to group work. The guidelines stipulate a leader should have an evaluation plan to meet the requirements of organizations, regulatory bodies, and insurance companies when appropriate.

A

ASGW Best Practice

310
Q

Group Counseling:

_________ are NOT required to participate in an exercise or experiential activity and can quit during the experience. It is the leader’s job to clarify this upfront; however, the leader should explore why a participant did not wish to participate.

A

Group members

311
Q

Group Counseling:

________ exercises are not recommended and could cause negative feelings in some members.

A

forced touching

312
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ was the author of the seminal work in the field, “Choosing A Vocation”. This proposed the _________ theory.

The client needs to know…

  1. personal attributes & interests or traits
  2. appropriate occupations should be investigated
  3. match the client’s traits to the occupation
A

Frank Parsons

trait-and-factor theory (matching or actuarial approach)

313
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ expanded the trait-and-factor approach.

He proposed 6 steps:

  1. analysis
  2. synthesis
  3. diagnosis
  4. prognosis
  5. counseling
  6. follow-up
A

E. G. Williamson

314
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

The _______ approach makes the assumption that there is a single best career goal for everyone. Many experts disagree.

A

trait-and-factor

315
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ created a psychodynamic needs approach.

Jobs meet our needs determined by our childhood satisfactions and frustrations.

Occupations are categorized by ____ levels and ____ fields.

A

Anne Roe

6; 8

316
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ proposed a developmental theory in the 1950s with 3 periods…

  1. fantasy (birth - 11yrs)
  2. tentative (11-17 yrs)
  3. realistic (17 urs and up)
A

Ginzberg & associates

317
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

David Tiedeman & Robert O’Hara rely on a _________ approach. In their model, career development is commensurate with psychosocial development as delineated with Erik Erikson’s stages.

A

developmental

318
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

Donald Super is well known for emphasizing the role of the _________ in career and vocation choice and his __________.

A

self-concept; life rainbow

319
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

________ personality typology theory.

6 personality types…

  1. realistic
  2. investigative
  3. artistic
  4. social
  5. enterprising
  6. conventional
    * *RIASEC

He is also known for assessment tools: the Self-Directed Search, My Vocational Situation, and the Vocational Preference Inventory.

A

John Holland’s

320
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ theorized that career decision was based on social learning theory. Today, _______ leans toward behaviorism in general.

Four factors that impact career choice:

  1. genetics & special abilities
  2. the environment and special events
  3. learning experiences
  4. task-approach problem-solving skills
A

John Krumboltz, Anita Mitchell, and G. Brian Jones; Krumboltz

321
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ emphasized circumscription (the process of narrowing the acceptable alternatives) and compromise (realization that the client will not be able to implement their most preferred choices).

The client adjusts aspirations to accommodate things like hiring practices, family obligations, or educational programs.

People sacrifice _______ rather than sex-type or prestige.

Theory was created in the early 1980’s.

A

Linda Gottfredson

interests

322
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ created by Lent, Brown, and Hackett helps complement other theories emphasizing the role of self-efficacy and cognitive processes.

A

Social cognitive career theory (SCCT)

323
Q

Lifestyle and Career Counseling Theories:

_________ uses techniques popularized by narrative therapy to create a postmodern constructivist approach.

A

Mark Savickas

324
Q

Career Choice:

_________ is a type of computer-assisted career guidance (CACG).

A

SIGI

325
Q

Career Choice:

When using a ________ the counselor should:

  1. Screen the client to make sure this modality and computer or online program is appropriate.
  2. Give the client an orientation to describe the pros and cons of the system.
  3. Follow-up to make sure an appropriate plan of action is evident.
A

computer-assisted career guidance (CACG).

326
Q

Career Choice:

The O*NET replaced the _______ which listed over 20,000 job titles with 9 digit codes.

A

DOT (Dictionary of Occupational Titles)

327
Q

Career Choice:

_________ provides job trends for the future with salaries, and can be accessed online.

A

OOH (Occupational Outlook Handbook)

328
Q

Career Choice:

_________’s book, “What Color if Your Parachute?”, is a useful tool for job hunting.

A

Richard Bolles’s

329
Q

Career Choice:

_____% of all jobs are not advertised, thus job seekers need to network. This is referred to as the _______ market.

A

80%; hidden job

330
Q

Career Choice:

Sex-wage discrimination/earnings gap:
women make _____ for each dollar earned by men.
________ women earn $0.68, and ________ women earn $0.60 for every dollar earned by white men.

