IFD Emergency Operating Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

In cases where conventional vehicle access is restricted, rapid off-road access to patients is possible through deployment of the _____ to allow emergency care to be rendered in a fully enclosed compartment.

A

ASAP

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2
Q

Any Irving Fire Department ____ can be designated to place the ASAP in service.

A

Paramedic.

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3
Q

Upon receiving a request for the ASAP, the _____ will immediately coordinate the pick-up and towing of the vehicle for deployment.

A

Alarm Office

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4
Q

The _____ will be housed and available at the Riverside Municipal Complex in the building addressed at 5982 Riverside.

A

ASAP

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5
Q

Weekly preventative maintenance on all IFD apparatus located at 5982 Riverside will be the responsibility of the ______

A

Station captain, station 10.

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6
Q

Statistically, ______ responses have a low chance of resulting in a working structure fire, and are therefore a ready source of complacency in our response.

A

Automatic alarm.

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7
Q

_____ shall not force entry into automatic alarm control boxes nor disconnect the wiring to such alarms.

A

Company Officers

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8
Q

_____ personnel shall maintain complete and accurate records related to all automatic alarms received to include those involving both valid and invalid reasons for the alarm.

A

Alarm Office

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9
Q

______ - By contract of an interlock agreement, the cities of Irving and Coppell have agreed to automatically provide each other with fire and medical resources and personnel within any geographic areas within either city.

A

Automatic Aid.

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10
Q

As a member of the ________, when our resources are depleted, the IFD can request to receive fire equipment resources and personnel assistance when required.

A

Dallas County Fire Chiefs Mutual Aid Plan.

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11
Q

The responding company officer shall complete IFD form 18, assist entry request, for every _____ request prior to opening the vehicle.

A

non-emergency lockout

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12
Q

If the CO reading is ___ PPM or or greater at any point in a structure, personnel shall don full protective equipment and utilize the SCBA.

A

35

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13
Q

For CO readings of ____, advise the owner that the Fire Department did not detect an appreciable CO reading at this time.

A

0-9 PPM.

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14
Q

For CO readings of ____, advise the owner that the Fire Department detected a CO reading above ambient levels and the potential causes thereof.

A

10-34 PPM.

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15
Q

At a CO reading of _____, advise the owner that the fire department detected an unhealthy level of CO, evacuate the affected area and begin ventilation. If a multi-story building is involved, evacuate the floors above and below the affected floor(s).

A

35 PPM or greater.

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16
Q

When will fire department personnel advice occupants not to re-enter a structure due to CO?

A

35 PPM or greater.

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17
Q

______ is the concept involving networks, relationships, and initiatives among individuals and organizations that are based on trust, reciprocity, and cooperation.

A

Social Capital.

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18
Q

______: A demonstration of civil unrest that may manifest itself in acts of violence against property and/or human life.

A

Civil disturbance.

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19
Q

A ____ is a civil disorder wherein crowds display a propensity for violence by setting fires, vandalizing, noting, attacking civilians, firefighters, or law enforcement, or engaging in other violent acts.

A

riot

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20
Q

_______: An increased state of readiness and security for specific stations or districts as determined by an Assistant Chief or chief of department.

A

Levle III CD.

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21
Q

_______: Threatening circumstances or conditions that indicate the possibility of widespread civil unrest or violence.

A

Level II CD.

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22
Q

Level I CD: (actual violence) ______ are authorized to initiate a Level 1 CD.

A

Company Officers.

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23
Q

A ____ is the area of civil unrest or riot as designated by the on scene Law enforcement commander, in which civilian vehicle access is denied and the fire department vehicles will not enter unless accompanied by law enforcement escorts.

A

Hot zone.

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24
Q

_____: Unstable, potentially unsafe given observed protest/riot conditions and actions.

A

Hot Zone (CD)

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25
Q

_____: An area, in the current state, as designated by the on scene LE commander that is relatively safe for emergency responder operations, with observable indicators and suggest that instability could possibly ensue.

A

Warm Zone (CD)

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26
Q

_____: Safe area with little likelihood of unrest.

A

Cold Zone (CD)

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27
Q

A ____ will consist of 3 engines, one truck, and LE personnel.

A

Task Force

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28
Q

An incident of ____ is considered essentially a law enforcement event and the fire department shall coordinate with the law enforcement incident commander thought the incident via unified command.

A

civil disorder.

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29
Q

Commanding officers/acting officers confronted with the demonstration/civil disorder/civil disturbance in their first due area will immediately notify the ______ so that other units may avoid the area of demonstration.

A

Alarm office.

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30
Q

When responding to the scene of a CD, shut off lights and sirens at least __ blocks from the scene.

A

3

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31
Q

A ____ response inside the disturbance area is one engine, one MICU, and one LE officer.

A

minimum EMS

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32
Q

The ______ in the battalion not affected by the CD will proceed to the alarm office to stage and assist with any EMS related activities.

A

EMS supervisor

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33
Q

In an effort to avoid intensifying an emotional situation with the words “riot” and “civil disturbance” will not be used over the radio, the abbreviation ___ will be used.

A

CD

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34
Q

If the safety of firefighters and equipment cannot be assured within the confines of a fire station, then the ____ at that location has the authority to remove the company(s) from the area.

A

ranking officer.

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35
Q

Companies abandoning a station will notify the alarm office and their battalion chief of the actions and proceed to ________.

A

the closest fire station in a safe area.

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36
Q

When responding into an area with an active CD, temporarily store a ______ and ______ in the cab of apparatus to protect firefighters from thrown rocks, bottles, or fire bombs.

A

tarp, CO2 dry chemical extinguisher.

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37
Q

No multiple alarms will be utilized in a ____.

A

Riot area.

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38
Q

If additional help is need in a CD, task force commanders are to request additional ____.

A

task forces.

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39
Q

_____ will be utilized when conditions present an unusual safety concern to personnel due to hostile or potentially hostile activities in a specific geographic area.

A

Task Forces

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40
Q

The combining of individual companies into a _____ is performed to increase safety, decrease the risk to personnel and to ensure a coordinated, quick fire attack or rescue under potentially hostile conditions.

A

task force

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41
Q

During a large scale disorder/riot, only ____ will brutalized in the affected area.

A

task forces.

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42
Q

In the event of a major CD/riot, task forces will not respond into a Hot zone without adequate ______.

A

LE protection.

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43
Q

When a _____ is assembled and assigned to a staging area, the fire operations chief will notify the LE operations chief of the location of the staging area and their designation.

A

Task force.

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44
Q

The primary site for task force staging areas will be _____.

A

nearby fire stations.

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45
Q

Locating a staging area at the _____ is not recommended due to the congestion of LE vehicles and equipment expected at this site.

A

command post.

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46
Q

An assembly area is site where reserve apparatus and recalled personnel will be formed into a ______.

A

task force

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47
Q

During fireground operations, the perimeter should be secured by LE officers ____ to initiating firefighting operations.

A

prior

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48
Q

EMS calls in the ____ zone may be a result of injuries from CD activities, but can also be individuals with illnesses or needs separate and apart from the unrest.

A

Hot zone

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49
Q

Use fire department apparatus to block at least ____ additional traffic lane(s) more than already obstructed by the involved vehicle(s). (Automobile accidents involving injured persons in wreckage with gasoline spills)

A

1

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50
Q

If damage has been done during forcible entry and no resident has returned prior to our securing the building and leaving the scene, a not shall be placed on the door with instructions to call _____.

A

The alarm office.

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51
Q

______ - any needed personal or medical information that can be obtained.

A

Patient History

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52
Q

If a parent or guardian is not present and the child needs treatment or transportation, the child may be treated and transported under the doctrine of _______.

A

implied consent.

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53
Q

If consent to treat is refused by the parents or guardians and fire department personnel reasonably believe the injury or illness of the child constitutes a significant risk, data, or disability, fire department personnel will contact _________ for advice and counseling.

A

physician at biotel

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54
Q

A _____ will be notified immediately if legal assistance is needed in regard to treatment and transport of a child.

A

SDO

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55
Q

A ______ is defined as a space that is large enough for a person to physically enter, not designed for continuous occupancy, and has limited means of exit and egress.

