Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > Fall Pharm Exam 1 > Flashcards

Fall Pharm Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Organism that causes BV

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are two Tx options for BV?

A

Clindamycin or Metronidazole (Flagyl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patients put on Clindamycin are at higher risk for what infection?

A

C. Diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is Clindamycin bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is Metronidazole (Flagyl) bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bacteriocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the dosage for Clindamycin used for BV?

A

300 mg PO for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the dosage for Metronidazole (Flagyl) used for BV?

A

500 mg BID x 7 days or 2 g PO q day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Can Metronidazole (Flagyl) be used in pregnancy?

A

Yup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what should patients avoid while taking Metronidazole (Flagyl)?

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what organism is commonly responsible for UTIs?

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What organism is seen more in UTIs in the elderly?

A

Staph. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are three Tx options for acute uncomplicated UTIs?

A

Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid), Bactrim DS, or Fosfomycin (monurol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the dosage used for Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)?

A

100 mg BID x 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the dosage used for Bactrim?

A

160/800 mg BID x 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the dosage used for Fosfomycin (Monurol)?

A

3 g one time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are four Tx options for acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis?

A

Ciprofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin ER, Levofloxacin, or Bactrim DS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the dosage for Ciprofloxacin for acute pyelonephritis?

A

500 mg BID x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the dosage for Ciprofloxacin ER for acute pyelonephritis?

A

1000 mg qd x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the dosage for Levofloxacin for acute pyelonephritis?

A

750 mg qd x 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SE of Levofloxacin?

A

tendonitis, nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should be given to a patient initially with acute pyelonephritis and fever?

A

1 gm Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How frequently is Bactrim DS given for acute pyelonephritis?

A

BID for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 3 Tx options for pregnant women with acute UTI?

A

Augmentin, Cephalosporin, or Bactrim x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What antibiotic given for UTIs should be avoided when a pregnant woman is in her 3rd trimester?

A

Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are two pathogens seen more commonly with nosocomial/complicated UTI and pyelonephritis?

A

MRSA, Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What antibiotics should be given in complicated UTI/pyelonephritis to cover Pseudomonas?

A

Quinolones x 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are two Abx used for Tx of Prostatitis and for how long?

A

Bactrim or Quinolones for 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MOA of Antimetabolites

A

interferes with DNA/RNA formation by adding on phosphate groups or changing base structure to stop replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cancers are antimetabolites used to Tx?

A

leukemia, breast, ovary, intestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MOA of 5-FU

A

Prodrug, undergoes phosphorylation, interferes with synthesis of thymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MOA of Capecitabine (Xeloda)

A

active pyrimidine analog of uracil, prodrug of 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 drugs that are fluoropyrimidines

A

5-FU, Capecitabine (Xeloda)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Black Box SE of Fluoropyrimidines when used with Coumadin

A

Increased risk of bleeding and death, need for frequent INR monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SE seen with continuous IV infusion of 5-FU

A

hand foot syndrome, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2 drugs that are cytidine analogs

A

Cytarabine (ara-C), Gemcitabine (Gemzar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MOA of Cytarabine (ara-C)

A

phosphorylated to active triphosphate form (ara-CTP) which then inhibits DNA polymerase which elongates DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SE of Cytarabine (ara-C)

A

bone marrow suppression, N, V, abdominal pain, oral ulcers, hepatic dysfunction (dose-dependent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MOA of Gemcitabine

A

inhibits DNA polymerase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

2 drugs that are nucleosides

A

Azacytidine, Decitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cancer indications for use of nucleosides

A

slowing myelodysplastic syndrome conversion to AML, reduces need for blood transfusions and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SE of nucleosides

A

myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

5 examples of purine/purine analogs

A

Mercaptopurine, Thioguanine, Fludarabine, Cladribine, Pentostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MOA of Mercaptopurine and Thioguanine

A

converted to ribonucleotides that inhibit purine biosynthesis, metabolized by TPMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

SE of Mercaptopurine and Thioguanine

A

hepatic toxicity, myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DI of Mercaptopurine