A

$0.80; African American; Latina

331
Q

Career Choice:

Overall, _________ are avoiding career counseling services.

A

college students

332
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = when a person takes a job below their skill level, expertise, and training

A

underemployment

333
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = a person who is unemployed due to downsizing, a company relocation, or the company closed business

A

dislocated worker

334
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = women who enter or reenter the workforce after being at home. Often occurs after a divorce, death or partner, or having children.

A

displaced homemaker

335
Q

Career Choice:

________ = when U.S. companies rely on labor from another country in order to save money. Can result in fewer jobs in the U.S.

A

outsourcing

336
Q

Career Choice:

______ career counseling is a growing trend. Helpful, but not as much as face to face.

A

online

337
Q

Career Choice:

The average worker have ____ jobs by age 36.

A

9

338
Q

Career Choice:

In two parent families…

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = both parents work 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = no chance for advancement 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ = consists of a managerial or professional position with the possibility for advancement
A

dual-career/dual-income family
dual earner
dual career

339
Q

Career Choice:

Supervisors who rate workers often suffer from ________.

A

rater bias

340
Q

Career Choice:

__________ = when a supervisor rates majority of workers as average

A

central tendency bias

341
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = when a supervisor’s rating reflects primarily the worker’s recent performance rather than the entire rating period

A

recency effect

342
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = supervisor generalizing about an employee based on a single characteristic (e.g., employee who is attractive). Positive & negative versions of this is possible.

A

halo effect

343
Q

Career Choice:

Supervisors often rate workers _______ if they hired the worker.

A

higher

344
Q

Career Choice:

_________ = employees who share identical or similar jobs meet as a group to solve problems and find solutions to help management

A

quality circles

345
Q

Career Choice:

Job interviews, personality tests, and reference letters are NOT __________.

A

excellent predictors of whether a person will do well in a job

346
Q

Career Choice:

____________ interviews are usually better than unstructured job interviews.

A

structured job

347
Q

Career Choice:

__________ = if a job seeker is interviewed after a superb candidate they will not seem as desirable (and vice versa)

A

contrast effect

348
Q

Career Choice:

_________ don’t predict job success well, but they do predict job _________.

A

interest inventories; satisfaction

349
Q

Assessment & Testing:

Ideally, tests measure and provide valid & reliable data regarding your clients so you can ___________.

A

pick effective treatment modalities, referral, or placement

350
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ of tests:

  • can be faked
  • are mechanical
  • often measure irrelevant factors
  • can invade privacy
  • create prejudice in the sense that the counselor perceives the client differently
A

criticisms

351
Q

Assessment & Testing:

__________ have uniform procedures for scoring and administration. Additionally, these instruments have validity, reliability, and norm data which has been investigated and analyzed.

A

standardized tests

352
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ provide counselors with information on thousands of tests that have been critically analyzed.

A

Mental Measurements Yearbook (MMY) & Tests in Print (TIP)

353
Q

Assessment & Testing:

Raw scores can be converted to _________ (e.g., t-scores, z-scores, percentile rank, standard deviation, or stanine) so they can relate to a normal bell curve.

A

standard scores

354
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_______ is the highest score subtracted from the lowest score (some exams will add 1 to answer).

A

range

355
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ = tells what percent of scores are equal to or below the score you are investigating. Hence, a client who is at the 75th percentile scored equal to or better than 75% of the people who took the exam.

A

percentile rank

356
Q

Assessment & Testing:

3 measures of central tendency:

  1. _______ = arithmetic average (add all scores then divide by the number of scores you have)
  2. _______ = most frequently occurring score/category
  3. _______ = middle score when data is ranked from highest to lowest
A

mean
mode
median

357
Q

Assessment & Testing:

In a _________ the mean, mode, & median all have the same point in the center of the bell shape.

When a curve leans, it is ________.

If the tail points to the left it is _________, and if it points to the right it is __________.

A

normal curve

skewed

negatively skewed; positively skewed

358
Q

Assessment & Testing:

__________ is a measure of variability or dispersion of scores. (i.e., Are the scores bunched up close to the mean (average) OR are the scores spread out?)

