Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COT > Surgical Assisting 4% > Flashcards

Surgical Assisting 4% Flashcards

1
Q

I&C Incision and curettage is usually for…..

A

Subacous material such as chalazion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

I&D incision and drainage is used for….

A

Pus filled pockets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*Sx procedure in which upper and lower eye lids down together

A

Tarsorrhaphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is a tarsorrhaphy performed?

A

When there’s a sick K and we want to protect it
Done in office or operating room
Can be temporary or permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is checked during a “time out” for sx?

A

Pt ID
surgical site and side
Procedure confirmed
(Everyone must be preset and agree and marked in chart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a chalazion clamp used for?

A

Positioning the skin where the chalazion is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a needle holder used for?

A

Holding needles
(Usually has locking mechanism on the handle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a lid speculum used for?

A

Keeping eyes open during a procedure
(Available in adult and pediatric and may have spring type or screw on it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are scissors used for?

A

Used for cutting supplies or tissue (Can be sharp or blunt, straight or curved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are forceps used for?

A

Used for grasping supplies and tissue (Can be toothed, smooth, or serrated, curved or straight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Instrument, needles, and cannulas are measured in_______.

A

Gauges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The bigger the number gauge on the instrument the __________it is. The smaller the number the______it is

A

Smaller
Bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are corneal burrs used for?

A

Smoothing K tissue after pterygium sx or after FB removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is cautery used for?

A

Hemostasis and tissue closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What size blade is typically used to incise a chalazion?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*What is a curette used for?

A

Scooping the sebaceous material out from inside the chalazion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should be done first before drawing up med from a vile?

A

Wipe top with alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

You typically use a ______needle to draw up medication

A

Larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fill the syringe with______to equal the amount of med you need to draw up and push it into the vile

A

Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are injectable steroids used to treat?

A

Uveitis and AMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the side effects of injectable steroids?

A

GLC and CATS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are anti VEGF drugs used to treat?

A

Wet AMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VEGF stands for ….

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor(a protein that’s in everybody’s body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anti VEGF injection does what?

A

Blocks the VEGF protein and decreases the abnormal blood vessel growth that happens with WET AMD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Subconjunctival injection drugs are used for….

A

Intraocular infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Subconj injections are absorbed into the bloodstream by_______________and ______________

A

Epistle rap and conj vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Retrobulbar and peribulbar injections ate what type of injections

A

Anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

LASER stands for …….

A

Light Amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Light travels in _____

A

Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is wavelength of light measured?

A

From peak of one wave to the peak of the next wave in “meters” or parts of meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What color has the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum?

A

Violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What color has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

*What is the visible spectrograph there human eye

A

400-700 nanometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When wavelengths rise and fall in unison this is called?

A

Coherency (or coherent light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LASER emit monochromatic light of the same_________and_______

A

Frequency and polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does PRP stand for?

A

Pan Retinal PhotoCoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is PRP used for?

A

To treat DM, BRAO, and iris NV following CRAO.
(retinas that are poorly produced with oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What lasers are used to do a PRP?

A

Argon or Diode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Instrument used for positioning the skin so we can incise the chalazion. It has a smooth foot plate.

A

Chalazion clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of the hemostat part of the chalazion clamp?

A

To keep the bleeding at a finite area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Explain the process of drawing up medications

A

Use alcohol wipes to cleanse top of vial
Use larger needle to draw up meds than what will be used for injection
Fill syringe with air equal to amount of medication you need to draw up
Express air from syringe into vial (this forms a vacuum)
Extract appropriate amount of medication plus a tad more
Remove syringe from vial and draw back slightly to allow a tiny bit of air into the syringe
Holding syringe needle end up, tap on syringe while pushing up on syringe plunger until all air bubbles are out
Passively recap needle
Replace needle with gauge for injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pts with _____ will typically have excess VEGF protein

A

WET AMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sunlight can never be made___

A

coherent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What makes LASERS to powerful?

A

First it emits a single ray of light, second is that the light is coherent, and third is that it takes all that light down to a tiny pin point and this very narrow light makes it very powerful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Each wavelength of light has a selective absorption of different types of tissue and generally the longer the wave length the _____ light penetrates into the eye.

A

Deeper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

We generally use ____lasers for posterior segment procedures and ___or ____laser lights for anterior segment procedures

A

Red
Green or blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

With PRP we are making _____to kill off peripheral retinal tissue. This reduces the requirement for _____ in the retina so that the little bit of it that is profused to the retina goes to the primary real estate of the retina, the macula.