A

Allpurinol, need to reduce dose of Mercaptopurine by 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MOA of Fludarabine

A

adenine analog, interferes with DNA polymerase to cause chain termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MOA of Cladribine

A

resists deactivation by adenosine deaminase to affect actively dividing and resting cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MOA of Pentostatin

A

inhibits adenosine deaminase which is used for purine base metabolism in lymphatic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

SE of Pentostatin

A

dose limiting renal, liver, pulmonary, CNS toxicity (nerve damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Contraindications for Pentostatin

A

do NOT combine with Fludarabine - fatal pulmonary toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

2 drugs that are antifolates

A

Methotrexate, Pemetrexed (Alimta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What needs to be supplemented when giving antifolates (Methotrexate, Pemetrexed/Alimta) to lower risk of neutropenic sepsis?

A

Folic acid and Vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SE of antifolates (Methotrexate, Pemetrexed/Alimta)

A

mucositis, hepatotoxicity, N, V, pernicious anemia, renal tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Contraindications for Antifolates

A

NSAIDS - develop renal tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cancer Indications for Microtubule Targetting Drugs

A

breast, lung, myelomas, lymphomas, leukemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

SE of microtubule targetting drugs

A

peripheral nerve damage (dose limiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

3 examples of vinca alkaloids

A

Vincristine, Vinblastine, Vinorelbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MOA of Vinca alkaloids

A

mitotic inhibitors that bind to tubulin and prevents assembly of microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

SE of vinca alkaloids and what can be done to manage it?

A

extravasation, should position needle properly and use warm packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

2 examples of taxanes

A

Paclitaxel, Docetaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

MOA of taxanes

A

promote microtubule assembly which blocks microtubule disassembly required for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

SE of Docetaxel

A

increased fluid retention, do not give to patients with bilirubin >ULN, or SGOT/SGPT>1,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

SE of Paclitaxel

A

neurotoxicity, hypersensitivity, solid tumors with neutrophils <1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What needs to be given for premedication for taxanes?

A

Corticosteroids, and antihistamines also if Paclitaxel is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MOA of Epothilone or Ixabepilone

A

binds to microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cancer Indications for Epothilone or Ixabepilone

A

paclitaxel resistant Tx, Ixabepilone used for metastatic breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

SE of Epothilone/Ixabepilone

A

myelosuppression, hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

MOA of Estramustine

A

combo of nitrogen mustard and estradiol, binds to microtubule proteins to cause separation of structural support and inhibits microtubule assembly to cause their disassembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what does topoisomerase I enzymes do?

A

maintain DNA structure during replication and transcription by producing single strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What do topoisomerase II enzymes do?

A

maintain DNA structure during replication and transcription by producing double strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

2 examples of camptothecin derivatives

A

Topotecan, Irinotecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

MOA of topotecan/irinotecan

A

inhibit topoisomerase I enzyme activity through SN-38 active metabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

SE of topotecan/irinotecan and Tx

A

diarrhea, neutropenia, give Loperamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

4 examples of anthracyclines

A

doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin, epirubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

MOA of anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin, epirubicin)

A

intercalating topoisomerase inhibitor that insert between DNA base pairs and then generate free radicals to destroy all cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

SE of anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin, epirubicin)

A

cardiotoxicity, extravasation, AML, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Management of SE of anthracyclines

A

Dexrazoxane (Totect) for cardiomyopathy, cold packs for extravasation

78
Q

2 examples of epipodophyllotoxins

A

Etoposide, Teniposide

79
Q

MOA of epipodophyllotoxins (Etoposide, Teniposide)

A

inhibit topoisomerase II to cause strand breakage

80
Q

SE of epipodophyllotoxins (Etoposide, Teniposide)

A

myelosuppression, infection, bleeding

81
Q

MOA of mitoxantrone

A

intercalating topoisomerase II inhibitor, generates fewer free radicals

82
Q

what other medical condition is mitoxantrone used for?