A SD of 1 is a z-score (standard score) of 1.
A SD of -2 is a z-score of -2.

A

standard deviation

**think to deviate (disperse)

359
Q

Assessment & Testing:

________ have a mean of 50 and the SD is 10.

What is a t-score when the SD is 2? answer is 70 (add 20 to 50)
What is the t-score for a SD of -3? answer is 20 (subtract 30 from 50)

A

t-scores

**think T in t-scores = 10! SD is 10

360
Q

Assessment & Testing:

Areas under the normal curve you should commit to memory!!

68% of the scores will fall between +/-1 SD from the mean

95% of all scores will fall between +/-2 SD

99.7% of all scores between +/-3 SD

It is safe to say that virtually all scores fall between +/-3 SD of the mean. This is known as the ____________.

A

empirical 68-95-99.7 normal curve rule

361
Q

Assessment & Testing:

________ is the MOST important property of a psychological test. Does the test, test what is says it’s testing?

A

validity

362
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ = is the test consistency. Will it give the similar results if we administer it again and again?

A

reliability

363
Q

Assessment & Testing:

A _______ test is not always valid, but a ______ test is always reliable.

A

reliable; valid

364
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ reliability describes the consistency of 2 or more raters. If two counselors read the same test reports and come up with the same diagnosis then this is HIGH. If they come up with different diagnoses then it is low.

A

inter-rater

365
Q

Assessment & Testing:

A test that is only normed on the majority culture is not appropriate for __________ since it is misleading and could cause discrimination.

A

cultural minorities

366
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_______ can give a false positive or a false negative.

A

tests

367
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ tests predict _________.

A

aptitude; potential

368
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ tests give you the current accomplishments, what has been learned or the level of performance achieved up to this point in time.

A

achievement

369
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_______ tests such as the Wechsler or the Binet attempt to measure mental abilities. These tests are very controversial.

A

IQ

370
Q

Assessment & Testing:

In _______ tests time is not a factor like it is in speed tests.

A

power

371
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ tests = no correct answer. Client looks at an inkblot, vague picture, or incomplete sentence. Answer is assumed to be a projection of the client’s personality.

Scoring these tests is subjective. One rater could score it differently than another. (this is called inter-rater reliability)

A

projective

372
Q

Assessment & Testing:

__________ states that is a client scores exceptionally low or exceptionally high on a test, then the client with the low score will go up towards the mean the next time they take it (and vice versa).

A

regression to the mean

373
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ generally implies that a label is placed on the client using a classification system, generally the DSM as an assessment tool.

**insurance companies always want an ICD diagnosis.

A

diagnosis

374
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ assessments…

  • helps determine admissions/selection/placement to schools & treatment organizations
  • determine whether your client is making progress or not
A

reasons to use

375
Q

Assessment & Testing:

_________ tests generally reduce costs, provide immediate scoring, and cut risk of scoring errors.

However, these tests can have low validity and reliability.

A

computer-based

376
Q

Assessment & Testing:

____________ occurs when a test (like the NCE) is used to make important decisions about the future.

A

high-stakes assessment

377
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

When counselor integrate research into practice it is called __________.

A

Empirically Validated/Supported Treatment (EVT or EST)

378
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ is not the same as causality. _________ is simply an association. For example, the correlation between people who have an umbrella open and rain is very high, but opening your umbrella does not cause it to rain.

A

Correlation; correlation

379
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Correlations go from __________.

0 = no correlation
+1 & -1 = perfect correlations

  • *positive 0.5 correlation is NOT higher than -0.5
  • 0.8 is STRONGER than 0.5
A

-1, to 0, to 1

380
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

In a ________ correlation, when X goes up, Y goes up. EX: when you study more your GPA goes up

In a ________ correlation, when X goes up, Y goes down.
EX: the more you brush your teeth, the less cavities you will have.

A

positive

negative

381
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Research is _________ when one quantifies or measures things.

_________ research yields numbers.

_________ research does NOT use numerical data

A

quantitative

quantitative

qualitative

382
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

All research has flaws with it sometimes referred to as _________.

A

bubbles

383
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

__________ = 2 or more groups are used

A

true experiment

384
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

True experiments must have participants selected randomly. This is known as __________.