A

burn holes
oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

All of the burn holes from PRP leave a permanent_____

A

VF defect because it kills off peripheral retinal tissue so that the macula can be save and the oxygen goes to the it instead of other parts of the Retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does PDT stand for?

A

Photo Dynamic Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or false
PDT does not do damage to the retina like PRP does.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is PDT used for?

A

To treat WET AMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explain how PDT is performed and how it works.

A

A light activate drug (photo-dynamic drug) is injected into pts vein.
It then travels through the blood stream to the retinal vasculature.
The doctor then refers to a previously done angiofluorescein angiogram and identifies abnormal blood vessels that need treated
Then the doctor uses a low powered laser to activate this light activated drug, which closes abnormal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does SLT stand for?

A

Selective Laser trabeculoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

*What is SLT used for?

A

To treat open angle glc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Both ____ and ___ treat open angle glc and can diminish or eliminate the need for glc meds.

A

SLT and ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the advantage of SLT over ALT?

A

SLT is repeatable and ALT is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How long does it take for SLT and ALT to wear off?

A

about 24 mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the next step after ALT and pt still have uncontrolled IOP

A

sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False
SLT can only be performed one time

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Both ALT and SLT make a burn hole in the _____

A

Trabecular meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

As the TM scars and contracts following the burn form ALT and SLT the outflow of aqueous humor can be ____

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How long does it take ALT and SLT to take full affect?

A

6 weeks (due to healing and scarring of tissue of TM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the advantages of treating GLC pts with lasers as opposed to drops?

A

better compliance
no systemic side effect
pt may have medical insurance(which will cover the procedure) but not have medication insurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Laser procedures are ____, we will instill a drop of pilocarpine to constrict the pupil and also give them a drop to help prevent a post op pressure spike.

A

Painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Argon is a ____light which is absorbed by ___objects

A

blue-green
Red (such as blood vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Argon Laser is used to….

A

coagulate blood or sealing off blood vessels, used to cut sutures, and also argon laser trabeculoplasty to treat POAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

YAG stands for

A

Ittrium Aluminum Garnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

*What is a YAG LASER used for?

A

To clear PCO and to perform LASER peripheral iridotomy (LPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Over time after CAT sx there epithelial cell on the posterior capsule that can migrate centrally which will cause and ____

A

opacification (PCO) also referred to an after cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the main risk of a YAG laser

A

RD but rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How is YAG performed

A

Dr. makes a hole in posterior capsule to clear the pts visual axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

LPI are used to treat pts who have ______

A

anatomically narrow angles ( to prevent acute narrow angle attack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How is LPI performed

A

A hole burned into the iris
(can be performed with YAG or Argon LASER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

If there is any unusual jolting of the laser it should be checked by________before it is used again to make sure the LASER beam has not become out of alignment.

A

a laser technician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Surgeon should always use the ____energy setting needed to get the job done

A

lowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

You should post LASER safety signs on the door so that ….

A

everyone knows to wear eye protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Whenever you are in the LASER suite you should wear___

A

LASER safety goggles to protect your eyes from LASER light exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

LASER lights can bounce off of ____objects

A

shiny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Do not press any buttons on the LASER unless_______

A

Your doctor tells you to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Only have LASER serviced by _____

A

trained LASER technicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Keep the LASER___ and also be sure to clean and disinfect the ____after use

A

clean
LASER lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is used to impede the growth of bacterial in instrument wash?

A

Lubrication or instrument milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How often should you lubricate your instruments?

A

Every 5 procedures and after ultrasonic cleaning because they remove all lubricants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Any instrument that can be unlocked or disassembled you should do so prior to______

A

sterilizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

You should avoid_____instruments in the sterilizer.

A

crowding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the different types of anesthesia used in ophtalmology?

A

Topical
Direct Infliltration Subcutaneously
Nerve Block
Retrobulbar
Peribulbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A surface anesthesia that causes a loss of sensation just of the mucous membranes.

A

Topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Surface anesthesia of skin and paralyzes underlying musculature

A

Direct Infiltration Subcutaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

An injection anesthetic directed at the site of emerging nerve and area supplied by nerve

A

Nerve block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the 2 main types of nerve blocks that we use?

A

Retrobulbar and peribulbur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Anesthetic nerve block injection into the muscle cone,
is a complete anesthesia of globe and paralysis to muscles attached to globe to prevent unwanted eye movement

A

Retrobular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

______means loss of sensation

A

anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

_____means loss of eye movements

A

akanesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Anesthetic injection into the soft tissue around the globe directed to floor and roof of socket; provided only anesthesia not akanesia.