A

confined space.

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56
Q

A _____ is a confined space which has additional hazards including atmospheric, configuration, engulfment, or any other recognized hazard.

A

permit required confined space.

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57
Q

_______: the highest concentration of a gas or vapor in air capable of producing a flash fire in the presence of an ignition source.

A

Upper explosive limit. (UEL)

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58
Q

_______: The explosive limit of a gas or vapor is the concentration in air that is needed for the gas to ignite and explode. Concentrations lower than the explosive limit are referred to as:

A

Lower explosive limit.

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59
Q

________: an IFD member that has successfully completed 80 hours of rope rescue operations/technician level training in accordance with NFPA 1006 and successfully completed 40 hours of confined space rescue technician level training in accordance with NFPA 1006.

A

Properly trained members (confined space)

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60
Q

Respiratory protection must be worn if the oxygen concentration is below ____.

A

19.5%

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61
Q

No entry may be made into oxygen enriched atmosphere. Ventilation is required to lower the oxygen concentration below ____ before entry is made.

A

23.5%

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62
Q

No entry may be made into atmospheres greater than ____ of the LEL. Ventilation is required to lower the concentration below ____ of the LEL prior to making entry.

A

10%

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63
Q

All rescue commands will come from the _______ or _______.

A

TRT officer or attendant

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64
Q

Unless _____, IFD personnel will not turn off a drug making operation in progress.

A

emergency circumstances require intervention

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65
Q

When performing a elevator rescue, the power should always be turned off and a lock-out tag-out performed before ______.

A

opening hoist way doors.

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66
Q

The _____ area of an elevator is the threshold between the car and lobby doors.

A

most dangerous

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67
Q

Forcible entry will only be conducted on an elevator if the elevator keys have failed and a _______ exists.

A

medical emergency

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68
Q

Elevator drifting or floating is only to be performed by ______.

A

qualified elevator mechanic.

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69
Q

No IFD personnel shall enter a hoist way and conduct a rescue without ________.

A

proper fall protection.

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70
Q

The only situation where is acceptable to avoid shutting off elevator power is a ______ on a traditional traction elevator.

A

brake failure

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71
Q

If the fireman service light is ______, the elevator will not be able to be used.

A

flashing.

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72
Q

A _____ firemans service light indicates that the elevator machine room or the elevator shaft smoke and or heat detectors are activated.

A

flashing

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73
Q

If smoke or water is observed in an elevator hoist way, this elevator ______.

A

should not be used.

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74
Q

Upon placing an elevator car in Phase II, ensure the fireman service light is in a _____.

A

solid state.

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75
Q

Take the elevator to no more than ____ floors below the fire floor.

A

2

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76
Q

It is recommended to check the hoist way and door functions of an elevator every ___ floors during an ascent.

A

5

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77
Q

The traction lift elevator has a counterweight that is _____ times the weight of the maximum capacity of the car.

A

1.4

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78
Q

Hydraulic elevators cannot exceed the height of ___ floors.

A

6

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79
Q

IFD personnel shall never interact with elevator control panels and can only inspect for _____ and view the floor panel for indication of where the elevator may be stuck.

A

jumpers

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80
Q

______ is defined as occurring anytime IFD personnel operating in an official on-duty capacity contact an individual involved in an incident to determine the individuals wellbeing.

A

EMS contact

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81
Q

During _____, when extended transport times may be experienced, the fire departments area of transport will be reduced until conditions improve.

A

severe weather

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82
Q

No information will be supplied to any person(s) until the individual member is given specific permission from _______.

A

Fire Administration.

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83
Q

All signatures verifying birth will be referred to ____.

A

administration.

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84
Q

Any other person, organization, or entity requesting information regarding a patient or the circumstances for a specific incident will be referred to _______.

A

fire department administration.

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85
Q

When IPD requests a MICU to standby, the appropriate ____ will be dispatched to the scene to make a size up.

A

battalion chief.

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86
Q

The purpose of the _____ is to provide definitive, pre-hospital ALS prior to the arrival of the MICU.

A

paramedic engine/paramedic truck

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87
Q

In the event at a station with an engine and a truck company and there is only 1 paramedic available, the paramedic will be assigned to the _____.

A

engine company.

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88
Q

EMS consumables will be replaced on ____ utilizing the current MICU supply procedure.

A

Fridays

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89
Q

Lost or damaged equipment will be reported to the _____.

A

assistant chief, special services.

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90
Q

______ will be responsible to see that all MICUs are in-service and ready to respond.

A

Station captains.

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91
Q

Daily inventory of reserve MICUs will be one by ____ hours each day when possible.

A

0800

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92
Q

______ will be dispatched to emergency alarms when they are significantly closer to the emergency location or when all front line MICUs are out of service.

A

Reserve MICUs

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93
Q

The alarm office will notify ______ when a private ambulance is utilized.

A

both SDO’s

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94
Q

An _______ MICU exists when the MICU is out of quarters, out of view from any Fire Department member, and it is known that members will not be returning to the MICU for a significant period of time unless dispatched to an alarm.

A

unattended.

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95
Q

Any time it is necessary to leave a piece of equipment with a patient the Paramedics are responsible for notifying the ______ or what item was left, the hospital at which the item was left, and the patient with whom it was left.

A

Shift duty lieutenant (521)

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96
Q

When an emergency transfer is requested, the sending hospital has to have a _____, otherwise known as a MOT, completed and ready to go with the patient.

A

Memorandum of Transfer

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97
Q

The members of the IFD are directed to immediately notify their respective ____ when a problem exists between the hospital staff, and our personnel.

A

SDO

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98
Q

When a patient requests transport to a hospital outside of our area, the MICU personnel shall contact their respective ____ and be guided by their instructions.

A

SDO

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99
Q

______, shall be transported to an appropriate hospital, within guidelines, of the parent/guardian choice.

A

Minor patients

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100
Q

In the event a parent/guardian is not available, the minor patient shall be transported to the _______.

A

nearest appropriate hospital.

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101
Q

All persons under the age of 18 are considered minors and do not have the right to refuse treatment unless:

A

active member of the US military, is a emancipated minor, or patient is pregnant.

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102
Q

The MICU overload plan is initiated when:

A

3 or fewer MICU’s are in service.

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103
Q

The MICU overload plan will be canceled when ____ or more MICUs are in service and available to respond.

A

4

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104
Q

Members may request immunizations by an email or a memo addressed to the ______.

A

battalion chief, EMS.

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105
Q

It is the responsibility of ______ to complete the Dallas county health department report of exposure to communicable disease form.

A

521 or 522

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106
Q

The member who has been exposed must complete a city of Irving report of injury to an employee, form ____.

A

8050

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107
Q

Uniforms that become contaminated with blood or body fluids should be placed in a ____ bag and turned in to the property room for cleaning or replacement.

A

yellow

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108
Q

Within ____ hours of the incident, a person claiming occupational exposure to a reportable disease must submit to the Texas DSHS or its designee, a sworn affidavit delineating the reasons for the request.

A

72

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109
Q

All MICUs shall be thoroughly cleaned at least ____ a month using the supplied disinfectant.

A

once

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110
Q

_______ - those situation during patient care where there is a large amount of fluids, that contaminate the patient compartment.

A

Emergency decon.

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111
Q

If the ambulance is to remain out of service for longer than ____ minutes at the hospital for the purpose of cleaning, the paramedics will notify the alarm office of the need to remain out of service and provide the approximate time they will be out of service.

A

20 minutes.

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112
Q

The ______ will be defined as “any area that requires an SCBA or in which a member is at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

A

hazard zone

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113
Q

The ___ is responsible for including accountability as a major element in strategy and tactics planning, and must consider and react to any barriers to effective accountability.

A

IC

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114
Q

____ will be accountable to the IC or to a division/group officer - free lancing will not be accepted.

A

All crews.

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115
Q

A minimum crew size will be considered __ members.

A

2

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116
Q

A minimum of _____ portable radio(s) will be required per crew.

A

1

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117
Q

If a radio fails while in the hazard zone, the crew will ___, unless there is another working radio with the crew, or available in that work area with another crew.