A

MS to suppress T and B cells, and macrophages

83
Q

SE of mitoxantrone

A

cardiotoxicity, AML

84
Q

MOA of alkylating agents

A

adds alkyl group on to DNA to cause damage of rapidly proliferating cells

85
Q

3 examples of nitrogen mustard derivatives

A

Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide, Bendamustine

86
Q

Cancer Indications for use of Cyclophosphamide or Ifosfamide

A

solid tumors, hematologic malignancies

87
Q

SE of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide

A

hemorrhagic cystitis due to active metabolite Acrolein, encephalopathy, CNS toxicity

88
Q

How can the SE of hemorrhagic cystitis seen with cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide be Tx

A

Infuse MESNA

89
Q

Cancer indications for use of Bendamustine

A

lymphoid malignancies: CLL, non Hodgkin Lymphomas

90
Q

3 examples of Nitrosoureas

A

Strptozocin, Carmustine (BCNU), Lomustine

91
Q

Routes available for Carmustine (BCNU)

A

IV, biodegradable wafer (Gliadel)

92
Q

3 examples of platinum drugs

A

cisplatin, carboplatin, oxalaplatin

93
Q

MOA of platinum drugs (cisplatin, carboplatin, oxalaplatin)

A

intercalate with DNA to kill cells

94
Q

SE of cisplatin

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, emesis, anemia

95
Q

SE of carboplatin

A

hematologic toxicity (neutropenia), lower risk of additional SE than cisplatin

96
Q

SE of oxaliplatin

A

peripheral and cold induced neuropathies

97
Q

MOA of Bleomycin

A

antitumor Abx mix of peptides from Streptomyces

98
Q

SE of Bleomycin

A

pulmonary fibrosis

99
Q

MOA of Hydroxyurea

A

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase causing cell accumulation in the S phase

100
Q

Indication for hydroxyurea in cancer

A

cause decline in patients WBC prior to initiating chemo

101
Q

SE of Hydroxyurea

A

clastogenicity, mutagenicity

102
Q

MOA of Asparaginase

A

inhibits protein synthesis

103
Q

MOA of Arsenic Trioxide

A

maturation of cancerous cells to “normal” cells, induces apoptosis

104
Q

MOA of Vorinostat

A

histone deacetylase inhibitor

105
Q

SE of Vorinostat

A

PE, DVT

106
Q

MOA of Rituximab

A

monoclonal Ab that targets CD20 Ag on normal/malignant B cells

107
Q

Cancer indications for Rituximab

A

(CD20+ tumors): B cell non Hodgkins Lymphomas, CLL

108
Q

SE of Rituximab

A

transient fever, chills, nausea, asthenia, headache

109
Q

MOA of Ibritumomab

A

monoclonal Ab that targets CD20

110
Q

Cancer indications for Ibritumomab

A

relapsed/refractory low grade, follicular, transformed B cell non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (used if Rituximab fails)

111
Q

SE of Ibritumomab

A

anaphylaxis, prolonged thrombocytopenia and neutropenia

112
Q

MOA of Alemtuxumab

A

monoclonal Ab that targets CD52 on B, T, NK, monocytes, and macrophages

113
Q

Cancer indications for Alemtuzumab

A

B cell CLL that fail Fludarabine Tx

114
Q

Black box SE of Alemtuzumab

A

opportunistic infections

115
Q

What cancers are HER1 and HER2 overexpressed in?

A

breast, lung, colon cancer

116
Q

MOA of Cetuximab

A

monoclonal Ab that binds to EGFR to cause intracellular phosphorylation of transcription factors/cell proliferation

117
Q

Cancer indications for Cetuximab

A

metastatic colorectal, neck, head

118
Q

SE of Cetuximab

A

fatigue, GI, abdominal pain, cardiopulmonary arrest

119
Q

Cancer indications for Panitumumab

A

refractory metastatic colon cancer

120
Q

MOA of Trastuzumab

A

humanized MoAB that binds to HER-2

121
Q

Cancer indications for Trastuzumab

A

metastatic breast cancer alone or in conjunct with Paclitaxel

122
Q

If trastuzumab is used with Paclitaxel what also should be given to the patient?

