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Certified Personal Trainer Course > Deck 4 > Flashcards

Deck 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?

a. Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading
b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
c. Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading
d. Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

A

b. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

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2
Q

It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling.

a. Older individuals
b. Those with ankle sprains
c. Young females
d. College athletes

A

a. Older individuals

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3
Q

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:

a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
c. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
d. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

A

b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

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4
Q

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?

a. Supine reverse crunches
b. Supine floor crunches
c. Stability ball Russian twist
d. Incline plank

A

d. Incline plank

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5
Q

What principle describes the nervous system’s ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?

a. All-or-nothing principle
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Concentric control
d. Eccentric control

A

b. Neuromuscular efficiency

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6
Q

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?

a. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising
b. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance
c. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising
d. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema

A

b. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

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7
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?

a. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
b. Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”
c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.
d. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers.

A

a. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

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8
Q

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients?

a. Choosing only small step boxes
b. Letting the client choose the box size
c. Choosing the highest box available
d. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

A

d. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

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9
Q

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct?

a. Social influence
b. Social connections
c. Social ambivalence
d. Social pressure

A

a. Social influence

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10
Q

When is a muscle considered overactive?

a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation
b. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity
c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
d. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment

A

c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

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11
Q

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

a. Strength assessments
b. PAR-Q+
c. Body composition assessments
d. Movement assessments

A

d. Movement assessments

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12
Q

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?

a. The Tanaka formula
b. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula
c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET)
d. The talk test

A

d. The talk test

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13
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?

a. Expiration becomes more forceful.
b. Breathing becomes more shallow.
c. Inspiration is prolonged.
d. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.

A

a. Expiration becomes more forceful.

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14
Q

When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?

a. Creating a coping plan
b. Stating an outcome expectation
c. Self-monitoring
d. Forming an implementation intention

A

d. Forming an implementation intention

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15
Q

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?

a. Attending fitness industry conferences
b. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club
c. Reading exercise-science textbooks
d. Reading scholarly research journals

A

a. Attending fitness industry conferences

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16
Q

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?

a. Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional
b. Registered dietitian or nutritionist
c. Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist
d. Psychologist or psychiatrist

A

d. Psychologist or psychiatrist

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17
Q

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?

a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Heart disease
d. Cancer

A

c. Heart disease

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18
Q

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?

a. Correct muscle imbalances
b. Increase maximal strength
c. Improve sports skills
d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

A

d. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

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19
Q

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

a. 3 to 4 minutes
b. 5 to 10 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 1 to 2 minutes

A

b. 5 to 10 minutes

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20
Q

How can systolic blood pressure be defined?

a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
c. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

A

b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

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21
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

a. Concentric
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Isometric

A

b. Amortization

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22
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

a. Stabilization training
b. SAQ training
c. Plyometric training
d. Power training

A

c. Plyometric training

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23
Q

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?

a. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement
b. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
c. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach
d. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm

A

b. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

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24
Q

The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?

a. Abduction and extension
b. Flexion and extension
c. Adduction and abduction
d. Supination and pronation

A

b. Flexion and extension

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25
Q

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?

a. Nonlinear periodization
b. Localized periodization
c. Linear periodization
d. Undulating periodization

A

c. Linear periodization

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26
Q

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?

a. Feedback
b. Synergist function
c. Feed-forward
d. Antagonist function

A

c. Feed-forward

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27
Q

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?

a. Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual’s caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake
b. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance
c. Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual’s medical diagnoses
d. Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance

A

b. General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

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28
Q

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease?

a. Appendicitis
b. Flu
c. Strep throat
d. Type 2 diabetes

A

d. Type 2 diabetes

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29
Q

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?

a. Vestibular
b. Somatosensory
c. Vision
d. Digestive

A

b. Somatosensory

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30
Q

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?

a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
b. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity
c. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity
d. 20 minutes of walking

A

a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

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31
Q

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?

a. The ileum of the small intestine
b. The ileum of the large intestine
c. Duodenum of the small intestine
d. Duodenum of the large intestine

A

c. Duodenum of the small intestine

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32
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?

a. Semi-dynamic balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Low-level balance
d. Static balance

A

d. Static balance

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33
Q

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?

a. Joint receptors
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Muscle spindles
d. Interneurons

A

b. Golgi tendon organs

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34
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Middle and lower trapezius
b. Posterior deltoid
c. Rhomboids
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

d. Latissimus dorsi

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35
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

a. Dynamic balance
b. Static balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Moderate-level balance