A

exit

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118
Q

The ____ of the first fire company to each geographic side of the incident becomes the initial accountability officer.

A

driver

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119
Q

The ____ will collect passports from crews and apparatus assigned to his/her side of the incident and manage accountability until relieved by a division officer or accountability officer.

A

driver

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120
Q

______: responsible for accounting for all crews in his/her assigned division/group.

A

Division/group officer.

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121
Q

In those situations where the division/group officer must enter the hazard zone, passports will continue to be managed by the ____ of the first engine to each geographic side of the incident or a designated accountability officer for his/her division/group.

A

driver.

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122
Q

__________: responsible for teaming up with the assigned division/group officer and to manage all accountability for that division/group.

A

Accountability officer.

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123
Q

________: Responsible for managing accountability officers and the accountability system.

A

accountability group officer

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124
Q

________: responsible for tracking the location fall crews.

A

Incident Commander.

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125
Q

The _____ is designed to ensure the safety of all personnel working at an emergency incident.

A

accountability system

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126
Q

To enhance accountability and improve tracking of members in the hazard zone, the ____ system will be used.

A

passport

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127
Q

MICUs, battalion 1, battalion 2, 521, and 522 will have ___ passports which are engraved with the company ID and the initials “IFD”

A

2

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128
Q

For apparatus with __ personnel on duty, passport “A” will contain the names of all personnel currently on duty.

A

3

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129
Q

______ are responsible for ensuring that the passports and helmet ID’s always remain current.

A

Company officers

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130
Q

As the incident escalates to the level that accountability officers are assigned, the IC should implement an ______ to coordinate the various accountability officers.

A

accountability group officer.

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131
Q

The accountability group officer will be assigned to the _____.

A

logistics section.

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132
Q

An ______ of any crew will automatically be assumed lost or trapped n the hazard zone until otherwise determined safe.

A

absent member

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133
Q

Crews exiting at a different location than the original point of entry shall immediately notify their _______.

A

Division/group officer and/or accountability officer.

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134
Q

Once a lobby division is established, all crews reporting to the building will deliver their _____ to the lobby division.

A

passports.

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135
Q

Once the personnel/equipment divisions/groups are established, that _______ will collect the passports of all crews assigned to fire combat positions.

A

Resource group officer.

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136
Q

The ______ will assign accountability officers at each point of entry.

A

Resource group officer.

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137
Q

Immediately following the declaration of emergency traffic and after the member has described the type of emergency and/or change in conditions, alarm office personnel will sound a pulse tone for ____ seconds, and announce emergency traffic 3 times and then describe the emergency.

A

5

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138
Q

A strategic withdrawal order should take no more than ____ to complete.

A

5 minutes.

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139
Q

Once 5 minutes have elapsed, if any crew has not exited the building and provided a personnel accountability report, the IC shall initiate an “_____.”

A

Emergency evacuation.

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140
Q

When an ______ is necessary, the initiating member shall declare “emergency traffic” a total of three times, followed by the declaration “evacuate” a total three times.

A

Emergency evacuation

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141
Q

The alarm office with sound the warble tone on all Irving fire department radio frequencies for ____ seconds for an emergency evacuation, followed by “evacuate” a total of 3 times.

A

10

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142
Q

The IC will instruct personnel to sound apparatus air horns with short repeated blasts for a period not to exceed ____ seconds. (emergency evacuation.)

A

10

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143
Q

The notification process for a emergency evacuation shall be confined to no more than ____ seconds.

A

60 `

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144
Q

Speeding while responding code 3 on congested streets or narrow residential streets is limited to _____ over the posted speed limit.

A

5

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145
Q

Speeding while responding code 3 on major streets and thoroughfares shall not exceed ____ over the posted speed limit.

A

10 mph

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146
Q

When responding code 3 and driving in center lanes or in to oncoming traffic, _____ is the maximum speed.

A

20 MPH

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147
Q

All members, with the exception of the driver, shall dismount and assist with ____ and plymovent attachment.

A

backing operations.

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148
Q

All personnel in the vessel shall act as ____ to warn the operator of hazards or safety concerns. (boat 8)

A

spotters

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149
Q

Fire boat 8 shall be placed in operation upon request of the OIC of a scene of event with a minimum _____ person staff.

A

3

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150
Q

An ____ will be assigned in all water rescues.

A

on-shore spotter.

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151
Q

The _____ sole responsibility is to watch and monitor the location and status of victim(s) in the water.

A

spotters.

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152
Q

If a spotter loses sight of a victim or rescuer, the ____ shall be turned off until visual contact has been reestablished.

A

boat motor.

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153
Q

_____ will be housed adjacent to 780 Lake Carolyn in the boathouse.

A

Boat 8

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154
Q

Fire boat 8 trailer will be housed behind _____.

A

Station 11

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155
Q

The entry gate at 780 lake Carolyn shall be opened by combination lock, ______. or Knox key.

A

8671

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156
Q

________ will contain keys and log book for fire boat 8.

A

Fire boat 8 glove compartment

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157
Q

For problematic fire situations, send an e-mail to the _______.

A

Fire Marshal

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158
Q

For fire code related issues, send an email to the _______.

A

Assistant fire marshal .

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159
Q

Where the fire cause/origin is readily determinable by the company officer and/or the IC and no suspicious circumstances are apparent, an ____ is not required at the scene.

A

investigator.

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160
Q

Diesel powered pumpers will operate at full capacity for approximately _______.

A

8 hours.

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161
Q

The IC will direct the request for on scene fuel deliveries with the number of apparatus to be fueled to the _____ through the alarm office.

A

landfill.

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162
Q

The IC should provide at least ___ hours lead time for fuel delivery.

A

2

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163
Q

Hydrocarbon spills greater than ____ gallons will require a response from the HAZMAT team.

A

25

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164
Q

A spill of ____ gallons or more is a reportable quantity to the Texas Commission on environmental quality.

A

25

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165
Q

_____ can be accomplished by plugging, damming, diking, or catching the product in a container.

A

Containment.

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166
Q

A ______ may be requested for additional absorbent if needed to contain the fuel spill.

A

blocker.

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167
Q

Any clean up by the HAZMAT team of chemicals other than hydrocarbons shall be placed into the ______.

A

Yellow bags

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168
Q

In the event that any amount of product enters a waterway or storm drain, call for _______.

A

a HAZMAT response.

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169
Q

The objective of the IFD during a hazardous materials emergency is to _____ the incident to the point that an emergency situation no longer exists.

A

stabilize

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170
Q

The role of the first responders in a Haz-Mat incident shall be ______ in nature.

A

Defensive.

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171
Q

The haz-mat team will respond to all haz-mat incidents with ______.

A

Truck 8 and Haz-mat 8

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172
Q

The __________ shall be the highest ranking Haz-Mat team member on scene.

A

haz-mat group officer

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173
Q

The ______ will make tactical decision pertaining to the Haz-Mat group to include entry, decontamination, and control and containment procedures.

A

Haz-Mat Group Officer

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174
Q

The ________ will advise the incident commander of tactics, progress, equipment, and personnel needs, changes needed in zone designation or size, etc.

A

Haz-Mat group officer

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175
Q

The ______ will provide a Haz-Mat pre-entry briefing.

A

Haz-Mat Group Officer

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176
Q

_____ will consist of 2 members wearing appropriate PPE for the materials involved. (Haz-Mat)

A

The entry team

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177
Q

A ______ of 2 members must be established for each entry team prior to attempting entry that will wear PPE equal to that of the entry team.

A

back up team.

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178
Q

A Haz-Mat _____ shall be designated for each Haz-Mat incident to monitor operations within the hot and warm zone and is responsible for the overall safety of the Hazmat sector operations.

A

Hazmat safety officer

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179
Q

The _______ will immediately suspend or alter operations that threaten any personnel if an IDLH, or dangerous condition or situation is identified.

A

Hazmat safety officer

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180
Q

An _____ shall be designated at the discretion of the Hazmat group officer and shall be responsible for the overall operations of personnel within the hot zone.

A

Entry team officer

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181
Q

The _____ will monitor entry team time in the hot zone.

A

Entry team officer

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182
Q

The ______ will maintain communications with entry team and monitor all communications with workers in the hot zone.

A

entry team officer

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183
Q

A minimum of ____ hazmat team members must be available to attempt entry.

A

4

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184
Q

The purpose of a ____ is to assure the health and safety of personnel operating at the scene. (hazmat)

A

Site Safety Plan

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185
Q

In a Hazmat incident, _____ should be established in the cold zone near the decon site and positioned so as not to interfere with its operations or accessibility.

A

triage

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186
Q

The ____ is the area in which the hazardous material is actually located and extends as far as necessary to protect personnel and equipment from contamination or injury.

A

hot zone

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187
Q

A log shall be maintained of all personnel entering the ____ to include: entry and sit time, level of PPE worn, and reason for entry.

A

Hot zone.

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188
Q

The ____ will serve primarily as a work corridor for support functions such as decon, equipment drop, etc.

A

warm zone.

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189
Q

The _____ will be limited to those personnel and functions providing Hot zone support.

A

warm zone

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190
Q

_____ consists of any process intended to remove or reduce contamination from victims, IFD personnel, and/or equipment.

A

Decon.

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191
Q

_____ is the systematic cleaning of entry team personnel to allow them to safely remove chemical protection suits.

A

Technical decontamination

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192
Q

The ____ site shall be located inside the warm zone forming a work corridor between the hot and cold zones.

A

decon

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193
Q

The _____ site will be clearly designated using orange traffic cones to mark the entrance and exit.

A

decon

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194
Q

The decon sequence when exiting a hot zone of a hazmat incident includes: (in order)

A

equipment drop, gross decon, ppm drop, personal decon, and SCBA drop.

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195
Q

1st step upon entering the decon corridor.

A

Equipment drop

196
Q

2nd step of the decon corridor. Involves the removal of large particles of contaminants from external surfaces of PPE by physical and/or chemical means in order to prevent transfer of contaminants to personnel.

A

Gross decon

197
Q

3rd step of the decon corridor. After gross decon has been completed.

A

PPE drop.

198
Q

4th step of the decon corridor. Occurs after the removal of PPE and prior to the removal of the SCBA face piece.

A

Personal decon.

199
Q

The 5th and final step of the decon corridor. After personal decon has been completed.

A

SCBA drop.

200
Q

_______ typically is reserved for the incident responder and those extreme situations where normal decon can not be performed due to injuries requiring immediate life saving medical attention.

A

Emergency decontamination.

201
Q

PPE for decon team members shall be determined by the decon group officer but as a minimum shall be ______.

A

equal to or one level below the entry team.

202
Q

The _____ of a Haz-Mat incident is comprised of documentation, critique, and follow up.

A

termination

203
Q

The ______ will initiate termination of the incident. (hazmat)

A

Hazmat group officer

204
Q

Documentation of a Haz-mat incident will be accomplished using the Hazardous Material run report, IFD form ___.

A

5

205
Q

It shall be the responsibility of the ________ to schedule and conduct any critique of a Haz-Mat incident.

A

ranking Haz-Mat team officer

206
Q

A minimum of __ hours of continuing education pertaining to HazMat shall be required each year for first responder operations level.

A

4

207
Q

______ are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases for the purpose of attempting to control and/or stabilize the incident.

A

Hazardous Materials Technicians

208
Q

A minimum of ___ hours of CE pertaining to hazardous materials shall be required each year for all members of the Haz-Mat response team and any other member subject to filling a position on the Haz-Mat response team.

A

8 hours

209
Q

All _____ assigned to fire suppression shall be trained to the level of Hazardous Materials Incident Commander.

A

officers

210
Q

In addition to the zones, a ______ will be established within the hot zone to protect contaminated personnel/victims from further exposure or contamination.

A

Area of refuge.

211
Q

The establishment of the “area of refuge” shall be the responsibility of the _______.

A

Haz-Mat group officer.

212
Q

The area of refuge will be established and will also serve as the _______.

A

Initial triage area.

213
Q

The _______ should be in either a square or rectangular configuration.

A

area of refuge.

214
Q

No _____ will be removed from the incident without first being given both gross and secondary decon. (hazmat)

A

deceased victim

215
Q

The hazmat medical surveillance program will be administered under the supervision of the IFD _________.

A

assistant chief, *support* services.

216
Q

Fighting high-rise fires is probably the most ____ of all firefighting.

A

chaotic

217
Q

_____, so vital to command and control, is not always effective in high-rise fires.

A

Communication

218
Q

______: any structure four or more stories above ground.

A

High-Rise

219
Q

________: the first two arriving companies to a high-rise fire (preferably the first arriving engine and truck crew)

A

Investigative Team

220
Q

Resource area: a reserve of manpower and equipment located ____ floors below the fire floor.

A

2

221
Q

_____: established on all second-alarm high rise fires that is located two floors below the fire floor next to the resource area.

A

R&R area.

222
Q

Safe Refuge area: an area established __ or more floors below the fire floor for the purpose of bringing persons evacuated from above.

A

3

223
Q

The _____ company officer to the staging area shall be the staging area officer.

A

first arriving.

224
Q

Responsibilities of the _______ on a high rise fire: if possible obtain elevator keys and assign a firefighter as the elevator operator and team up with the next arrive engine or truck crew and report to the fire floor to rescue victims and attack the fire.

A

first arriving engine.

225
Q

____ arriving company on a high rise fire: report and assist the fire floor division.

A

third.

226
Q

___ arriving company: evacuation, rescue, and check for vertical spread on the floors above the fire. Evacuation and rescue shall be accomplished using a different stairwell than the attack crews if possible.

A

fourth

227
Q

____ arriving truck company: serve as the RIC and report to the resource group until entry is needed.

A

Second.

228
Q

____ arriving battalion chief on a high rise fire: report to the fire floor and assume the position of fire floor division officer from the first engine officer.

A

second arriving

229
Q

First two engine company drivers: will team up and supply both the _______

A

standpipe and sprinkler connection.

230
Q

The removal of building occupants to a safe location should always be ___ consideration

A

first.

231
Q

An _____ on a high rise fire is often the best method of saving lives and preventing extension of the fire.

A

aggressive attack

232
Q

How many steps are in the IFD “lock out, tag out” procedure for EV’s?

A

7

233
Q

Starting in ____, EV’s started being produced with lithium-ion batteries.

A

2012

234
Q

_____ creates a greater risk of fire once the container housing the battery is damaged or exposed to fire.

A

lithium-ion batteries

235
Q

Lithium ion batteries are dry cell packed with coolant therefore liquids coming from an electric vehicle may not necessitate a _______.

A

hazardous materials response.

236
Q

7 steps of the IFD “lock out, tag out” policy for EV’s:

A
  1. Identify EV
  2. Stabilize
  3. Access
  4. put in park
  5. turn ignition off and give keys to command
  6. check that all electric vehicle dash indicator lights/gauges are shut down.
  7. disconnect and shut down 12v electrical system at 12v battery.
237
Q

There is a potential for ____ when lithium-ion batteries are physically damaged.

A

delayed thermal runaway

238
Q

If during a size up, leaking fluids, sparks, smoke, flames, increased temperature, gurgling, or bubbling sound from the high-voltage battery compartment are detected, assume there is a High-voltage lithium-ion battery _________.

A

thermal runaway event.

239
Q

If a thermal runaway incident is occurring, establish a _______ or plan for defensive operation.

A

establish a sustained water supply.

240
Q

Du to location and construction of lithium batters, the ____ should be considered out of play for any lifting or stabilizing.

A

floor pan.

241
Q

When it is determined that there is a lithium ion battery fire or thermal runaway event, consider establishing a sustained water supply capable of delivering copies amounts of water to support a long term suppression operation that may require _______ gallons of water or more.

A

2,000-3,000

242
Q

It is not recommended that fire department personnel attempt to ____ the high voltage lithium ion battery casing to apply water due to the shock hazard.

A

penetrate.

243
Q

The ______ of a EV should be inspected for heat with a TIC prior to leaving the scene.