Participants also need to be randomly assigned to the control and experimental groups. This is known as _________.

_________ = where every nth person is chosen

A

random selection

random assignment

systematic sampling

385
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

When a researcher can NOT control the independent variable, then it is a ________ rather than a true experiment.

A

quasi

386
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

________ research is also referred to as a natural experiment does NOT ensure causality.

Advantages of this research include:
- gains external validity
- often not as artificial
However, it shows a loss in internal validity.

A

quasi experimental

387
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Outcome data in a study is called the __________.

EX: If we want to see if eating carrots raises one’s IQ then eating carrots is the IV while the IQ scores would be the DV.

A

dependent variable (DV).

388
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Each experiment has a null hypothesis and an experimental/alternative hypothesis.

_______ hypothesis = there is no significant different in people’s IQ who eat carrots and those who don’t eat them

_______ hypothesis = there is a significant difference between people’s IQ’s who do eat carrots vs. those who do not.

A

null

experimental/alternative

389
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

When a researcher rejects a null hypothesis that is true, it is a _________ error.

When a researcher accepts null hypothesis when it should have been rejected it is a ___________.

A

Type I alpha error **RA!

Type II beta error

390
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Significance level for the social sciences is usually ____ or less (.01 or .001). Significance level gives you the probability of a Type I error. Smaller the better!

A

0.05

391
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_______ is known as a single-subject design or case study

This does NOT rely on IV, DV, control group, etc.

A

N = 1

392
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

__________ are evident when subjects in a study have cues regarding what the researcher desires or does not desire that influence their behavior.

A

demand characteristics

393
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

If subjects KNOW they are being observed this is called ___________. Observers’ presence can influence subject’s behavior rather than merely the experimental variable or treatment modality.

When subjects do NOT KNOW they are being measured this is called ___________.

A

obtrusive/reactive measure

unobtrusive measure

394
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ is high when an experiment have few flaws and thus the findings are accurate.

When this is low the researcher didn’t measure what they thought they did.

A

internal validity

395
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

________ is high when the results in a study CAN be generalized to other settings.

A

external validity

396
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ is a popular parametric test for comparing 2 means.

A

t test

397
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

ANOVA (also called one-way ANOVA) is used when you are comparing ___________

This was developed by Ronald Fisher.

A

TWO or MORE means.

398
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

The t test and the ANOVA are _________ measures for normally distributed populations.

A

parametric

399
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

ANOVA provides F values and the _______ will tell you if significant differences are present.

A

F Test

400
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Use the ________ when you are investigating more than 1 DV.

A

MANOVA

401
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

Use a ____________ when you are investigating more than 1 IV.

A

factorial analysis of variance

402
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

If you have two IVs it would be called a two-way _______; three IVs = three-way ________, etc.

A

ANOVA; ANOVA

403
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

If the population is not necessarily normal then a ________ test such as a chi-square (most common) or Kruskal-Wallis can be used.

A

nonparametric

404
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

__________ = if the researcher did NOT manipulate the variable

A

ex post facto or casual-comparative design

405
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ = statistics that describe central tendency like the mean, median, mode, range, quartiles, variance, and SD.

A

descriptive statistics

406
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

________ = 3 data points dividing the distribution into 4 equal parts.

Q1 = 25th percentile or lowest 25% of scores
Q2 = 26th - 50th percentile (**50th is the median**)
Q3 = 75th percentile and higher (i.e., 75% of scores below this value)
A

quartiles

407
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ = correlation coefficients, t tests, ANOVAs, chi-square, Kruskal-Wallis, etc.

A

statistical analyses

408
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ = examine a group of people who have something in common

A

cohort studies

409
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ takes place during treatment or while the program is going on

_________ occurs at the end of a treatment or program

A

formative evaluation

summative/outcome evaluation

410
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ design uses different subjects in the different groups (e.g., one group of subjects for the control group and another group of subjects for the experimental group).

A

between-groups

411
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

_________ design (also referred to as repeated measures or within-subject design) the SAME SUBJECTS for the control condition and then at a different time for the IV/experimental condition.

A

within groups

412
Q

Research and Program Evaluation:

__________ approval is required prior to conducting human research.

A

institutional research board (IRB)