A

Peribulbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Rinse all instruments immediately after use with______

A

distilled water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Why can’t you use BSS to rinse instruments?

A

Because the salt crystallizes on them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Any instrument that is cannulae or has a lumen must be ____

A

irrigated well and dried with compresses air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Why should you not let the instruments touch when using an ultrasonic cleaner (US cleaner)?

A

Because the delicate tips of the instruments can get damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Why should you not crowd the instruments in a sterilizer?

A

Because you must allow permeation of material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the sterilization musts?

A

Do not crowd items in sterilizer
-must allow permeation of material
**Instruments must be clean of debris, tissue, blood, lubricants before sterizing
*Inspect packages for integrity before using(rips or tears)
*Use sterilization indicator tips
*Use biological monitoring kit

101
Q

Sterilization is ____based not___based

A

event
time

102
Q

As long as your package is not wet, torn, or compromised you can _____

A

open it and use it on the sterile field

103
Q

Why do we put dates on sterilized instruments?

A

So that if we have a bad spore test we can recall instruments that have been sterilized since the last good spore test.

104
Q

Before opening an instrument to use on the sterile field you must check to see if…….

A

the indicator strip shows item is sterile

105
Q

What are some different methods of sterilizing instruments?

A

Boiling
Dry heat
Moist heat (autoclave)
Chemical (aka cold sterilization)
EO gas
Radiation
UV light

106
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of boiling sterilization?

A

It is inexpensive
20 minutes kills most organisms
It is slow
Takes many hours to kill resistant spores and encapsulated bacteria
Instruments can rust if not dried properly
Instruments with sharp points can be dulled

107
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of Dry Heat sterilization(Oven)?

A

Can sterilize gowns, glove, instruments, drapes
Maintains a constant temperature
Takes quiet some time (360 degrees for 60 mins)
Must clean regularly

108
Q

Method of sterilization that is good for gowns, gloves, instruments, and drapes but takes 60 minutes?

A

Dry heat (oven)

109
Q

Autoclave is ___heat

A

moist

110
Q

What is the most common and practical method of sterilization?

A

Autoclave

111
Q

Which method of sterilization is steam under pressure?

A

Autoclave

112
Q

___heat destroys bacteria much better than ___heat

A

moist
dry

113
Q

Time required for autoclave varies depending on ____

A

type of material
(cloth takes longer and steel shorter)

114
Q

The higher the temperature the _______

A

shorter time that is required

115
Q

What should you do to avoid condensation with autoclave?

A

Warm instruments with dry cycle first and make sure autoclave venting very well

116
Q

Don’t remove packs until…..

A

they are bone dry

117
Q

Water acts as a ___ and it ___bacteria through any non waterproof area.

A

Wick
wicks

118
Q

If you put wet instruments out on counter to dry ________ occurs

A

strike through contamination

119
Q

What should you use in autoclave to avoid mineral build up?

A

distilled water

120
Q

Be sure to clean autoclave regularly with ….

A

special autoclave cleaner

121
Q

Chemical sterilization is sometimes referred to as _____

A

cold sterilization

122
Q

When is it good to use Chemical/Cold sterilization

A

When something by get damaged by heat (like plastic)

123
Q

What are the disadvantages of Chemical/cold sterilizaition?

A

Some chemicals have poor sporicidal activity
Can be corrosive to instruments
Long sterilization time

124
Q

What is the main advantage of chemical/cold sterilization?

A

inexpensive

125
Q

EO (ethyl oxide gas) is very _____

A

affective

126
Q

What is EO gas and Radiation sterilization best for?

A

Items that can be damaged by heat or exposure to liquid disinfectants

127
Q

What are advantages to using EO Gas & Radiation sterilization

A

Can be used on most materials
Can sterilize materials that cannot be sterilized by other means
Effective against all organisms
Good penetration
Can be applied to completely sealed items such as sutures

128
Q

What are the disadvantages of EO Gas & Radiation sterilization

A

Slow
Costly
Flammable
Toxic
Requires special equipment

129
Q

_____can occur in OR or due to exposure to sterilization with EO gas

A

Magnetization

130
Q

You can get ______to demagnetize your instruments

A

demagnetizing trays

131
Q

Which method of sterilization can sterilize entire rooms, including he air inside the room?

