Fire Service Technical Search and Rescue Flashcards
The consistent use of an ____ to coordinate the activities of rescuers increases the likelihood of a successful outcome for victims and decreases the likelihood of responder injury or death.
Incident Management System
____: application of special knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely resolve unique and/or complex rescue situations.
Technical rescue
_____: individual who has been trained to perform or direct a variety of unique and/or complex rescue situations.
Technical rescuer
The NFPA establishes ____ levels of technical rescuer in each discipline
2
All ____ should be fully documented with lessons learned to identify additional training needs.
training and operational responses
All training evolutions should be well planned and organized, with ___ being the foremost consideration.
safety
Staffing levels, equipment availability, and SOP’s determine when and to what extent the ____ will be implemented at any given incident.
IMS
An ___ is useful for both large and small departments, but can be especially beneficial to smaller departments that are not accustomed to working large scale incidents.
IMS
The first emergency services responder arriving on the scene should initiate the ___.
IMS
____: written or unwritten plan for the disposition of an incident; contains the overall strategic goals, tactical objectives, and support requirements for a given operational period during an incident.
Incident action plan.
____: in the incident command system, a shared command role in which all agencies with geographical or functional responsibility establish a common set of incident objectives and strategies.
United command
_____: location at which the IC and command staff direct, order, and control resources at an incident.
Incident command post
Having sufficient ___ at the scene will help ensure the safety of all involved.
resources
Every rescue operation requires that the ____ function be carried out.
Incident safety officer.
ON larger incidents, the IC should assign the ____ function to a qualified responder whose only responsibility is to observe the operation and make sure that it is conducted in the safest manner possible.
Safety officer
_____: System of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes intended to limit the number of persons exposed to a hazard and to facilitate its mitigation.
Hazard control zone.
_____ communication is preferred whenever the physical arrangement of the scene allows.
face-to-face
Regardless of the system that is utilized by the agency, it is important that both primary and backup ____ and signal be known, recognized, and practiced by all team members.
communication systems
All personnel at a rescue incident or training evolution should be familiar with the ____ before deployment into the hazard zone.
communications plan
The success or failure of a rescue operations often depends on the ability of the rescue team to develop a clear idea of the _____.
exact nature of the problem .
Even before the first due rescue unit arrives at the scene, the officer in charge and every other member of the crew should begin to _____.
size up the incident.
_____ are not emergencies and rescuers should conduct these operations slowly, cautiously, and take less risk than they might in rescuing live victims.
Body recoveries
The ____ must decide when and if he potential benefits justify the risks to rescue personnel.
IC
The ___ first priority must be rescuer safety and the second priority victim safety
IC’s
Large scale rescue operations that are expected to last many operational periods may require the establishment of ____ to support operational personnel.
infrastructure
Few, if any, jurisdictions have the ability to manage every possible rescue scenario without the ____.
assistance of outside resources.
The technical rescue disciplines identified in NFPA 1006 can be separated into two general categories:
land based and water based rescues.
What are the 4 land based rescue disciplines?
Rope rescue, confined space rescue, trench rescue, and structural collapse rescue.
All helmets used in land based rescue incidents should conform to NFPA ___.
1951 or 1971.
Only ____ accessories should be mounted on helmets used in a potentially flammable or explosive environment.
intrinsically safe
To protect their eyes, rescuers should use goggles or safety glasses that meet the requirements of ____.
ANSI Z87.1
____ alone do not provide an adequate level of eye protection for most technical rescue operations.
helmet face shields.
Firefighters exposed to any noise in excess of ___ must be provided with appropriate hearing protection.
90 dB.
Hearing protection devices should have a noise reduction rating of at least ___.
20 dB
NFPA ____ lists specific requirements for the amount of reflective striping necessary on structural PPE.
1971
All structural PPE must conform to the requirements listed in NFPA ___.
1971
____ are the primary type of glove used for land based rescue work.
leather work gloves
Gloves used for technical rescue must conform to requirements established by NFPA ___.
1951
NFPA ____ identifies 3 categories of life safety harnesses.
1983
Only the Class ___ harness offers full security for rescuers in all environments.
III
Class ___ harness is intended for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 pounds.
I
Class ___ harness may be used in rescues with up to a 600 lb load.
II
Class ____ are not commonly used in rescue applications because they offer no upper body protection and require the user to remain in a relatively upright position.
I and II
Also known as a full body harness.
Class III harness
Harness designed to support a 600 lb load.
Class II and III
PPE used for water based rescues must conform to the standards identified in NFPA ___.
1952
____ for water rescue are designed to minimize drag when moving through the water.
helmets
___ are also available that protect rescuers from contaminants in water such as chemicals, sewage, or other harmful materials.
drysuits
Gloves worn during ____ operations should provide a measure of thermal insulation.
water-based rescue
______: any atmosphere containing less than 19.5% oxygen found in atmospheric air.
oxygen deficient atmosphere.
All personnel within ___ ft of the waters edge, entering the water, or riding in water borne craft must wear PFD approved by the US coast guard.
10
The standard outlined in NFPA 1952 calls for personnel engaged in water rescue operations to use a ____ vest with at least 22 lbs of buoyancy.
type V
_____ and SABA draw breathing air form the source of supply and discharge the exhaust air into the atmosphere.
Open circuit SCBA
_____ draw air from the source, contain the exhaust air within the unit, filter out the carbon dioxide, reoxygenate the air, and resupply it to the wearer.
Closed circuit SCBA
All SCBA must be of the ___ type and meet the requirements of NFPA 1981.
positive pressure
The ___ prevents the contaminated atmosphere from entering the facepiece in case the face piece leaks.
positive pressure
NFPA ___ prevents wearing facial hair that prevents a complete seal between the face piece and the wearers face.
1500
Any noted service times represent the ___ amount of working time to be expected from a full cylinder under controlled circumstances.
maximum
____ are intended to enable the rescuer to egress to a safe area in the event of a problem with the primary air supply.
Supplied air respirators.
Hoses up to ___ft may be used with supplied air respirators.
300ft
____ offers rescuers the ability to operate with a smaller profile which is particularly advantageous in confined space rescue and also allows the rescuer to remain in a potentially hazardous atmosphere for much longer than possible with an SCBA.
SAR
____ SCBA use a small cylinder containing pure oxygen instead of a larger cylinder containing compressed air.
closed circuit.
___ are designed to filter particulate matter or specific airborne contaminants.
APR
_____ must be at least 99.97% efficient at removing particles as small as 0.3 micrometers in diameter and are used to protect against airborne pathogens during medical responses.
HEPA filters (high efficiency particulate air)
____ should not be used in oxygen deficient atmospheres.
APR
____: the practice of preventing transmission of biological pathogen, when providing first aid or health care.
Universal precautions.
____ is the practice of containing blood and bodily fluids to minimize disease transmission.
BSI (body substance isolation)
____: the process of removing hazardous foreign substance from a person, clothing, or area.
decontamination
____ must occur at the incident site to prevent contaminants from being carried to the fire station.
primary decontamination
Fire stations should comply with the requirements in NFPA ____ for performing secondary decontamination at the station.
1500
Whenever possible, ____ should be used with short, quick strokes.
striking tools.
____: tools characterized by large weighted heads on handles.
striking tools
____: hand tools that use the principle of leverage to allow the rescuer to exert more force than would be possible without the tool.
Prying tools
____: action or mechanical power of a lever.
leverage
______: Advantage created when levers, pulleys, and tools are used to make work easier.
mechanical advantage.
____: support or point of support on which a lever pivots in raising or moving a load.
Fulcrum
___ tools are generally safer than striker tools.
prying
It is unsafe to use a ___ on a prying tool.
cheater bar
____: hand or power tool used to cut a specific kind of material.
cutting tool
____: chopping tool with a thin arched blade set at a right angle to the handle or a wedge shaped blade attached at right angles to the handle of the tool.
Adze
_____ are characterized by a heavy metal head with a cutting edge that is attached to a long handle.
chopping tools
____ are perhaps the most diversified of the tool group.
Cutting tools
Using ___ type tools is generally safer than using other types of cutting devices when working close to a victim.
snipping
____ generally work best when the distance between the surface and the object to be stabilized is less than 2 feet.
Jacks
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, ____ are becoming increasingly common for many shoring application.
screw jacks
For screw jacks, to maintain stability, the shaft should never be extended beyond ____ of its length.
2/3
____ should be used for stabilization only and should not be used for lifting.
screw jacks
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, ____ are sometimes used to replace wooden cross braces in trench rescue applications.
trench screw jacks
The only substantial difference between using jacks and wooden cribbing components is that when the distance between the uprights has been determined, the pipe for the jack should be cut ___ shorter than the measurement
8 inches
____ are sized for use with 4x4 or 6x6 lumber and do not have the 6 foot limitation of pipe based screw jacks.
ellis jacks
_____ jacks are most commonly used in structural collapse rescue shoring.
Bar screw
____ are classified as medium duty jacks
ratchet lever jack
____ are the least stable of all the various types of jacks.
ratchet lever jacks
____ receive their power from hydraulic fluid pumped through special high pressure hoses.
powered hydraulic tools
______ were the first powered hydraulic tools to become available to the fire/rescue service.
Powered hydraulic spreaders.
____ are capable of cutting almost any metal object that can fit between their blades, although some cannot cut case hardened steel.
Hydraulic shears
To prevent damage to the blades on hydraulic cutters, cuts should be made at ___.
90 degrees
____ are designed primarily for straight pushing operations although they are effective at pulling as well.
extension rams
____: manually operated hydraulic tool that has been adapted from the auto body business to the rescue device.
Porta-power
The primary advantages of the ____ over the other hydraulic tools are its portability and accessories that allow it to be operated in narrow places in which jacks and other hydraulic tools either will not fit or cannot be operated.
manual hydraulic tools (Porta-Power)
Most ___ have a lifting capacity of up to 20 tons
hydraulic jacks
____ are good for cutting medium to heavy gauge sheet metal and for popping rivets and bolts.
Pneumatic air chisels.
_____: tool designed to operate at air pressures between 100 and 150 PSI and during periods of normal consumption it will use about 4-5 cubic feet of compressed air per minute.
Pneumatic chisels
____ this tool when operated at 90-100 PSI, will have the exit velocity of the air at the nozzle close to mach 2.
Air Knife
___ can almost instantly create a hole 1 foot in diameter and 1 foot deep.
Air knives
___ this tool is closely related to the air knife but operates at slightly less pressure.
Air vaccuum
___ are tools that can be used to vacuum loose soil from around victims buried in a trench collapse.
Air vaccuums
At about 2 lbs, the ___ weighs about 1/10 as much as a circular saw making it much more maneuverable.
whizzer saw
The largest ____ can lift lift approximately 75 tons one inch.
high pressure air bags
Plywood and other rigid material placed between an ___ and an object can be forcefully ejected if the bag distorts under pressure.
air bag
Avoid positioning air bags against materials that are hotter than ___.
220 degrees F
____ are considerably larger than high pressure bags and are most commonly used to lift or stabilize large vehicles or objects.
low and medium pressure air bags
A low or medium pressure lifting bag may be capable of lifting an object ___ above its original position.
6ft
____ generally operate on 7-10 PSI.
low pressure bags
_____ generally operate at 12-15 PSI
medium pressure bags
Pressurized air bags should never be stacked more than __ high.
2
Never use ___ to power pneumatic tools.
compressed oxygen.
Specifically, ___ refers to creating a base to stabilize an object in conjunction with a lifting that are in danger of collapse or secondary collapse
cribbing
____ is vitally important when either the victim or rescuers are in a potentially dangerous environment.
stabilization.
____ is one of the best resources for stabilizing horizontal objects because of its strength and ease of construction.
Wood cribbing
Another advantage of ____ is that it provides an audible indication as it reaches its failure point.
wood cribbing.
For maximum stability, cribbing should be built in a ____ configuration using three members per layer.
cross-tie
Cribbing can be effectively applied to vertical openings equal to a maximum of ____ times its length.
three
If rescuers must work under a heavy horizontal object, such as a collapsed wall, cribbing should be installed on both sides of the entry point and not more than ___ ft apart.
4
_____: angle cut piece of timber used to ensure close contact between shoring and loads, fill in voids, or change the angle of thrust.
shims
____: shims used in pairs to provide close contact between shoring system and the supported load.
wedge
____ material is similar to cribbing but is generally much longer and of larger cross-sectional dimensions, usually 6x6
wooden shoring.
Pneumatic or hydraulic shores have a minimum load capacity rating of ____.
10 tons
The operating range of most pneumatic shows is from ___ to ___ PSI.
100, 350
All pneumatic shores have some type of ___ device to keep the unit from retracting when the air pressure is released.
positive locking
The top and bottom shore are installed within ___ feet of the top and bottom of the trench.
2
A difference in ___ as compared to pneumatic shoring is that they do not typically have a wide variety of available configurations that allow use beyond the horizontal or vertical plane.
Hydraulic shores
____ often produce flying debris and sparks when cutting.
rotary saws
Putting water on a blade that is already hot from cutting may cause the blade to _____.
shatter and disintegrate
_____ blades are designed to cut wood and can be used to cut nails in wood.
Carbide tipped (tungsten carbide)
____ blades are designed for cutting steel and certain other metals.
Abrasive
___ blades are particularly susceptible to chipping, cracking, and shattering.
abrasive
Saws should never be transported with ___ blades attached.
abrasive
___ segmented blades are very useful for specific purposes such as cutting concrete.
diamond
___ are most often used to cut pieces of wooden cribbing or shoring.
circular saws
The major limitation of a circular saw is its ____.
cutting depth, usually 3-10 inches
____ are easily controlled and well suited for cutting wood, metal, or laminated glass in vehicles.
reciprocating saws
____ are usually more controllable, maneuverable, and safer to use than circular saws and they have less of a tendency to produce sparks and flying debris.
Reciprocating saws.
____ account for 40 percent of all chain saw injuries.
Leg injuries
____ are commonly used for rescue, forcible entry, and ventilation work.
chainsaws.
____: a sudden forceful recoil or violent jerk caused by a chainsaw binding in the material it is cutting.
kickback
A dull chain increases operator fatigue and increases the risk of ____.
kickback
___ occurs when the upper tip of the bar comes in contact with a solid object.
kickback
____ occurs when the chain on the bottom of the guid bar gets pinched and the saw is pulled into the work.
pull-in
____ occurs when the chain on top of the guid bar gets pinched, which suddenly stops the chain movement.
pushback
Before removing any air filter, always ____ in order to reduce the possibility of dirt getting into the engine and causing damage.
close the choke
____ filters should be cleaned at least once per operation and more often in dusty areas.
Mesh
____ type filters should be discarded when dirty and replaced.
paper type
The fuel tank on 2-cycle engines is usually _____ with a one way valve to let air in and prevent fuel from leaking when operated at different angles.
vented
If after starting, the engine of a 2 cycle motor stalls within 10-15 seconds, the ___ may have become clogged.
one way valve
The most common exothermic cutting device carried on vehicles is still the ____.
oxyacetylene cutting torch
When preheating metal, the flame temperature is approximately 4200 degrees F for a _____ cutting torch.
Oxyacetylene
When additional pure oxygen is added to a oxyacetylene cutting torch, a flame of over ___ is created.
5700 degrees F
____ should remain upright to prevent loss of acetone.
Acetylene cylinders
The oxygasoline cutting torch produces a cutting temperature of ___ with a higher heat release rate than oxyacetylene rustling in greater heat delivery during cutting.
5200 degrees F.
The flame in ____ systems cannot travel back through the supply hose.
oxygasoline
_____ are cutting devices that consume iron in the presence of oxygen to produce a high temperature jet.
Exothermic cutting rods (burning bars_
The torch in a exothermic cutting rod feeds oxygen though the rod to produce cutting temperatures in excess of ____.
7000 degrees F.
____ are considered faster to operate than oxyacetylene torches because of the instantaneous burning of the target material results in a lower level of heat transfer.
Cutting rods
____ are also ultrahigh-temperature metal-cutting devices that produce cutting temperatures as high as 25,000 degrees F.
Plasma arc cutters
_____: pulling tool that consists of a length of steel chain or cable wrapped around a motor driven drum.
winch
______ can usually be deployed faster than other lifting/pulling devices, generally have greater travel or pulling distance, and are often much stronger.
vehicle mounted winches
_____: an accessory mechanism attached to a vehicle engine, usually linked to the transmission, that supplies power to drive a nonvehiclular device.
PTO
Do not pull with the winch for more than ___ when operating at or near the rated load capacity of the winch/cable.
one minute
When using a winch, drape a blanket, coat, or tarp over the cable approximately ____ from the hook.
5-6 feet
Never operate the winch when there are less than ___ wraps of cable around the winch drum.
5
___: manually operated pulling tool that uses a ratchet/pulley arrangement to provide a mechanical advantage.
come-along
The best chain for rescue work is ____ also known as Grade T.
Grade 80.
The minimum chain size generally used for rescue operations ___inch.
3/8
___ should not be attached directly to loads, only the chain.
Chain hooks
____ are the most dangerous hazards that rescuers encounter at a trench or building collapse.
secondary collapses
Some of the devices that can be used to detect any movement are ____, ____, and ____.
plumb lines, builders transits, and carpenters levels.
____: device used to secure any power switches on a machine to prevent accidental or otherwise undesirable re-energization of the machine.
lockout/tagout device
Any atmosphere that exceeds ___ percent oxygen is considered to be an oxygen enriched atmosphere.
23.5%.
Any atmosphere that is lower than ___ percent oxygen is considered to be an oxygen deficient atmosphere.
19.5%
Normal oxygen concentration of the air is ___.
21.5%
An atmosphere contains a flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of ___ percent of its LFL is considered hazardous.
10%
The LFL of airborne combustible grain dust can be approximated when the dust obscures vision at a distance of ___ ft.
5
Reading the ___ many indicate the presence of gases that monitoring equipment cannot identify.
oxygen levels
Using appropriate ___ is the hallmark of professionalism.
PPE
____ is required for both the management of personnel resources and the protection of responders and civilians.
Scene security
If bystanders were involved in, or witness the event, it may be appropriate to ____ in order to preserve the integrity of their statements.
separate them from eachother
While operating at a rescue incident resulting from a terrorist act, responders should anticipate ____.
the presence of one or more secondary explosive devices that are targeted specifically at emergency personnel.
_____: controlled process of leaving or being removed from a potentially hazardous location, typically involving relocating people form an area of danger or potential risk to a safer place.
evacuation
The most common method of organizing any emergency incident scene is to establish _____ as required by the hazards at the incident.
control or operating zones.
The ___ is the area where the rescue takes place. Only personnel who are directly treating or freeing the victims are allowed in this zone.
Hot zone
On larger incidents, the use of ____ allows supervisory personnel to ensure the operational readiness of personnel who are entering the hot zone.
designated access corridors
The _____ is located immediately outside of the hot zone and should be limited to personnel who are not needed in the hot zone but who are directly aiding rescuers in the hot zone.
warm zone
Treatment areas, if established at the incident, may be located in the _____.
warm zone
The ____ surrounds the other two zones and may include the ICP, the PIO’s location, and staging areas for personnel and portable equipment.
cold zone
_____ should be used to mark and identify a no-entry zone.
red/white chevron tape
Most collapses usually involve ____ and may be structural components or veneer.
brick or masonry block
Regardless of the type of communications plan that is implemented, all responders much understand the procedure for notifying their supervisors of ____.
an emergency
____ must be kept for the documentation of the incident, the personnel involved, activities performed, and resources expended.
Accurate records
Every rescuer has the right and obligation to ____ for which he or she is not qualified for or lacks the necessary resources.
refuse an assignment
____: NIMS-ICS organizational subunit responsible for a number of individual units that are assigned to perform a particular specified function.
Group
Within the limits of span of control, the ____ is responsible for the actions and coordination of groups and divisions.
IC
On larger, more complex incidents, branches may be created and an _____ should be appointed to coordinate the operations of the various branches, groups, and divisions.
operations section chief
The ____ is also responsible for coordinating, through the chain of command, with the incident commander and with other functional groups.
group supervisor
_____: specialized unit of people and equipment dedicated to performing rescue and extrication operations at the scene of an emergency.
Rescue group
____: group within the incident command system responsible for triaged the initial treatment of patients.
Treatment group
_____: system used for sorting and classifying people with injuries to determine the priority for medical treatment and transportation.
Triage
The ____ is responsible for taking stabilized victims to the appropriate medical facilities.
transportation group.
The frequency with which rescuers will need to be rotated through ___ will depend on the atmospheric conditions, type of PPE that rescuers are wearing, and the types of activities in which they are engaged.
rehab
___ areas and the personnel who operate them should be independent of operational medical groups assigned to treat victims of the incident.
rehab
Ideally, rehab areas are established out of sight of ____.
incident operations and the public
Because of the potential for injury, at least _____ should be on standby for the rescuers at significant events.
one ambulance
_____ is an essential factor in the management of resources.
Resource availability
Units, such as engine companies, that do not need to be close to the rescue area should leave room for later arriving ____.
EMS and rescue vehicles.
Emergency vehicles parked out of traffic lanes should ____ so that passing motorists are not distracted.
shut down their emergency lights
The two types of power plants that are commonly used to provide power at incidents are ____ and ____.
vehicle mounted inverters and generators
_____ can be portable or fixed to the apparatus and they are among the most common power sources used for emergency services
Generators
_____ usually have a larger power-generating capacity than portable units and generally have 110 and 220 volt capacities.
vehicle mounted generators
Many rescue agencies incident reports as part of an ____ or _____ process that identifies aspects of the incident that worked well and those that need improvement.
after action review; post incident analysis
_____: learning tool used to evaluate a project or incident to identify and encourage organizational and operational strengths and to identify and correct weaknesses.
After Action Review
_____: general overview and critique of the incident by members of all responding agencies should take place within two weeks of the actual incident.
Post-incident analysis
____ is a multi-step process that involves evaluating the potential for specific types of responses that might occur in a jurisdiction, as well as the probability of such occurrences.
pre-incident planning.
Often the _____ evaluation process will identify a facility or location within a jurisdiction that represents an unusual hazard to responders due to the nature or frequency of possible incidents.
pre-incident planning
____: how often are rescues performed in the response area?
frequency
____: have rescue incidents occurred more often during any particular time of the day, day of the week, or time of the year?
Chronological distribution.
____: Have rescue incidents occurred more often in some parts of the response area than others? Have the identified areas included or involved natural hazard areas or fabricated areas?
Geographical distribution.
____: what types of rescue incidents have occurred in the response area?
Nature of incidents
_____: What types of resources, including mutual aid and contract resources, were used in these rescue incidents?
Responding resources
____: What types of resources were needed but unavailable?
unavailable resources.
In addition to the problems inherent to small, cramped spaces with limited access, the atmosphere in these spaces are often potentially ____, ____, and may contain ____.
explosive, oxygen-deficient, toxic gases
_____ influence the potential for cave-in incidents and responders should familiarize themselves with the types of soil in all parts of their jurisdiction.
soil conditions.
Aging buildings and buildings under construction are possible sites for ____.
structural collapse
Each pre-incident plan should include a brief description of the _____.
problem being addressed
Plans should include a list of the ____ that would be required to mitigate the most likely rescue scenarios.
major resources
____ contain information that the IC can use to develop an effective incident action plan and improve the ability of responders to respond in a safe and effective manner to any incident.
site surveys
Resources that may assist in the development of a site survey for a ___ include reports of previous incidents, flood insurance maps, tide tables, and meteorological data.
body of water
Most of the hazards associated with technical search and rescue operations fall into one or more of four categories:
physical hazards, environmental hazards, water hazards, and atmospheric hazards
Victims are often found in locations that require them to be moved ______ as some point in the rescue.
vertically, either up or down,
____: any weight near the trench lip that increases instability of a trenches wall or lip, or increases the likelihood of a secondary cave in; often imposed from the spoil pile or heavy equipment
surcharge load
____: excavated materials consisting of topsoil or subsoils that have been removed and temporarily stored during the digging of a trench.
spoil pile
Two factors that have a significant effect on the stability of trench walls are ___ and ___.
surcharge loads and vibration
Responders should never take chances with any ____.
debris
Storage facilities that contain large amounts of loose and free flowing material such as grain, gravel, sand, or other dry products, present the potential for _____.
engulfment
Before responders enter areas presenting engulfment hazards, all machinery and equipment that could produce movement or shifting of materials must be shut off and marked with a ____.
lockout-tagout device
Basements and subbasements often contain ___ in which occupants can survive the initial collapse.
void spaces
As time passes after the collapse of the structure, ____ can become less habitable for victims and more hazardous for responders because of accumulated contaminants
void spaces
The scene of a technical rescue should be ____ to ensure that hazards are not hidden.
illuminated as brightly as possible
_____: smooth, non turbulent flow of a fluid that occurs at low velocities.
laminar flow
____: combination of gravity acting on water and waters movement against the river bottom
laminar flow
_____: the corkscrew like flow of water
helical flow
____: effect of waters movement against the shore.
helical flow.
______: muddy, cloudy, or murky condition of water caused by the stirring up of sediment.
turbidity
An ____ is a segment of water that is moving opposite to the main flow of the current usually because of contact with a rock or other obstruction in the waterway.
eddy
_____ are stationary objects in the water such as rocks or old car bodies, which may or may not extend to the surface and may present an entrapment hazard to victims or responders.
obstructions
____: obstructions in a waterway within the water itself just below the waterline.
strainers
Also known as a diversion dam, the ____ is one of the more dangerous hazards a water rescuer may encounter.
low head dam
Commonly called the “drowning machine” the hydraulic action of the _____ is virtually impossible to escape.
low head dam
The atmosphere should be sampled at the top, middle, and bottom of the space, or at ___ intervals.
4 foot
Because atmospheric conditions can change after responders enter a confined space, some AHJ’s require entry personnel to wear ___ whenever they are inside a confined space.
respiratory protection
____: reference materials that provide information on chemicals that are used, produces, or stored at a facility.
Safety data sheet
Phase I of the incident organizational response
Assessing the rescue incident
Phase II of the incident organizational response
Developing the incident action plan
Phase III of the incident organizational response
Implementing the IAP
Phase IV of the incident organizational response
Terminating the rescue incident
____: in a search and rescue incident, the two modes are rescue or recovery
mode of operation.
An inadequate or inaccurate understanding of an incident is a frequently cited cause of _____.
responder injury or death
The ____ process begins before the initial dispatch and continues during response and arrival.
initial assessment
Technical rescue activities generally begin with ___.
a search to locate trapped victims
_____: Process of examining an area to obtain information about the current specific situation, probable fire behavior, and other information related to fire-suppression.
reconnaissance
before committing resources to hazardous tactical activities the IC should conduct a ____.
risk-benefit analysis
For incidents that are expected to last for an extended period of time, an ____ should be requested.
updated weather forcast
A member of the responding agency should be assigned to ___ and to stay with them until such a time as they will no longer be called upon to provide information.
locate witnesses
____ use concurrent lines to show the elevation, slope, and other features of the land including peaks, ridges, and drainages.
Topographic maps
Commercially produced maps of rivers that identify and describe significant features such as rapids, waterfalls, and access points may be available for rivers that are popular with ____.
recreational floaters
____ frequently include depth surroundings and names of significant features such as bays, inlets, points, and reefs.
Marine charts
_____: information related to the movement of currently and tides in bodies of water.
hydrologic data
_____: areas which, from their nature or location, are likely to provide evidence for victim movement.
Track Traps
Marine charts, especially for coastal areas, should be used in conjunction with ___ that provides information on currents and tides.
Hydrologic data
Additional, ____ can be identified on the charts that may allow shore based rescuers to determine if victims have come ashore on their own.
track traps
At the scene of structural collapses, ____ are invaluable for determining probable survivable spaces which will assist responders in developing a search plan.
Blueprints
During responses to industrial areas, ____ are essential in the planning process for determining access routes and identifying potential hazards.
site plans
_____ show the location of underground power and communication cables, water mains, sewer lines, and other infrastructure.
Infrastructure plans
IF the incident will last for an extended period of time, an IAP may be developed that recognizes the need for dividing the incident into specific time intervals, known as _______.
Operational periods
At a minimum, the IAP should reflect the possibility that rescuers may need _____.
to be rescued themselves.
Many states, provinces, and other governmental and private entities have _____ that are available to respond to a major incident within the state.
incident management teams
A rescue group may be created within the ICS/IMS structure to improve the ____ at the incident and clarify responder roles.
span of control
The ___ is responsible for supervising and directing the actions of the rescue group and should avoid direct involvement in the rescue activities.
rescue group supervisor
An ____ should be involved in all aspects of a rescue.
incident safety officer
When more than one rescuer is to be deployed, a _____ should be identified.
team leader