A

c. Semi-dynamic balance

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36
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Gastrocnemius and soleus
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Gluteus maximus

A

d. Gluteus maximus

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37
Q

Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

a. HDL (high-density lipoprotein)
b. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
c. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein)
d. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)

A

b. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

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38
Q

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?

a. Pattern overload
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Stretch reflex

A

a. Pattern overload

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39
Q

What is the RDA for protein?

a. 1.6 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.2 g/kg of body weight
c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
d. 2.0 g/kg of body weight

A

c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

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40
Q

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?

a. Right ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right atrium

A

c. Left ventricle

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41
Q

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

a. 0.8
b. 0.2
c. 0.4
d. 0.6

A

c. 0.4

42
Q

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders

A

b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

43
Q

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?

a. SMR/dynamic stretching
b. SMR/ballistic stretching
c. SMR/active stretching
d. SMR/static stretching

A

d. SMR/static stretching

44
Q

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

a. Decreased lordosis
b. Increased lordosis
c. Increased kyphosis
d. Decreased kyphosis

A

b. Increased lordosis

45
Q

Prior to ever working with a client, what is the most important priority when starting an independent personal training business?

a. Designing a website to advertise personal training services
b. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses
c. Purchasing fitness equipment
d. Having consistent names on all social media accounts

A

b. Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses

46
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
d. Rockport 1-mile walk test

A

a. YMCA 3-minute step test

47
Q

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?

a. Socioeconomic status
b. Income status
c. Net worth
d. Social influence

A

a. Socioeconomic status

48
Q

What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?

a. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites
b. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
c. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club
d. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media

A

b. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered

49
Q

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action?

a. Eccentric
b. Isometric
c. Concentric
d. Isokinetic

A

c. Concentric

50
Q

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?

a. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
b. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work
c. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes
d. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work

A

a. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

51
Q

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?

a. Fascicles
b. Myosin
c. Troponin
d. Actin

A

c. Troponin

52
Q

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?

a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle atrophy
c. Muscle hypertrophy
d. Neural adaptations

A

d. Neural adaptations

53
Q

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made?

a. Intermittent claudication
b. Hypertension
c. Dyspnea
d. Diabetes

A

d. Diabetes

54
Q

What two activities are part of a client’s warm-up?

a. Resistance
b. Flexibility and cardio
c. Core
d. Plyometrics

A

b. Flexibility and cardio

55
Q

What are the two categories of fiber?

a. Complex and simple
b. Soluble and insoluble
c. Complete and incomplete
d. Essential and nonessential

A

b. Soluble and insoluble

56
Q

Food is composed of which three compounds?

a. ATP, glucose, and pyruvate
b. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
c. Ketones, insulin, and ADP
d. Amino acids, ATP, and glycogen

A

b. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

57
Q

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?

a. Elderly individuals
b. Individuals with performance goals
c. Deconditioned individuals
d. Individuals recovering from an injury

A

b. Individuals with performance goals

58
Q

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?

a. 120 beats per minute
b. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
c. 140 beats per minute
d. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise

A

c. 140 beats per minute

59
Q

Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?

a. Diabetes
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Dementia
d. Cancer

A

b. Coronary artery disease

60
Q

What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?

a. None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested).
b. Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
c. Lifestyle changes alone
d. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring

A

d. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring

61
Q

Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?

a. Lack of willpower
b. Lack of social support
c. Lack of convenience
d. Lack of motivation

A

b. Lack of social support

62
Q

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?

a. Smaller in size
b. Increased oxygen delivery
c. Slow to fatigue
d. Short-term contractions

A

d. Short-term contractions

63
Q

A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

a. I want to deadlift once per week.
b. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
c. I want to lift 3 times per week.
d. I want to deadlift after work.

A

b. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.

64
Q

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?

a. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
b. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
d. Athletic performance is a universal goal.

A

c. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

65
Q

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypertension
d. Hypotension

A

c. Hypertension

66
Q

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?

a. Wobble board
b. BOSU ball
c. Firm surface
d. Foam pad

A

c. Firm surface

67
Q

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?

a. Fast, powerful movements
b. Small jumps
c. Explosive jumps
d. Dynamic motion

A

b. Small jumps

68
Q

Which statement about cancer is most accurate?

a. There is a lack of cell growth in the body.
b. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55.
c. Almost all cancers are preventable.
d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

A

d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

69
Q

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?

a. Eccentric strength
b. Dynamic posture control
c. Delayed-onset muscle soreness
d. Local muscle endurance

A

c. Delayed-onset muscle soreness

70
Q

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?

a. Setting the time for the group to meet
b. Planning the workout for the group
c. Providing modifications during the workout
d. Planning social gatherings for the group

A

d. Planning social gatherings for the group

71
Q

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?

a. Quadriceps
b. Adductor longus
c. Biceps brachii
d. Gluteus medius

A

a. Quadriceps

72
Q

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

a. Standing hamstring stretch
b. Supine hamstrings stretch
c. Inverted hurdler’s stretch for hamstrings
d. Assisted supine hamstring stretch

A

c. Inverted hurdler’s stretch for hamstrings

73
Q

The scope of practice for a fitness professional dictates that they can prescribe specific meal plans to clients.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

74
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing “not at all ready” and 10 representing “completely ready.” If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?

a. Precontemplation
b. Maintenance
c. Preparation
d. Action

A

c. Preparation

75
Q

Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?

a. Magnesium and sodium
b. Sodium and potassium
c. Potassium and manganese
d. Sodium and calcium

A

b. Sodium and potassium

76
Q

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?

a. Help them identify barriers to exercise
b. Tell them to exercise with a friend
c. Encourage them to make plans to exercise
d. Provide them with education and knowledge

A

d. Provide them with education and knowledge

77
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?

a. A very low-carbohydrate diet
b. A low-protein diet
c. A caloric surplus
d. High-intensity exercise

A

a. A very low-carbohydrate diet

78
Q

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?

a. Lack of social support
b. Convenience
c. Lack of time
d. Ambivalence

A

b. Convenience

79
Q

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model?

a. Power exercise familiarity
b. Adequate joint stability
c. Adequate core stability
d. Deconditioning

A

d. Deconditioning

80
Q

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?

a. Proprioception
b. Motivation
c. Knowledge of results
d. Knowledge of performance

A

a. Proprioception

81
Q

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?

a. Olympic weightlifter
b. Avid resistance trainer
c. Powerlifter
d. Cross-country runner

A

d. Cross-country runner

82
Q

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

a. Appropriateness
b. Relevance
c. Reliability
d. Validity

A

c. Reliability

83
Q

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?

a. Stabilization
b. Deceleration
c. Amortization
d. Acceleration

A

b. Deceleration

84
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?

a. Glycolysis
b. The electron transport chain
c. The ATP-PC system
d. Oxidative phosphorylation

A

a. Glycolysis

85
Q

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?

a. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
b. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities
c. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells
d. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2

A

a. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

86
Q

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?

a. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast.
b. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss.
c. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.
d. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

A

d. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

87
Q

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers?

a. Convenience
b. Ambivalence
c. Lack of time
d. Unrealistic goals

A

c. Lack of time

88
Q

Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?

a. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
b. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish a recognizable brand identity.
c. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to establish immediate rapport with club members and potential clients.
d. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete gives him the ability to create an accurate business forecast.

A

a. Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

a. Side plank
b. Cable rotation
c. Medicine ball soccer throw
d. Floor crunch

A

a. Side plank

90
Q

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?

a. Landing mechanics
b. Force production
c. Power development
d. Core stability

A

a. Landing mechanics

91
Q

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?

a. Protein
b. Glucose
c. Fat
d. Ketone bodies

A

b. Glucose

92
Q

Which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?

a. Erector spinae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Iliopsoas

A

d. Iliopsoas

93
Q

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?

a. Pedal pulse
b. Femoral pulse
c. Radial pulse
d. Carotid pulse

A

c. Radial pulse

94
Q

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?

a. Verbal communication
b. Reflective listening
c. Nonverbal communication
d. Motivational interviewing

A

c. Nonverbal communication

95
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?

a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
c. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
d. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets

A

b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

96
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

a. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
b. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
c. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
d. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

A

c. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

97
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

a. Aerobic fitness
b. Muscular strength
c. Flexibility
d. Power

A

d. Power

98
Q

What is homeostasis?

a. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation
b. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time
c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
d. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body

A

c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

99
Q

Which of the following is iron considered to be?

a. Macromineral
b. Performance supplement
c. Vitamin
d. Trace mineral

A

d. Trace mineral

100
Q

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?

a. Muscular development
b. Power
c. Strength endurance
d. Stabilization endurance

A

b. Power

Certified Personal Trainer Course (13 decks)

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