A

floor pan

244
Q

Do not allow _____ to be towed with wheels contacting the ground.

A

electric hybrid vehicles.

245
Q

Advise the tow agency to not store an electric vehicle with potentially damaged lithium-ion battery inside any structure or within ____ ft of any structure or vehicle as per NHTSA interim guidance protocols.

A

50

246
Q

Treat any public charging stations as a ______.

A

Downed power line.

247
Q

Volts of a high voltage orange cable?

A

Must be orange if over 60V

248
Q

The ____ is designed to be scalable to expand as the needs and complexities of an incident grow.

A

Incident Management System

249
Q

_____ is responsible for all incident activities including the development and implementation of strategic decision and for approving and releasing resources.

A

Command

250
Q

_____ reports directly to command and is responsible for all tactical activities focused on reducing the immediate hazard, saving lives and properties, establishing situational control, and restoring normal operations.

A

Operations.

251
Q

_______ reports directly to command and irresponsible for the collection, evaluation, and dissemination of incident situation and use of that information about the development of the incident and status of resources.

A

Planning.

252
Q

____ reports directly to command and is responsible for providing facilities, services, materials, and other resources in support of the incident.

A

Logistics.

253
Q

______ reports directly to command and is responsible for all financial and cost analysis of the incident.

A

Finance

254
Q

______: general requires an investigation. the officer goes with the crew and utilizes the portable radio to command the incident.

A

Nothing showing mode

255
Q

_______: situations that require immediate action and the officers supervision of the crew. Utilization o portable radio will permit involvement of the officer in these activities without neglecting his/her IC responsibilities.

A

Fast attack mode

256
Q

______: large incidents or potential for rapid expansion requires immediate, strong, direct overall command.

A

Incident command mode.

257
Q

Rescue 6, comprised of Engine 6 and Medic 6, and an additional MICU will be automatically dispatched on any report of smoke and fire showing or what may be classified as a ______.

A

“working fire”.

258
Q

When rescue 6 arrives to a working fire, it shall be staffed with a ____ person minimum crew.

A

3

259
Q

The _____ responding to a working fire has the responsibility to stage far enough away from the scene as to not be blocked in.

A

additional MICU

260
Q

The second MICU on a working structure fire is strictly for the care of _____.

A

first responders.

261
Q

At no time will members enter the IDLH atmosphere until at least ___ fire suppression personnel are assembled on scene.

A

4

262
Q

The response to all alarms of fire in a structure must include as the first priority a ____ search for occupants or victims.

A

primary search

263
Q

If the incident is specialized in nature such as HAZMAT, confined space, etc., an _____ with that specialty should be appointed.

A

assistant ISO

264
Q

Knox lock boxes should be installed near the ____ to the building.

A

main entrance.

265
Q

Installed lock boxes must be hooked into a ____

A

alarm system

266
Q

Each time the Knox box lock is opened, the ____ will be activated.

A

Alarm system

267
Q

The _____ shall be removed from the box and secured anytime the vehicle is being sent off for repairs at locations other than the city shop.

A

Knox box key

268
Q

Loss of any of the Knox box keys or the transmitter must be reported immediately, through channels, to the ________.

A

Assistant chief, operations

269
Q

The radio signal receiver for these gates will receive a clear signal from the transmitter from at least ____ ft away.

A

100

270
Q

High rise buildings with stairwell doors that lock to prevent entry onto the floor from the stairwell will have a switch in the _____ to deactivate the lock mechanism

A

fire control room

271
Q

Problems encountered with any Knox box system should be reported to the ____ for correction,

A

Assistant fire marshal

272
Q

During a Mayday, _____ will not resume until cleared to do so by the incident commander.

A

normal radio traffic

273
Q

In the event of a MAYDAY, the alarm office will dispatch ______.

A

the next greater alarm with a MICU response

274
Q

In the event of a MAYDAY, consider moving operations to a new channel and assigning a ______.

A

operations officer.

275
Q

Alarm office personnel are authorized to dispatch ______ in the event of a MAYDAY without a call from the incident commander.

A

next greater alarm with MICU

276
Q

As a member of the _______, when our resources are depleted, the IFD can request to receive fire equipment resources and personnel assistance when required.

A

Dallas County Fire Chiefs Mutual Aid plan.

277
Q

The Dallas County Mutual Aid plan does not provide for emergency ______ mutual aid.

A

MICU mutual aid.

278
Q

The Dallas county mutual aid response plan provides for 2 engine companies to report to the emergency and 2 engine companies to fill in at designated vacated stations on the ______ call for mutual aid.

A

first

279
Q

When calling for mutual aid, a ___ company must be specifically requested and is limited to the first, second, and third calls for additional mutual aid responses.

A

truck

280
Q

All requests for _____ will be submitted to the Dallas fire and rescue communications center.

A

mutual aid assistance.

281
Q

Should the number of in-service engine companies be reduced below ____, alarm office personnel will promptly notify the on-call assistant chief or the chief of department of the situation and be guided by instructions.

A

3

282
Q

When mutual aid assistance is requested, IFD alarm office personnel shall be responsible to recall and assign ______ to each fire station in which mutual aid companies will fill-in.

A

one knowledgeable IFD member

283
Q

Should the IFD alarm office receive such request to dispatch IFD fire equipment to a mutual aid member city, the IFD dispatcher shall promptly notify _____.

A

the on-call assistant chief or the chief of department.

284
Q

IFD companies dispatched to provide mutual aid fill-in assistance at the fire station of another city shall notify the _____ of that city upon arrival at the fill-in station.

A

alarm office

285
Q

When IFD companies respond to an emergency scene in another jurisdiction, the ____ will be sent to the ICP for the emergency to assist with communication and directions for the IFD companies.

A

district battalion chief

286
Q

Mutual aid companies rendering assistance shall operate under the immediate supervision and shall be to the immediate responsibility of the ____ present in the command post of the fire department rendering assistance.

A

liaison officer

287
Q

Mutual aid companies that utilize portable radios equipped with ___ interoperability tactical radio channels can be patched into any of the IFD talk groups with help from the alarm office.

A

P25

288
Q

When requesting MICU’s for a mass casualty incident only through the mutual aid agreement, Dallas county mutual emergency medical service aid will proved up to ___ total MICU’s

A

20 (1st - 5, 2nd - 5, 3rd - 10.)

289
Q

______: any type of situation when the number of casualties exceeds the ability of the IFD’s ability to care for them.

A

Mass Casualty Incident.

290
Q

Companies in the extrication area are under the direction of the ____. (MCI)

A

triage group supervisor

291
Q

______: kits provided to division officers, which contain checklists, forms, and other supplies needed to manage individual divisions during an MCI

A

Division portfolios

292
Q

When needed, an ____ shall be assigned by the IC and shall be in charge of the triage, treatment, and transportation groups.

A

EMS branch director.

293
Q

During a MCI, the IC will establish ____ staging area and a staging supervisor.

A

Level II.

294
Q

Patient priority ____ : patient that has AOC, capillary refill >2, or respiratory rate > 30.

A

1; red

295
Q

Patient priority ____: Patients that do not meet the Red patient criteria and are unable to self-rescue from the emergency area.

A

2; yellow

296
Q

Patient priority ____: the walking wounded.

A

3; green

297
Q

Patient priority ____: Dead or patients that have a probable outcome that does not justify the resources required to manage them.

A

4; black

298
Q

The ___ priority in a MCI is to locate the patients, assess the emergency care they will need, and remove then from an immediate physical danger to protect them from the hazards present.

A

first

299
Q

Extrication/rescue personnel should remove ambulatory patients (green) immediately to an ____ where limited medical care will be made available.

A

assembly area

300
Q

Red and yellow non-ambulatory patients should be moved to ____ for more intensive medical care.

A

treatment divisions.

301
Q

____ is responsible for reassessing and if necessary modifying the EMS response of a MCI.

A

EMS branch director

302
Q

_______ will assign fire department members to supervisor positions for triage, treatment, and transportation groups and provide them with a safety vest and division portfolio identifying them as such. (MCI)

A

EMS branch director.