A

UV lights

132
Q

UV sterilization system is used in tandem with a _____

A

surface sterilization lamp

133
Q

UV lights are effective to sterilize ___and___ suspended in the air

A

viruses
bacteria

134
Q

What type of environment is the OR?

A

Amoric(free of particles)
Positive pressure (HVAC system constructed to have positive air structure)

135
Q

During a long procedure the particle count in OR can rise to _____

A

More than 1 million particles per cubic foot

136
Q

___and ___are vehicle to transporting particles with microorganisms

A

Air
dust

137
Q

You must use ___wipes and eliminate _____ in OR

A

lint free
Talcum powder, fibers (cotton balls, lint producing material)

138
Q

____and ___explode droplets into the environment

A

coughing and sneezing

139
Q

Organisms are forcibly expelled when you ….
This creates bacterial covered dust and materials that settle on sterile surfaces and skin.

A

talk, cough, or sneeze

140
Q

What should you do if you are in an OR and you have to cough or sneeze?

A

Do so toward the sterile field because if you turn your head everything comes out the side of your mask

141
Q

Never turn _____ to the sterile field

A

your back

142
Q

On average _____-____contaminated particles are shed by our skin every minute, some shed _____ particles per minute(shedders)

A

4,000
10,000
up to 30,000

143
Q

When you work in OR you want to bath___

A

daily with antibacterial soap

144
Q

You must wash your hands before and after every_____

A

pt contact

145
Q

Wear ___sleeves in OR and ____hair regularly

A

long
shampoo

146
Q

What is the most common route of transmission of microorganisms in the OR

A

direct person to person contact

147
Q

Errors should be readily __________

A

Admitted and corrected

148
Q

Every patient should be considered a potential source of ___

A

infection

149
Q

_____ and ______ are observed whether or not a patient is known to have an infectious condition

A

Standard Universal Precautions and routine aseptic techniques

150
Q

What is your main duty when assisting in sx

A

To maintain a sterile field

151
Q

What are the responsibilities of sx tech

A

*Maintain sterile field
*Assist in surgical operations under supervision of surgeon, RNs or other surgical personnel
*Set up surgical instruments and equipment
*Check that instruments and equipment are working properly
*Gown and glove themselves and others

152
Q

What are the preoperative patient instructions for local anethesia

A

*Encourage deep breathing
*position limbs to encourage circulation
*empty bladder
*coughing, squeezing, of eyelids detrimental
*Reassure pt they won’t see or feel anything unpleasant

153
Q

A method to help maintain a sterile field by having very rigid rules which help keep contamination at bay

A

aseptic technique

154
Q

What are the principles of aseptic technique

A
  1. Know what is clea
  2. Know what is contaminated
  3. Know what is sterile
  4. Keep clean, contaminated and sterile items seperate
  5. Resolve contamination (resolve immediately)
  6. Learn to realize when you have broken technique
155
Q

If a sterile package wrapped in a pervious woven material drops on the floor it must be considered______

A

unsterile

156
Q

If the wrapper is impervious and area of contact is dry, the item may be ________

A

transferred to the sterile field

157
Q

Packages which have been dropped on the floor should_______

A

not be put back in sterile storage areas

158
Q

If a sterile table or unwrapped sterile items are not under constant observation, it mus be considered _____

A

nonsterile

159
Q

If a sterile package wrapped in any material other than plastic or another moisture-resistant barrier becomes wet, it must be considered_____

A

non sterile

160
Q

_____means allows passage of air through

A

pervious

161
Q

_____materials allow the implosion of air into the packaging

A

pervious

162
Q

If there is ever a doubt about the sterility of any item it must be____

A

considered non sterile

163
Q

_____means air tight

A

impervious

164
Q

What is the center of the sterile field

A

the pt

165
Q

What is included in the sterile field?

A

everyone wearing sterile attire and all furniture and equipment that is covered with sterile draps

166
Q

Sterile person should touch only _____items or areas.
Non sterile person should touch only ____items and areas.

A

sterile
non sterile

167
Q

Only ____items should touch sterile surfaces

A

sterile

168
Q

We must maintain a ___clearance at all times between all sterile and nonsterile items and areas

A

1 foot

169
Q

What are the different ways to set up a sterile field?

A

sterile drape
may tray
sterile instruments (emasis basin)
Or combination of sterile drape and basin
(always good to set up on a sterile tray)

170
Q

When opening supplies pull back package ____ and hands____ to allow lots of clearance for someone who is sterile to grab the sterile supplies or you to drop it on the sterile field without sterile item touching any part of the sterile packaging that is not sterile.