A

Premedication with steroids or antihistamines

123
Q

Black box SE of Trastuzumab

A

Cardiac failure when given with anthracyclines

124
Q

MOA of Erlotinib

A

EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor, blocks signal transduction for proliferation, survival, and metastases of cancer cells

125
Q

SE of Erlotinib

A

rash, diarrhea

126
Q

MOA of Lapatinib

A

inhibits intracellular kinase of EGFR and HER-2

127
Q

SE of Lapatinib

A

diarrhea, hepatotoxicity, rash, QT interval prolongation

128
Q

MOA of Bevacizumab

A

humanized MoAB antagonist against circulating BEGF to prevent activation of angiogenesis

129
Q

SE of Bevacizumab

A

HTN, bleeding episodes, thrombotic events, GI/CNS/Vaginal bleeding

130
Q

When should Bevacizumab not be given?

A

within 28 days of major surgery

131
Q

what are elderly at increased risk for with Bevacizumab?

A

DVT, PE, MI

132
Q

MOA of Sunitinib or Sorafenib

A

inhibits VEGF R-2 and platelet derived grwoth factor R

133
Q

SE of Sunitinib

A

CHF

134
Q

SE of Sorafenib

A

Hand foot syndrome

135
Q

Chemo agents at high risk for causing nausea and vomiting

A

Cisplatin, Cyclophosphamide >1500 mg

136
Q

Chemo agents at moderate risk for causing nausea and vomiting

A

Ifosfamide, Cyclophosphamide <1500 mg, Doxorubicin, Daunorubucin

137
Q

Chemo agents at low risk for causing nausea and vomiting

A

Paclitaxel, Docetaxel, Mitoxantrone, Topotecan, Methotrexate, Trastuzumab

138
Q

Chemo agents at minimal risk for causing nausea and vomiting

A

Bevacizumab, Rituximab, Vinblastine, Vincristine, Vinorelbine

139
Q

What 5-HT antagonists can be given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Ondansetron (Zofran), Dolasteron (Anzemet), Granisetron (Granisol), Palonosetron (Aloxi)

140
Q

SE of 5-HT antagonists

A

QT prolongation - correct any hypokalemia/magnesemia

141
Q

2 corticosteroids that can be given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Dexamethasone, Methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol)

142
Q

MOA of Aprepitant (EMEND)

A

passes through BBB to be an antagonist to substance P and NK R

143
Q

What benzodiazepine can be given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Lorazepam

144
Q

What dopamine R agonist can be given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

145
Q

MOA of Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A

promotes Ach release in myenteric plexus and triggers chemoR on fourth ventricle for antiemesis

146
Q

SE of Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A

EPS (seen in ages 18-30), sedation, restlessness, fatigue

147
Q

2 phenothiazines given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting

A

Prometazine (Phenergan), Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

148
Q

MOA of Phenergan

A

blocks H1 Receptors

149
Q

MOA of Compazine

A

inhibits chemotrigger zone

150
Q

2 cannabinoids given as Tx for chemo induced nausea and vomiting

A

Dronabinol (Marinol), Nabilone (Cesamet)

151
Q

What dietary supplementation should be given for Tx of amenorrhea?

A

vitamin D, calcium

152
Q

What should be given in the Tx of amenorrhea to decrease the risk for osteoporosis?

A

estrogen

153
Q

What drugs should be given in Tx of amenorrhea due to hyperprolactinemia?

A

Dopamine agonists (Bromocriptine, Cabergoline)

154
Q

What is first line therapy for Tx of amenorrhea due to PCOS

A

Metformin

155
Q

What drugs should be given for Tx of amenorrhea due to PCOS in a patient with low renal clearance?

A

Thiazolidinediones: Actos, Avandia

156
Q

What are 3 Tx options for menorrhea?

A

NSAIDS for pain, OCP, Levonorgesterol releasing IUD

157
Q

What are two vitamin supplements that can be given for Tx of PMS/PMDD?

A

Vitamin B6, Calcium Carbonate

158
Q

What other drug can be given for Tx of severe PMS/PMDD?

A

SSRIS

159
Q

What are patients at an increased risk for when taking drospirenone?

A

hyperkalemia

160
Q

SE of clomipramine

A

dry mouth, fatigue, vertigo, sweating

161
Q

Give 3 Tx options for endometriosis

A

CHC/Progestin, Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist (Leuprolide), Danazol

162
Q

MOA of CHC/Progestin in endometriosis

A

decrease menstrual flow by inducing anovulation, progestins cause atrophy of endometrial tissue

163
Q

MOA of Danazol

A

synthetic steroid analogue of testosterone, induces anovulation, amenorrhea, and endometrial atrophy by supressing LH/FSH surge

164
Q

MOA of progestin only OCP

A

Blocks LH surge, thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration, slowing sperm mobility, induces endometrial atrophy

165
Q

What are the two hormone components in CHC?

A

ethinyl estradiol (estrogen), and Mestranol (progesterone)

166
Q

Syx of excess estrogen in CHC

A

nausea, breast tenderness, headaches, CYCLIC weight gain, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia

167
Q

Syx of estrogen deficiency in CHC

A

vasomotor syx, nervousness, decreased libido, breakthrough bleeding (EARLY CYCLE: days 1-9), amenorrhea

168
Q

Syx of excess progesterone in CHC

A

Increased appetite, weight gain, bloating, constipation, acne, oily skin, hirsutism, depression, fatigue, irritability

169
Q

Syx of progesterone deficiency in CHC

A

dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, breakthrough bleeding (LATE CYCLE: days 10-21)

170
Q

What are some patient populations that CHC should be avoided?

A

smokers >35, use of ACEI/ARB, DM, migraine with aura, breast/uterine cancer, VTE, SLE

171
Q

what anti-epileptics decrease the efficacy of CHC

A

Phenobarbitol, CBZ, Phenytoin

172
Q

What antibiotic decrease the efficacy of CHC

A

TTX, PCN, Rifampin

173
Q

What antifungal decreases the efficacy of CHC

A

Griseofulvin

174
Q

Give 3 aromatase inhibitors used in the Tx of breast cancer

A

Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane

175
Q

MOA of aromatase inhibitors

A

inhibits aromatase enzyme that converts androstenedione into esrone and estradiol

176
Q

which aromatase inhibitors are nonsteroidal and cause reversible inhibition of aromatase?

A

anastrozole, letrozole

177
Q

which aromatase inhibitors are indicated for post-menopausal women?

A

non-steroidals: anastrozole and letrozole

178
Q

SE of nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole, letrozole)

A

hot flashes, bone loss/osteoporosis, arthralgias, headaches

179
Q

which aromatase inhibitors are steroidal and cause irreversible inhibition of aromatase?

A

Exemestane

180
Q

Give 3 SERMs used for tx of breast cancer

A

moxifen, Toremifene, Raloxifene

181
Q

MOA of SERMS

A

bind to estrogen receptors to inhibit gene transcription and block effect of estrogen on target cell.

182
Q

what effect does SERMs have on breast tissue cells?

A

inhibits cell proliferation

183
Q

what effect does SERMS have on uterine endometrial cells?

A

stimulates cell proliferation

184
Q

SE of SERMS

A

ot flashes, vaginal discharge, nausea, endometrial hyperplasia/cancer

185
Q

Give an example of a SERD

A

Fulvestrant

186
Q

MOA of Fulvestrant

A

inhibit estrogen binding and degrade drug-R complex to decrease presence of estrogen R on cell surface (downregulates R)

187
Q

SE of fulvestrant

A

hot flashes, VTE

188
Q

Give 3 examples of LHRH analogs

A

Leuprolide, Goserelin, Triptorelin

189
Q

MOA of LHRH analogs

A

down regulates LHRH R in pituitary to decrease levels of LH to decrease estrogen levels

190
Q

When is the use of LHRH analogs indicated?

A

metastatic breast cancer, pre-menopausal women

191
Q

SE of LHRH analogs

A

hot flashes, amenorrhea

From Flashcardlet (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions