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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 3 > Flashcards

Deck 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

a. Barbell clean
b. Single-leg squat
c. Depth jump
d. Step-ups

A

d. Step-ups

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2
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?

a. Stabilization, strength, and power
b. Health, fitness, and wellness
c. Diet, exercise, and recovery
d. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance

A

a. Stabilization, strength, and power

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3
Q

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.

a. 2
b. 4.5
c. 1.5
d. 3

A

a. 2

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4
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

a. Hip hinge
b. Squatting
c. Pulling
d. Pushing

A

d. Pushing

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5
Q

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

a. Bony scoliosis
b. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis
c. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
d. Permanent scoliosis

A

c. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

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6
Q

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?

a. Parasympathetic nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Sympathetic nervous system

A

a. Parasympathetic nervous system

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7
Q

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?

a. Erector spinae
b. Multifidus
c. Internal oblique
d. Transversus abdominis

A

a. Erector spinae

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8
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?

a. Thoracic and lumbar
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Cervical and thoracic
d. Cervical and lumbar

A

d. Cervical and lumbar

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9
Q

What is a prospect?

a. An individual who has been identified as a potential client
b. A potential career advancement opportunity
c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
d. A method of creating a service identified by specific characteristics

A

a. An individual who has been identified as a potential client

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10
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?

a. Metabolic specificity
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Posture specificity
d. Neuromuscular specificity

A

b. Mechanical specificity

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11
Q

Balance is best described as which of the following?

a. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
b. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping
c. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
d. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration

A

c. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

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12
Q

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action?

a. Adherence
b. Overtraining
c. Hypertrophy
d. Goals

A

a. Adherence

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13
Q

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?

a. Registered dietitian nutritionist
b. Certified dietitian nutritionist
c. Certified nutrition specialist
d. Licensed dietitian

A

a. Registered dietitian nutritionist

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14
Q

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?

a. Obliques
b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Gluteal complex
d. Pectoral group

A

d. Pectoral group

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15
Q

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?

a. Single-leg dumbbell scaption
b. Calf raise
c. Ball cobra
d. Standing dumbbell lateral raise

A

b. Calf raise

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16
Q

At what BMI threshold does a person’s chance for obesity-related health problems increase?

a. 18.5
b. 30
c. 22.5
d. 20

A

b. 30

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17
Q

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?

a. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.
b. There is no difference.
c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
d. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label.

A

c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

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18
Q

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

a. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle
b. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature
c. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed
d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

A

d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

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19
Q

What is the superior boundary of the core?

a. Diaphragm
b. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles
c. Pelvic floor and hip musculature
d. Abdominal muscles

A

a. Diaphragm

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20
Q

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?

a. Rate of force production
b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
c. Speed
d. Explosiveness

A

b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

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21
Q

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?

a. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb
b. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
c. Standing on two limbs with eyes open
d. Standing on two limbs catching a ball

A

b. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

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22
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.
c. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.
d. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.

A

a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

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23
Q

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?

a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Glycogen

A

b. Protein

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24
Q

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?

a. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations
b. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover
c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
d. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining

A

c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

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25
Q

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?

a. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.
b. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
c. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.
d. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results.

A

b. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

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26
Q

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?

a. Left ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right atrium
d. Pulmonary veins

A

b. Left atrium

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27
Q

What is credible nutrition information?

a. Nutrition information that is reported to be true
b. Nutrition information that is believable
c. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media
d. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

A

d. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

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28
Q

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rotatores
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Iliopsoas

A

b. Rotatores

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29
Q

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?

a. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training
b. Cleaning the house
c. Sleeping
d. Running for 5 miles

A

b. Cleaning the house

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30
Q

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. An annual physical
c. PAR-Q+
d. Dietary assessment

A

c. PAR-Q+

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31
Q

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?

a. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.
b. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.
c. The attempt at jumping will fail.
d. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

A

d. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

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32
Q

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin B12

A

a. Vitamin C

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33
Q

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?

a. Cardiac output
b. Stroke volume
c. Resting heart rate
d. Venous return

A

b. Stroke volume

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34
Q

What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?

a. Spindles
b. Neuron
c. Axon
d. Nucleus

A

b. Neuron

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35
Q

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?

a. Cardiorespiratory fitness
b. Physical and mental well-being
c. Muscle imbalances
d. Flexibility

A

c. Muscle imbalances

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36
Q

What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?

a. Shoulder pain
b. Low-back pain
c. Leg pain
d. Neck pain

A

c. Leg pain

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37
Q

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?

a. Self-image
b. Self-esteem
c. Self-efficacy
d. Resilience

A

c. Self-efficacy

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38
Q

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?

a. Neuromuscular control
b. Somatosensation
c. Sensorimotor function
d. Perturbation

A

d. Perturbation

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39
Q

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

a. Increased parasympathetic nervous activity
b. Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate
c. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
d. Decreased oxygen exchange capacity

A

c. Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

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40
Q

Can supplements contain food allergens?

a. Yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be listed on the label.
b. No, because supplements are not food.
c. Yes, but only if the supplement is sourced from whole foods.
d. No, because supplements are not real food.

A

a. Yes, and if they do contain allergens, they should be listed on the label.

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41
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?

a. Flexibility
b. Blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Body composition

A

a. Flexibility

42
Q

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?

a. 3 to 5 drills
b. 1 to 3 drills
c. 10 to 15 drills
d. 6 to 10 drills

A

d. 6 to 10 drills

43
Q

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

a. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
b. What might you want to change?
c. What might work for you?
d. Why don’t you want to change?

A

d. Why don’t you want to change?

44
Q

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?

a. Kyphotic positioning
b. Excessive lordotic position
c. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. In a neutral position

A

d. In a neutral position

45
Q

What is the imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides?

a. The frontal plane
b. The sagittal plane
c. The coronal plane
d. The transverse plane

A

b. The sagittal plane

46
Q

Which vitamin is the most transient?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin A

A

a. Vitamin C

47
Q

Which of the following is required for fat loss?

a. Low-fat foods
b. Low-calorie foods
c. High-intensity exercise
d. A net deficit in caloric intake

A

d. A net deficit in caloric intake

48
Q

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?

a. Reflective listening
b. Collecting summaries
c. Motivational interviewing
d. Affirming

A

c. Motivational interviewing

49
Q

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

a. Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.
b. Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.
c. The individual is tired from the test.
d. The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.

A

c. The individual is tired from the test.

50
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?

a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
b. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
d. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

A

b. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

51
Q

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?

a. Caffeine
b. Creatine
c. Hordenine
d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

A

d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

52
Q

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

a. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going
d. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise

A

b. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

53
Q

Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration?

a. Water mixed with fruit juice
b. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
c. Plain water
d. Fruit juice

A

b. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water

54
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

a. Flat floor
b. Seated weight-training exercises
c. Proprioceptively enriched
d. Static balance

A

c. Proprioceptively enriched

55
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?

a. Palmitic acid
b. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
c. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)
d. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)

A

a. Palmitic acid

56
Q

The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators?

a. An individual’s habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep
b. An individual’s current level of physical activity, age, and weight
c. An individual’s current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual’s desired exercise intensity
d. An individual’s desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender

A

c. An individual’s current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual’s desired exercise intensity

57
Q

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?

a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
b. Thermic effect of food
c. Exercise activity thermogenesis
d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

A

d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

58
Q

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?

a. Power
b. Speed
c. Change of direction
d. Strength

A

c. Change of direction

59
Q

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?

a. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain
b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation

A

b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

60
Q

What does EMG stand for?

a. Elektrokardiogramm
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Electromagnetic spectrum
d. Electromyography

A

d. Electromyography

61
Q

When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in?

a. Precontemplation
b. Maintenance
c. Contemplation
d. Action

A

c. Contemplation

62
Q

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?

a. Suspended bodyweight training
b. Terra-Core
c. Cable machines
d. TRX Rip Trainer

A

c. Cable machines

63
Q

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?

a. Brand-new workout clothes
b. Jeans and a polo shirt
c. Business casual
d. Professional business attire

A

d. Professional business attire

64
Q

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?

a. An affirmation
b. Change talk
c. Sustain talk
d. A collecting summary

A

c. Sustain talk

65
Q

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a. X-X-X-X
b. 2-0-2-0
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 4-2-1-1

A

d. 4-2-1-1

66
Q

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

a. Suspended bodyweight training
b. Medicine ball
c. Resistance band
d. Kettlebell

A

b. Medicine ball

67
Q

How is osteopenia best described?

a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency.
b. A disease characterized by low bone density.
c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
d. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.

A

c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

68
Q

A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss. What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of practice?

a. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, then suggest that she look up weight-loss meal plans on the internet.
b. Agree to review her diet and provide her with a meal plan with specific recommendations for calories and macronutrients.
c. Provide her with an online 1,200-calorie meal plan for weight loss.
d. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.

A

d. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.

69
Q

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

a. Outcome expectations
b. Attitudes
c. Self-efficacy
d. Intention

A

c. Self-efficacy

70
Q

Which law of thermodynamics states that energy in a system cannot be created or destroyed but can only be converted from one form to another?

a. The first law of thermodynamics
b. The second law of thermodynamics
c. The third law of thermodynamics
d. The fourth law of thermodynamics

A

a. The first law of thermodynamics

71
Q

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?

a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
b. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation
c. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

A

d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

72
Q

The B vitamins have a primary role in what?

a. Muscle contraction
b. Macronutrient metabolism
c. Cancer prevention
d. Hydration

A

b. Macronutrient metabolism

73
Q

What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?

a. Optional Performance Testing
b. Optional Practical Training
c. Optimum Performance Training
d. Optimum Peak Teaching

A

c. Optimum Performance Training

74
Q

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?

a. Standing cobra
b. Floor bridge
c. Reverse crunch
d. Knee-up

A

a. Standing cobra

75
Q

What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?

a. Strength
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Muscular endurance
d. Stabilization

A

d. Stabilization

76
Q

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?

a. Supine floor crunches
b. Stability ball Russian twist
c. Incline plank
d. Supine reverse crunches

A

c. Incline plank

77
Q

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?

a. 1 or 2 drills
b. 7 to 9 drills
c. 4 to 6 drills
d. 9 or 10 drills

A

c. 4 to 6 drills

78
Q

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?

a. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.
b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
c. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands.
d. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average.

A

b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

79
Q

What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?

a. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
b. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families
c. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

A

d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

80
Q

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?

a. Being motivated by a fear of failure
b. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors
c. A drive to be good at something
d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

A

d. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

81
Q

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?

a. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
b. Keeping the feet facing inward
c. Allowing the gaze to move freely
d. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips

A

a. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

82
Q

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client’s current state and making a change, what is lacking?

a. Motivation
b. Autonomy
c. Self-efficacy
d. Positive outcome expectation

A

a. Motivation

83
Q

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?

a. Condyloid
b. Nonsynovial
c. Synovial
d. Nonaxial

A

d. Nonaxial

84
Q

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?

a. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain.
b. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management.
c. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories.
d. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

A

d. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

85
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

a. Ice skaters
b. Depth jumps
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Squat jump

A

a. Ice skaters

86
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

a. Sitting
b. Standing
c. Lying down on back
d. Kneeling

A

b. Standing

87
Q

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

a. As exhaled carbon dioxide
b. As exhaled oxygen
c. As water
d. As ATP

A

a. As exhaled carbon dioxide

88
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?

a. Anterior tibialis
b. Subscapularis
c. Scalenes
d. Infraspinatus

A

b. Subscapularis

89
Q

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?

a. Peripheral arterial disease
b. Osteoporosis
c. Restrictive lung disease
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

c. Restrictive lung disease

90
Q

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?

a. Trans fats
b. Omega-6 fatty acids
c. Saturated fats
d. Omega-3 fatty acids

A

d. Omega-3 fatty acids

91
Q

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?

a. Walking
b. Sleeping
c. Structured exercise
d. Eating

A

a. Walking

92
Q

Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland?

a. Hypothalamus
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Liver

A

a. Hypothalamus

93
Q

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?

a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
d. Single-leg hop forward

A

a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

94
Q

Which of the following is true about cholesterol?

a. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.
b. One can live without cholesterol.
c. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs.
d. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

A

d. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

95
Q

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

a. Force production
b. Motor unit recruitment
c. Functional movement
d. Tissue overload

A

d. Tissue overload

96
Q

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?

a. Speed
b. Quickness
c. Power
d. Agility

A

a. Speed

97
Q

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

a. Full-depth squat
b. Butt to heels
c. Knees to 45 degrees
d. Femur parallel to ground

A

d. Femur parallel to ground

98
Q

Javier has recently earned his NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and is starting to apply to health clubs for his first job as a personal trainer. Which job from his previous non-fitness industry work experience demonstrates qualities that would best be applicable to personal training?

a. Driver for a ride-sharing service
b. Restaurant server
c. Nightclub security guard
d. Warehouse worker

A

b. Restaurant server

99
Q

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?

a. Balance beam
b. Foam pad
c. Firm surface
d. BOSU ball

A

d. BOSU ball

100
Q

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?

a. Drawing-in maneuver
b. Back squat
c. Bracing
d. Medicine ball throw

A

a. Drawing-in maneuver

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