A

wide
wide

171
Q

You want to keep sterile field tight which means…..

A

You want to have your back table, mayo tray, and other draped areas close to one another and pt within close proximity of one another

172
Q

When possible pt and sterile items should be set up close enough so that there is not room for someone to walk between them because….

A

this increases the risk of contamination

173
Q

wet penetration =

A

contamination

174
Q

If a drape or any other non waterproof sterile barrier is made wet contamination has occurred and is called____

A

strike through contamination

175
Q

Water acts as a _____ and carries bacteria through the barrier to the other side

A

wick

176
Q

What should you do before performing the surgical scrub?

A

remove all hand and wrist jewelry
make sure nails are short and trimmed
no artificial nails or nail polish
tuck jewelry (necklaces, earrings) into scrub top or cap

177
Q

What are the 2 methods of surgical scrubbing

A

timed method
counted stroke method

178
Q

Both surgical scrubs methods are___

A

effective

179
Q

Skin is never made sterile, it is made____

A

surgically clean

180
Q

What is the purpose of surgical scrub

A

to remove as many microorganisms as possible form hands and arms by mechanical and chemical means

181
Q

Explain the time method of surgical scrub

A

5 minutes per anatomical feature, fingers, hands, arms to 2 inches above elbow

182
Q

The surgical scrub procedure that allots a prescribed amount of time to each anatomic area or to each step of the procedure is

A

timed method

183
Q

surgical scrub that uses a prescribed number of strokes per anatomical structure (fingers, hands, arms to 2” above elbow)

A

counted stroke method

184
Q

True of false
skin can be made sterile

A

false

185
Q

When Microorganisms are markedly reduced by the use of chemical, physical or mechanical means this is called…

A

surgically clean

186
Q

Skin can be made surgically clean through use of ……

A

chemical, physical, or mechanical means

187
Q

What is included in aseptic attire

A

mask, cap, gloves, gown, shoe covers

188
Q

Gowns are only considered sterile from….

A

chest height in the front to waist height or the height of the sterile field in the front and from 2 inches above the elbow to tips of gloves (not including gloves on the gown-covered with sterile gloves)

189
Q

How should you put the surgical gown on

A

grasp from the inside of the front of the gown and then put on

190
Q

Sterile persons should keep their hands…

A

at or above waist and insight at all times

191
Q

Tables are considered sterile ____

A

only at the table level(anything below table height, anything falling or below table edge is not sterile)

192
Q

When moving around OR sterile person should pass …

A

face to face or back to back

193
Q

Sterile persons should ___sterile fields and keep their backs to the_____field

A

face
non sterileq

194
Q

The prep table is kept separate from the main____and removed immediately after the prep is done

A

instrument table

195
Q

____are used to keep the lids and lashes out of the operative field when we do intraocular sx

A

drapes

196
Q

Lids and lashes are the most common origin for the bacteria which causes____

A

enophthalmitis

197
Q

What are the 2 types of drapes

A

Fenestrated and non fenestrated

198
Q

_____drapes have pre-cut holes to expose eye
-Steri-strips may be used with it to keep lashes covered

A

Fenestrated

199
Q

_____drapes have clear plastic area to place over the eye
*Eyelids are pulled opened with a weck-type spear, drape is place over the eye
*Weck spear is then discarded, as it has touched the patient’s skin which is not sterile

A

non fenestrated

200
Q

Set up your back table in _____ and put the instrument tray at back of table leaving a working space in the front. It’s important to also label all solutions.

A

definite order of use

201
Q

What are some things that could be included on your back table

A

towels, gloves, drapes, supplies, basins, waste receptacle, label solutions, instrument tray in back, work space in front

202
Q

Arrange mayo tray in a _____pattern

A

consistent

203
Q

If there are instruments you only use occasionally keep them _____from your main instruments tray in peel packs so that you can bring them out just when needed

A

separate

204
Q

When should you count your sharps and sponges

A

before and after a procedure and before pt leaves the room

205
Q

If your count of sharps and sponges before and after procedure does not match you should…..