303
Q

The ______ wil coordinate with extrication/rescue area personnel at the scene for immediately removing patients from areas where significant threats to life or safety exist.

A

Triage group supervisor.

304
Q

The ____ will perform triage functions to assess the severity of each patients life-threatening condition and tag each patient with an appraise triage priority.

A

triage group supervisor.

305
Q

The ____ will expedite the removal of casualties to the treatment area after patients have been tagged and airy, breathing, and circulation covered.

A

triage group supervisor

306
Q

The ____ will evaluate resources needed for extrication of trapped patients and coordinate with extrication/rescue to facilitate moving of patients to the treatment area.

A

triage group supervisor

307
Q

The ____ will establish an assembly area for green patients to await delayed transportation.

A

triage group supervisor.

308
Q

The ____ will report progress to the EMS branch director and “all clear” when all victims have been removed.

A

Triage group supervisor.

309
Q

Patients should be triaged and tagged while in the ____ area. (MCI)

A

extrication/rescue

310
Q

The ___ will maintain a record of patients passing through the treatment division utilizing the treatment division portfolio.

A

treatment group supervisor.

311
Q

The ____ will utilize “biotel” channel on portable radio or cell phone to notify hospitals through biotel and ascertain patient receiving capabilities. (MCI)

A

Transportation group supervisor

312
Q

The _____ of a MCI will identify ambulance staging, patient loading areas, and helicopter landing zones.

A

transportation group supervisor.

313
Q

The ____ will ensure accurate accounting of all patients and destinations using the triage tagging systems indicating the triage tag number of each of the patients transported, the triage priority, the nature of their injuries, the destination, and the unit providing transportation.

A

Transportation group supervisor.

314
Q

If a bus is required to transport priority three patients to a hospital or shelter, transportation ay be secured by calling _____.

A

DART.

315
Q

Red and yellow survivors (MCI) will be placed on numbered backboards located in the ______.

A

disaster response trailer.

316
Q

Triage tags will be attached to victims on the ____, ____, _____.

A

upper extremities first, lower extremities second, head (neck) last.

317
Q

The ____ will coordinate with the authority responsible for facilities in arranging for temporary morgue facilities and transportation.

A

EMS branch director.

318
Q

The ____ will consult with city/county health officer as needed concerning appropriate procedures to safeguard the health of personnel assigned to move the fatalities.

A

EMS branch director.

319
Q

Observing/monitoring personnel during the performance of duties can be assigned to the ____.

A

incident safety officer.

320
Q

At the conclusion of the incident or at the end of an assignment at the MCI scene, all personnel should participate in a mandatory _____ briefing.

A

Demobilization.

321
Q

Natural gas is an odorless, tasteless, and colorless gas, mainly composed of ____.

A

Methane

322
Q

As natural gas escapes into the atmosphere, it dissipates rapidly, as it is ____ than air.

A

lighter

323
Q

Natural gas has a narrow combustible range and will only ignite when there is an air-to-gas mixture of between ____ to ____ percent.

A

5-15

324
Q

If the cut or ruptured gas line is greater than ___, the closest engine, hazmat team, SDO, and battalion chief will respond.

A

1 ½”

325
Q

If a gas leak is inside a high occupancy structure, the dispatcher will dispatch:

A

nearest engine, Hazmat, SDO, and battalion chief.

326
Q

What is constituted as an extended on scene time?

A

2 hours

327
Q

Officers on scene and the ___ will coordinate the rotation of relief crews on a cut gas line.

A

alarm office personnel.

328
Q

If an incident extends into more than ____ hours the alarm office personnel shall notify the chiefs officer on call or the assistant chief of operations. (gas investigation)

A

4 hours

329
Q

If the cut or ruptured gas line is less than 1 ½” in diameter and the readings reach ____, 10% of the LEL, the 2 gas monitor will go into alarm and the company officer will request a HAZMAT team.

A

5000 PPM

330
Q

The response to an _____ should be flexible scalable, dynamic, and timely with the ability to change rapidly based on new information.

A

infectious disease pandemic.

331
Q

A major assumption of a pandemic outbreak is the difficulty in the maintaining fire and emergency services operations considering a large portion of the personnel may ______.

A

become ill.

332
Q

_____ of a pandemic event is evidence of increased and sustained human to human transmission.

A

Phase 1

333
Q

During ____ of a pandemic response, assign staff member responsibility to track and monitor current information from the CDC, Dallas county health, and WHO.

A

phase 1

334
Q

_____ of a pandemic involves confirmed cases of an infectious disease pandemic in the continental US

A

Phase II

335
Q

During ____ of a pandemic, IFD will meet with local hospital representatives to discuss operational challenge.

A

Phase II

336
Q

During ____ of a pandemic, the medical director will review current infectious disease policies and make adjustments.

A

Phase II

337
Q

During _____ of the pandemic, create trigger points for staffing during high probabilities of absenteeism.

A

phase II

338
Q

During ____ of a pandemic, review and adjust a flexible sick leave policy.

A

phase II.

339
Q

_____ of a pandemic involves confirmed cases of an infectious disease in the city of Irving or surrounding cities.

A

Phase 3

340
Q

Phase ____ of a pandemic, IFD will implement emergency medical dispatch protocols.

A

3

341
Q

Phase ___ of a pandemic, IFD will initiate current infectious disease response plan.

A

3

342
Q

Phase __ of a pandemic, IFD will place special response vehicles in service.

A

3

343
Q

Phase ____ of a pandemic, IFD will suspend vacation leave at appropriate trigger point.

A

3

344
Q

Phase ____ of the pandemic, IFD will monitor/track all suspected patient contacts.

A

3

345
Q

_____: availability of a company to respond to calls. There are only 2 levels.

A

status

346
Q

What are the 2 levels of status?

A

In service and out of service.

347
Q

____: the purpose for which a company is enroute to a (non-emergency) location.

A

Mission

348
Q

_______: procedure used by alarm office personnel to broadcast radio messages over multiple channels or talk groups simultaneously.

A

Simulcast or simul-select.

349
Q

______: refers to single family residential dwellings estimated to be approximately 2000 square feet or smaller and/or any condition where the dispatch information warrants an upgraded investigative response.

A

Light box structure fire

350
Q

Structure fire response of 2 engines, 2 tucks, one MICU, one BC, and one SDO.

A

Light box

351
Q

______: refers to structures 4 stories or more in height and locations with high occupancy load.

A

Heavy box structure fire.

352
Q

structure fire response of 5 engine companies, 3 truck companies, one MICU, 2 battalion chiefs, and 2 SDO’s

A

heavy box

353
Q

Call for a ___ will involve one truck and/or engine company if dispatch information reveals that the aerial device will not be necessary.

A

high water rescue.

354
Q

Call for a ____ will involve 1 BC, one engine or one truck company, one MICU and boat 1 with the swift water rescue team.

A

Open water rescue.

355
Q

Call for a ____ will involve a one alarm box assignment, rescue 6, the swift water rescue team, and boat 1.

A

Swift water rescue.

356
Q

For a ____ response, one alarm medical box alarm; 3 engine companies, 2 truck companies, 2 battalion chiefs, 2 SDO’s, and three MICU’s

A

active shooter and/or mass casualty incident.

357
Q

______ shall be assigned to any incident that involves more than 2 MICU’s involved in patient care.

A

SDO

358
Q

_____: dispatch shall send the next closest fire apparatus and next closest MICU (structure fire)

A

RIC response

359
Q

Rescue 6 shall be automatically dispatched on ___ alarm fires to serve as the dedicated RIC team with or without IC request.

A

2nd

360
Q

____: this channel is available only on base radios located within the fire stations.

A

Irving-base

361
Q

The _____ channel is a specific radio channel found on both mobile and portable radios that will be utilized for PD personnel to communicate directly with fire department personnel when engaged in a joint operation.

A

public safety 1 radio

362
Q

______: position 15 on portable radios, this is an interoperability channel to be used with neighboring cities for the purpose of mutual aid.

A

Fire IO-10

363
Q

_____ channel: the decision to use this channel should be made by the first arriving company or the IC.

A

Simplex (talk-around 16)

364
Q

When ____ is used, at least 1 IFD member, with 2 radios, mobile and portable, must remain outside the structure.

A

simplex (talk-around)

365
Q

When transmitting on the mobile handheld microphone on the portable radio, the speakers mouth should be approximately ___ to ____ inches from the microphone.

A

1-2

366
Q

If you are told your volume is too low, _____ the microphone versus speaking louder.

A

reposition.

367
Q

Any transmission from ___ console will override any other transmission on the same channel.

A

Dispatch

368
Q

A request for ____ response must include a detailed size up of the situation. Along with the suspected or known product identification, include the estimated amount of release, the most desirable rout to the location, and the location of the staging area.

A

HAZMAT

369
Q

The standard response to our ___ request will recieve one squad car, and one automatic back up unit.

A

code 3

370
Q

Transmission of the term ____ will generate a code 3 IPD response and dispatch 2 IPD officers to the last known location of the member in peril.

A

code blue

371
Q

Each battalion chief is responsible to ensure all companies within their battalion have successfully logged on to their MDC by ____ each morning.

A

0800

372
Q

The purpose of the ____ is to have a fully equipped rescue team consisting of at least two members that is on site and in a ready state to immediately react and respond to rescue injured or trapped firefighters.

A

Rapid intervention crew

373
Q

The ___ will designate the location of the RIC staging area.

A

IC

374
Q

______: single shift recall. utilized when a large number or personnel are needed to mitigate an existing emergency.

A

level 2 recall

375
Q

For a ____ recall, the last shift to be relieved shall be the shift that is designated to return to duty.

A

Level 2

376
Q

______: a complete and total recall of all off-duty IFD personnel

A

Level 3 recall.

377
Q

Battalion chiefs and/or acting battalion chiefs shall have the authority to issue ____ recalls as necessary, to ensure operational effectiveness.

A

Level 1

378
Q

When a Level ___ recall is issued for all off-duty IFD personnel, members assigned to fire prevention division shall be recalled if off-duty.

A

3

379
Q

In the event that a level 2 or level 3 recall is ordered, the _____ shall report to the alarm office if off duty.

A

Captain of fire communications

380
Q

The _______ shall ensure that contact information for all Irving Fire Department personnel is kept current.

A

Captain of fire communications

381
Q

All IFD personnel recalled shall be compensated with a minimum of ___ hours of pay at the overtime rate per the city of Irving employee policy.

A

2

382
Q

If possible, ____ will be cordoned off with barrier tape to clearly define the area.

A

rehab

383
Q

_____ should be established on every incident where the donning of chemical protective equipment will be required.

A

Rehab operations

384
Q

Air/light 555 will be dispatched on any ___ alarm or greater fire and may also be requested by the IC at any time during an emergency event.

A

2nd

385
Q

Progression to a ____ alarm or greater will require the IC to designate 3 additional members to the rehab group, will at least 2 being paramedics.

A

2nd

386
Q

Carbon monoxide level above ___ will be considered mandatory transport.

A

20

387
Q

company officers will immediately report their ____ in R&R directly to the rehab group officer.

A

arrival

388
Q

Each RIC that enters the building will require the formation of ___ additional RICs outside the entry point.

A

2

389
Q

__________ for a rope rescue incident: An IFD member that has successfully completed 40 hours of Rope Rescue operations level training in accordance with NFPA 1006 and successfully completed 40 additional hours of Rope rescue technician level training in accordance with NFPA.

A

Properly trained persons

390
Q

_____: staffed by the IFD member trained to the awareness level, responsible for the safe set up and operation of the belay system.

A

Belay line

391
Q

At a minimum, the main haul system of a rope rescue will include ____ feet of ½” red rescue rope.

A

400

392
Q

Operations at all structure fires must include, as the first priority, _________.

A

searches for occupants and/or victims

393
Q

The ____ is to verify the absence of or presence of victims.

A

secondary search

394
Q

The tactical paramedic team is a specialty team that reports through the chain-of-command under the _________.

A

Assistant chief operations

395
Q

Once on the scene of an incident or training exercise, IFD tactical paramedics will be directed and supervised by the ________ chain of command.

A

IPD tactical section.

396
Q

_______: when the police department encounters incidents involving barricaded persons, hostage situations, and active shooters or other immediate life threatening tactical situations.

A

Call out

397
Q

______: when the police department encounters incidents involving high risk warrants.

A

Request

398
Q

Any condition or reason that would prevent a member from reporting for regular shift duty as a paramedic or firefighter will be a reason to prevent activation as a ________ member.

A

tactical paramedic team

399
Q

The IPD tactical team supervisor will initiate a “call out” for tactical paramedics through _____ paging system.

A

IPD tactical

400
Q

The chief and all assistant chiefs will be paged by the _______ on all tactical paramedic deployments

A

Fire Dispatch CAD system.

401
Q

After the warrant is completed, the tactical paramedics will notify ____ of the correct location and hours of overtime worked.

A

fire dispatch

402
Q

Tactical paramedic duties include dealing with medical emergencies and/or trauma that may occur within the context of ______.

A

police tactical operations

403
Q

Tactical paramedic duties include attending training quarterly with approval of _______.

A

assistant chief/safety and career development

404
Q

The TRT as well as ____ will be called on all rescues involving cave-ins, persons trapped in shafts/holes, confined space rescues, and trench rescue.

A

water utilities

405
Q

Water, plastics, glass, and shiny surfaces are all an effective barrier for the ____ and may cause a reflective image.

A

TIC

406
Q

The thermal imager is ______ and could produce a spark.

A

not intrinsically safe

407
Q

____: in general, a temporary and narrow excavation in which the depth of the trench is greater than the width.

A

Trench

408
Q

For purposes of the trench rescue policy, trenches will be defined as any manmade or natural depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, of ___ feet deep or greater.

A

5

409
Q

If any of the following are present, the IFD will consider the trench unsafe:

A

collapse has already occurred, spoil pile closer than 2 from the edge, water in the trench without a water removal system, or heavy equipment operating within two feet of the trench.

410
Q

The alarm office will dispatch the first due engine, truck, medic, BC, EMS supervisor, and the TRT when a rescue is known to involve a ____.

A

trench.

411
Q

____ will be utilized on all trench rescue incidents

A

ground pads (4x8 sheets of ½” plywood)

412
Q

_____ for trench egress will be placed in a minimum of 2 places within the trench

A

ground ladders

413
Q

When placing ladders for a trench rescue, placing will be as close as practical to the rescue area and not more than ___ feet away from the rescue area.

A

25

414
Q

A minimum of ___ sets of shoring panels will be placed in a trench rescue.

A

3

415
Q

The TRT ____ will complete and maintain the “trench rescue organizational board.”

A

safety officer

416
Q

All rescue commands will come from the ____ or his/her designees.

A

TRT officer

417
Q

______: this job function is arguably the most dangerous part of our jobs and must always be treated with that in mind.

A

Traffic incident management

418
Q

The ___ will be an area that is protected by apparatus and will be the location in which personnel can perform their duties.

A

safety zone

419
Q

At all times, one member must remain in the cab of the truck to serve as an ______.

A

upstream spotter.

420
Q

Anytime a major thoroughfare is closed, one ____ will be dispatched

A

one EMS officer

421
Q

The primary role of the EMS officer anytime a major thoroughfare is closed is to act as a ____ and warn personnel of incoming vehicles that may post a threat to on-scene operations.

A

downstream spotter

422
Q

_____ will keep a supply of blue team Wendy helmets to be used for interns.

A

521 and 522

423
Q

Turn off all emergency vehicle ______ that are not contributing to the lighting of the emergency scene and turn on all clearance and marker lights and emergency warning lights.

A

headlights and spotlights

424
Q

IPD vehicles should be offered position within the ___ to deter motorists from dipping back into the work zone after passing the blocker while providing a safe working environment for IPD officers.

A

shadow

425
Q

Use Fire department apparatus to block at least ___ additional lane more than already obstructed by the involved vehicles

A

1

426
Q

A truck company and blocker when dispatched to all incidents on limited access, high volume expressways, and highways will establish and upstream block occupying a minimum of ___ lanes plus the paved shoulder.

A

2

427
Q

Once a tiller is positioned on a high volume expressway or highway, the _____ will exit the cab on the non-traffic side and proceed to join their crew inside the main cab of the apparatus.

A

rear tiller driver

428
Q

Truck crews shall not leave the confines of the apparatus to assist on the accident scene unless ______ is requested.

A

Extrication or manpower

429
Q

The primary purpose of the ___ is to be alert to upstream, and if possible, downstream traffic issues.

A

truck crew

430
Q

A ____ should be used by the truck crew to audibly warn all operating personnel of a concern for the actions of an approaching motorist.

A

series of long horn blasts

431
Q

______ will be notified anytime the alarm office contacts the towing company to request a tow truck on location.

A

IPD dispatch

432
Q

________: several roadway construction companies operate a rolling safety barrier vehicle. These vehicles are equipped with appropriate crash barriers and directional signage.

A

Prive Entity Blocking Apparatus (PEBA)

433
Q

On major thoroughfares under construction, the alarm office shall request the respective company to deploy their ____ to the scene.

A

PEBA

434
Q

If no PEBA has arrived on scene within ___ minutes, the IC will notify the alarm office.

A

30

435
Q

Bags of oil sorb to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

15

436
Q

Flares to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

2 boxes

437
Q

traffic cones to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

10

438
Q

HAZMAT booms to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

2 boxes.

439
Q

Street brooms to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

2

440
Q

Scoop shovels to be carried on blockers as a minimum.

A

2

441
Q

Blocker station captains shall ensure their oil sorb reserve inventory is maintained at ___ extra bags.

A

5

442
Q

Prior to ____ of each year, station captains at blocker stations are responsible to check the integrity of the gel inside the water tank.

A

September 15th

443
Q

The sodium polyacrylate concentration to constitute the gel in the blocker tank is ____ pounds of powder to 500 gallons of water.

A

50

444
Q

Requests for blocker usage other than protection for first responders and their apparatus requires approval from the ______.

A

Assistant chief, operations.

445
Q

Should IPD contact the alarm office asking for addition equipment during blocking operations, verify that the ____ is aware of the need and agrees with the request prior to dispatch.

A

IFD OIC.

446
Q

Vehicle fires in parking garages will be dispatched as a ____.

A

structure fire.

447
Q

Incident commanders are reminded that _____ may be a useful consideration when it comes to vehicle fires in parking garages.

A

booster 9

448
Q

The required clearance of parking structure per code is ___ ft and booster 9 is 6’ 6” tall.

A

7

449
Q

_____ drivers should not enter a structure with a clearance of equal to or less than 6’8” tall due to possible damage if the vehicle should bounce while moving.

A

Booster 9

450
Q

If a vehicle is on fire in a parking garage at or below the ___ floor, locate the stairs closes to the fire upwind and deploy the 2 ½ preconnect.

A

3rd

451
Q

If vehicle is on fire in a parking garage on the ___ floor or above, use the standpipe for fire attack operations.

A

4th

452
Q

The second due engine on a vehicle fire in a parking garage will assist the first engine if the fire is located on the ___ floor or below.

A

3rd

453
Q

The second due engine on a vehicle fire in a parking garage will perform attack if vehicle is on ___ floor or above using the standpipe system.

A

4th

454
Q

The ____ on a vehicle fire in a parking garage should be position as a water supply should the standpipe system be inoperable.

A

first due truck

455
Q

When possible, members assigned to station 1 shall be certified to the minimum of ____.

A

swift water rescue technician 2 level.

456
Q

_____ at station 1 is responsible for coordingating all training for the water rescue team to be supervised by a BC as assigned by the chief of department.

A

one captain

457
Q

Each water rescue team member will receive a minimum of ___ hours of continuing education each year as per subject breakdowns on the water rescue training sheet.

A

16

458
Q

All requests for repair to, replacement of or additions to the water rescue team inventory of equipment will be directed to the _______.

A

assistant chief, special services.

459
Q

_____: include drownings, entrapments, and other perils that occur in swimming pools, ponds, dammed levees, and other areas in which water is not flowing in a downstream manner and rescues will be made by direct contact without the use of a rescue boat.

A

high water rescues

460
Q

The initial response to a high water rescue will include:

A

BC, engine or truck company, and a MICU

461
Q

_____ is required in areas where contact rescues are not possible and boat rescue is required.

A

open water rescue

462
Q

The initial response to a open water rescue is:

A

BC, nearest engine or truck company, MICU and boat 1 with the water rescue team.

463
Q

______ is required when victims are imperiled in areas of moving water where water depth, velocity, and terrain, increase risk to victims and rescuers requiring special precautions.

A

swift water rescue.

464
Q

The initial response to a swift water rescue will include:

A

box alarm assignment, rescue 6, the water rescue team, boat 1, and a MICU.

465
Q

____ requests will be accepted only from the person or agency in charge of the existing operation.

A

Underwater recover.

466
Q

In response to an underwater recovery, the initial dispatch will be:

A

BC, water rescue team, and one other company, for a total of 2 companies.

467
Q

During emergency operations on a water rescue even, the incident command system should be rapidly initiated with operations and _____ sections assigned as a minimum.

A

logistics

468
Q

The first arriving unit on a search and rescue (water rescue) even will become the ______, establish incident command, and attempt to locate and account for all victims.

A

search team.

469
Q

in search and rescue group procedures during a water rescue even, if conditions are such that a victim may be washed downstream faster than the search team can travel, a ____ will be assigned well downstream to a location where resources can be staged prior to the arrival of the victim.

A

hasty team.

470
Q

In the medical group procedures on a water rescue, the first responding MICU will establish the medical group with the MICU driver acting as the ______.

A

Medical group officer

471
Q

In safety group procedures of a water rescue, the second priority is to assign an upstream spotter 50-100 yards upstream from the rescue site to alert rescuers downstream of ____ that can hinder a rescue or endanger personnel.

A

floating objects

472
Q

_____ on a water rescue shall be assigned below the rescue site to assist in contact rescue or victims or rescuers swept downstream.

A

Downstream safety’s

473
Q

The _____ should be equipped with a minimum of two throw bags. (water rescue)

A

Downstream safety’s

474
Q

On water rescue events, _______ will serve as the logistics section commander.

A

rescue 6 officer.

475
Q

All members assigned to the water rescue team shall complete the IFD water rescue curriculum within ______.

A

the first year of assignment.

476
Q

As a minimum, the IC of a water rescue event should insure the member appointed safety group officer has been trained in _______.

A

IFD water rescue procedures.

477
Q

Station 1 captains will assure that water rescue team equipment is inspected on the ____ of each month for defects and damage, and the accurate records of all inspections are maintained.

A

15th.

478
Q

When any rope is used in a rescue incident effort, that rope will be immediately removed from service until a _____ has inspected the rope and given approval for its return to service.

A

Rescue team captain

479
Q

Equipment contracted of metal will be inspected for fractures, cracks, or defects by being X-rayed if that have been dropped over ___ feet.

A

3

480
Q

Level ____ decon procedures on a water rescue incident should be used in areas where there is potential for exposure to general contaminates and the water is standing or moving slowly.

A

1

481
Q

After completing assignments in floodwaters, all affected members must wash their hands and face with clean water and _____.

A

anti-microbial soap.

482
Q

Level ___ decon procedures on a water rescue should be used any time ____ is identified or likely to be present.

A

HAZMAT

483
Q

The IC and SDO of a water rescue should be notified if any personnel require level ___ decon.

A

2

484
Q

All personnel should have 1 hour, 12 hour, and a 24 hour medical check following exposure to HAZMAT in a water rescue. (level ____ decon)

A

2

485
Q

After exiting water containing hazardous materials, even for short periods during the rescue operations, members should go through a _____ with soap and clean water.

A

scrub gross decon wash

486
Q

All equipment exposed to hazardous materials in a water rescue should be sprayed with 1:10 bleach solution or other agents as recommended and allowed to stand for _____.

A

15 minutes.

487
Q

Units requiring Level __ decon after a water rescue should be taken out of service until all equipment has been cleaned and dried.

A

2