A

notify surgeon and RN immediately

206
Q

To prevent a sharps injury recap needle with a _____

A

passive one handed recapping technique

207
Q

*When passing surgical instrument always pass to the surgeon so the handle is_______

A

toward the surgeon

208
Q

When removing gloves remove them___

A

inside out

209
Q

What does the phacoemulsifier use to emulsify the CAT

A

ultrasound

210
Q

Why is it important to keep BSS flowing

A

to keep eye temp down

211
Q

After CAT is emulsified it is then _____

A

irrigated and aspirated out of the eye

212
Q

It’s very important to clean the tubing and tips of the phacoemulsifier to prevent_______. It should be irrigated with____

A

salt build up in tip
Sterile water

213
Q

What is the most complex and important part of the phaco machine

A

phaco pump

214
Q

What are the 2 types of phaco pumps

A

Vacuum based and flow based

215
Q

Which pump creates more vac when pump works harder

A

Vacuum pump

216
Q

Which phaco pump creates more flow (cc of fluid/min)when pump works harder

A

Flow based

217
Q

List facts about the phaco irrigation system

A

It has an adjustable height form surgical eye
Height is adjusted at different phases of sx

218
Q

It is crucial to keep the BSS fluid flowing because….

A

it maintains anterior chamber
keeps temp at safe level inside the eye

219
Q

The phaco has an ____handpiece with a vibrating phaco needle(the tip*)

A

ultrasonic

220
Q

The ___the pt CAT the ____ultrasonic power is acquired to emulsify it

A

harder
more

221
Q

You must ____the hand piece prior to sx to help adjust between small variations between the phaco needle and the hand piece

A

tune

222
Q

A viscus solution which is injected into the AC to protect the K epithelial cell when pt has intraocular sx

A

Visoelastic

223
Q

It is important to ____and ____ to clear visoelastic out of the eye to help prevent a post op IOP spike

A

irrigate and aspirate

224
Q

What are the types of viewing systems used for retinal sx

A

contact system and non contact systems

225
Q

______system neutralize refractive power of eye

A

contact

226
Q

______systems use binocular indirect ophthalmoscope(BIO) and erected image binocular indirect ophathlmoscope (BIO)

A

non contact

227
Q

VISC (vitreous infusion suction cutter) is used to perform what?

A

A vitrectomy

228
Q

With the VISC the surgeon introduced the unit at the ____

A

Pars Planna 4-7mm from the limbus

229
Q

Vitrectomies are used to ___

A

Clear blood from the vitreous and following RD or following CAT sx when there is vitreous loss
(Does not always improv VA acuity)

230
Q

The vitrectomy unit is comprised of….

A

An illumination system, high frequency diathermy, air infusion system and a high speed cutter

231
Q

A corneal refractive procedure Using the excimer laser where a K flap is made, the flap is folded back, the laser beam reshapes the K, then the flap is folded back in place.

A

LASIK

232
Q

What laser is used for LASIK

A

Excimer

233
Q

What is the K flap in LASIK created with

A

Microkeratome or Femtosecond Laser

234
Q

What does PRK stand for

A

Photorefractive Keratectomy
(Surface ablation)

235
Q

What LASER is PRK performed with

A

Excimer

236
Q

Which refractive sx removes the top layer of the K and then excimer laser performs refractive correction

A

PRK

237
Q

What are the differences between PRK and LASIK

A

PRK:
No flap so no risk of flap dislocation, K is less altered, no cutting laser or knife or microtome
More pain and slower va recovery
LASIK:
Uses cutting blade and has a flap

238
Q

What are advantages disadvantages of LASIK

A

Uses cutting blade and makes a hinged flap

239
Q

How thick is the flap made in LASIK

A

100-180 micrometers

240
Q

What does ALK stand for

A

Automated Lamellar Keratoplasty

241
Q

Refractive sx for severe myopia or mild to moderate hyperopia, microkeratome makes a partial flap on the K. If myopic, second, thin button of tissue is removed, discarded. If hyperopic, flap replaced, K steepens as it heals correcting hyperopia

A

ALK

242
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of ALK Compared to other refractive sx

A

Advantages:
Heals quickly
VA stabilizes quickly
less discomfort
Disadvantages:
Outcome not as predictable
Risk of irregular astigmatism
Glare
May never be able to wear CL again

243
Q

What does LRI stand for

A

Limbal Relaxing incisions

244
Q
A
245
Q

What are the advantages of LRI vs other refractive sx?

A

Less discomfort, less glare, faster healing than K relaxing incision
But not as effective

246
Q

LRI can correct up to

A

8 D of cyl

247
Q

LRI is typically reserved for pts with

A

0.5D-4.0 D of cyl

248
Q

Refractive sx that make 9mm incisions made at precise locations at limbus steep axis K, can be performed in office setting at SL

A

LRI

249
Q

LRI can be done in conjunction with other procedures or as …

A

A single procedure

COT (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions