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PANCE > PANCE_pulm 10% > Flashcards

PANCE_pulm 10% Flashcards

1
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS

coin lesion

A

solitary pulmonary nodule

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2
Q

(RR)
what is the importance of a solitary pulmonary nodule?

A

significant risk of malignancy

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3
Q

(RR)
if a pt has COPD and significant smoking history, and a chest CT shows a 1cm nodule w/ ill-defined margins and a lobular appearance, what is the most appropriate next step?

A

surgical referral for excision

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4
Q

(RR)
what are the significant pulmonary solid nodule sizes and what are the next steps for each (there are 3 categories)?

A

<6mm = assess likelihood of malignancy, if high/intermediate –> chest CT at 12 mo
if pt is low-risk, no further f/u required

6-8mm = chest CT at 6 to 12 mo

> 8mm = asses likelihood of malignancy, if low –> chest CT at 3 mo; if high/interm –>biopsy/resection

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5
Q

(RR)
preventing post op atelectasis means doing what things (2)?

A

deep breathing exercises
incentive spirometry

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6
Q

(RR)
what diagnostic test is done for suspected influenza?

A

nasopharyngeal swab sent for rapid immunofluorescence assay

(sputum cultures take days to get results, not commonly ordered for viral illness)

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7
Q

(RR)
“24-year-old patient who is ill appearing presents to the clinic with reports of sudden-onset fever, coughing, sore throat, and rhinorrhea. Her symptoms began 3 days prior and have not improved since. PE reveals diffuse pharyngeal erythema w/ nonlocalizing scattered rales, rhonchi, wheezes. What is best intervention?”

A

symptomatic treatment and acetaminophen (not azithromycin)

acetaminophen = antipyretic

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8
Q

(RR)
What is the classification of drugs used in treatment of influenza A and B infections?

A

neuraminidase inhibitors
(oseltamivir, peramivir, zanamivir)

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9
Q

(RR)
influenza is spread via ______

A

respiratory droplets

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10
Q

(RR)
influenza - what are the three types and with what are they associated?

A

type A = pandemic
type B = epidemic
type C = sporadic

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11
Q

(RR)
“An 18-month-old boy presents with a one-week history of upper respiratory congestion and low-grade fever. His parents report noisy breathing increasing over the last 24 hours, and a loud “seal-like” barking cough. He has no significant past medical history. [What], if reported in the history given by parents, is most consistent with your suspected diagnosis?

A

inspiratory stridor

(this is croup, or laryngotracheobronchitis)

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12
Q

(RR)
causative agent of croup/laryngotracheitis

A

parainfluenza virus

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13
Q

(RR)
five clinical s/s of croup

A

URI-like symptoms
barking, seal-like cough
stridor
symptoms worse at night
hypoxia is UNCOMMON

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14
Q

(RR)
what does croup look like on soft-tissue neck XRay?

A

steeple sign
(subglottic tracheal narrowing)

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15
Q

(RR)
croup management

A

supportive care
corticosteroids (dexamethasone)
racemic epi (moderate to severe cases)

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16
Q

(RR)
“Which vaccine is largely responsible for a sharp decrease in the incidence of epiglottitis since its introduction in the United States?”

A

Hib
(Haemophilus influenza type B)

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17
Q

(RR)
most common age for croup

A

6mo to 3 yrs
(nontoxic appearing, probably)

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18
Q

(RR)
MC etiology of primary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

apical subpleural bullae
(they randomly rupture, causing pleural space to fill with air)

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19
Q

(RR)
Tx of small to moderate pneumothoraces

A

supplemental O2 - they resolve on their own

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20
Q

(RR)
physiology - what cells are responsible for production of surfactant?

A

type II pnemocytes

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21
Q

(RR)
three organ systems affected by alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

lungs
liver
skin

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22
Q

(RR)
emphysema at a young age <= 45 yrs….think….

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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23
Q

(RR)
what is the type of emphysema that is defined by enlargement or destruction of all parts of the acinus?

A

panacinar emphysema

this type is most often associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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24
Q

(RR)
“what are the classic chest radiography signs associated with a pulmonary embolism?

A

Hampton Hump
Westermark Sign

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25
Q

(RR)
uveitis
bilateral hilar adenopathy
dry cough

A

sarcoidosis

Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that can form nodules in multiple organs.

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26
Q

(RR)
what is the skin manifestation of sarcoicosis?

A

subcutaneous nodules, i.e. erythema nodosum

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27
Q

(RR)
management of sarcoidosis

A

corticosteroids (eg prednisone)

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28
Q

(RR)
PE findings that are pathognomonic for sarcoidosis

A

lupus pernio

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29
Q

(RR)
what is lupus pernio?

A

chronic, violaceous raised plaques and nodules commonly found on cheeks, nose, and around the eyes

(it is pathognomonic for sarcoidosis)

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30
Q

(RR)
common CXR findings for sarcoidosis

A

bilateral hilar adenopathy

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31
Q

(RR)
what is the biopsy finding for sarcoidosis?

A

noncaseating granulomas

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32
Q

(RR)
what are the significant causes of disease in aspiration pneumonia and where are they commonly found?

A

anaerobic bacteria (including Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium nucleatum, Bacteroides)

they are present in the oral cavity

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33
Q

(RR)
How do you treat aspiration pneumonia when there is no evidence of abscess or empyema?

A

treat as community-acquired pneumonia

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34
Q

(RR)
how do you treat aspiration pneumonia when there is evidence of abscess or empyema?

A

ampicillin-sulbactam
amoxicillin - clavulanate (Augmentin)
amoxicillin plus metronidazole

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35
Q

(RR)
MC cause of lung abscess

A

aspiration pneumonia

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36
Q

(RR)
common history findings of aspiration pneumonia

A

impaired consciousness
dysphagia
esophageal disease

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37
Q

(RR)
what is the preferred anticoagulant for pulmonary embolus?

A

empiric anticoagulation therapy with LOW-MOLECULAR WEIGHT HEPARIN

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38
Q

(RR)
what types of workers are exposed to asbestos fibers and run the risk of asbestosis?

A

shipyard workers
construction workers
pipe fitters
INSULATORS

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39
Q

(RR)
“A transudative pleural effusion is identified after thoracentesis. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with this type of effusion?
a) 27 y/o F w/ a lupus flare
b) 47 y/o F w/ alcohol use disorder w/ an elevated lipase
c) 65 y/o M w/ an EF of 15% & pulmonary edema
d) 72 y/o M recently diagnosed with lung cancer

A

C) 65 y/o M w/ AN EF OF 15% & PULMONARY EDEMA

90% of transudative effusions are caused by HF as in the clinical scenario above

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40
Q

(RR)
first-line CAP treatment for pts who are >65 yrs, have comorbidities, or used abx w/in last 90 days:

A

augmentin plus azithromycin

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41
Q

(RR)
“what is the duration of treatment for pts being treated for CAP in the ambulatory setting?”

A

5 days

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42
Q

(RR)
common factors that precipitate COPD exacerbations

A

VIRAL URI (such as rhinovirus infection)
bacterial infections
excessive exposure to smoke/smog
inadequate use of medications that control COPD symptoms

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43
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS
pursed-lip breathing

A

emphysema

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44
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS
pink puffer

A

emphysema

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45
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS
blue bloater

A

chronic Bronchitis (all the b’s are together)

46
Q

BUZZWORDS
barrel chest

A

emphysema COPD

47
Q

(RR)
“What daily medication, in addition to an inhaled beta-agonist and an inhaled steroid, should be prescribed for the management of COPD with frequent exacerbations?”

A

an inhaled LABA or inhaled anticholingergic

48
Q

(RR)
“A patient with acute pancreatitis is noted to have a pleural effusion on chest radiography. Which of the following findings would you expect to find on pleural fluid analysis?
a) elevated amylase concentrations
b) elevated triglyceride concentrations
c) low glucose concentrations
d) low pH of pleural fluid”

A

A) ELEVATED AMYLASE CONCENTRATIONS

amylase measurements can assist when pleural effusions are caused by a pancreatic or esophageal etiology

49
Q

(RR)
“Is the lactate dehydrogenase level high or low in an exudate pleural fluid?”

A

high

50
Q

(RR)
what is the most sensitive and specific testing for pertussis?

A

PCR of nasopharyngeal secretions

51
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS
whooping cough

A

pertussis

52
Q

(RR)
treatment of pertussis

A

azithromycin
TMP-SMX

53
Q

(RR)
“If macrolide antibiotics are contraindicated in a patient with suspected pertussis, what is the second line alternative medication?”

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

54
Q

(RR)
what is bronchial provocation testing for asthma?

A

medication such as METHACHOLINE is given and produces a decreased FEV1 of 20% or more

55
Q

(RR)
the only therapy that has positive impact on patients’ survivial time and the natural course long-term of hypoxemic COPD is:

A

long-term supplemental oxygen therapy

56
Q

(RR)
“An ECG of a long-time COPD patient would likely show evidence of what?”

A

“Cor pulmonale, which is characterized by right ventricular hypertrophy, right atrial enlargement, right axis deviation, and signs of right-sided heart failure.”

57
Q

(RR)
any pt with a large pneumothorax or pts who are unstable should undergo immediate _____________

A

chest tube thoracostomy

58
Q

(RR)
MC cause of minor hemoptysis in ER?

A

acute bronchitis

Hemoptysis causes = BBATTLECAAAMP (‘battle camp”)
Bronchitis
Bronciectasis
Aspergilloma
Tumor
Tuberculosis
etc

59
Q

(RR)
MC sites of hemorrhage in massive hemoptysis?

A

bronchial or pulmonary arteries

60
Q

(RR)
aspiration pneumonitis vs aspiration pneumonia

A

aspiration pneumonitis - aspiration of sterile gastric contents, acute lung injury from acidic and particulate gastric material…often followed marked disturbance of consciousness (eg drug OD, sz, coma)

aspiration pneumonia - aspiration of colonized oropharyngeal material, acute pulmonary inflammatory response to bac and bac products

61
Q

(RR)
histological types of lung cancer w/in NON-SMALL CELL LUNG CA

A

squamous cell carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
large cell lung cancer

62
Q

(RR)
which types of lung cancer are located more centrally w/in lungs?

A

small cell lung CA
squamous cell carcinoma

“S”entral, Small cell, Squamous (three s’s)

63
Q

(RR)
which types of lung cancer are located more peripherally?

A

adenonocarcinoma
large cell lung CA

64
Q

(RR)
MC lung CA in individuals who have never smoked

A

adenocarcinoma lung cancer

65
Q

(RR)
which type of lung CA is most likely to cause SIADH?

A

small cell lung ca

66
Q

(RR)
the three pneumococcal vaccines - how do they work?

A

if a pt receives the 15-valent (PCV15), they get 23-valent (PPSV23) one year later

pts over 65 get 20-valent vaccine (PCV20), 1 dose

67
Q

CXR findings - negative for acute trauma, findings indicate a 7 mm well-defined, solid lesion in the upper right lung lobe.

what is next step?

A

CT of chest

68
Q

(RR)
risk of malignancy in nodules greater than 20 mm

A

> 50%

69
Q

(RR)
preferred modality for initial eval of malignancy risk for lung nodules

A

CT of the chest w/o contrast

70
Q

(RR)
nodules < 6mm

A

do not require f/u, regardless of components

71
Q

(RR)
“Which patients should receive regular low-dose CT screening for lung cancer?”

A

“Patients 50–80 years old who are at high risk of lung cancer (at least a 20 pack-year smoking history and are either current smokers or former smokers having quit within the past 15 years).”

72
Q

(RR)
acute bronchitis can last ____ weeks.

Pts who present with wheezing should get treatment with _____.

A

1-3 weeks

Patients with wheezing may benefit from a trial of inhaled BETA-AGONISTS, such as albuterol.

73
Q

(RR)
what virusus are MC etiologies of acute bronchitis?

A

coronavirus
rhinovirus
influenza A and B
parainfluenza
RSV

74
Q

(RR)
three common PE findings in bronchitis

A

mucopurulent cough > 5 days

RHONCHI

wheezing

75
Q

(RR)
treatment for a large or unstable tension pneumothorax

A

needle thoracostomy

76
Q

(RR)
what is miliary tuberculosis?

A

hematogenous dissemination of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, aka acute disseminated TB

this is TB that has spread and become a multisystem problem

77
Q

(RR)
what are Pancoast tumors? what is another name for them?

A

lung neoplasms located at the apical pleuropulmonary groove, adjacent to the subclavian vessels

aka superior pulmonary sulcus tumors

78
Q

(RR)
clinical presentation of Pancoast tumors

A

shoulder and arm pain (C8, T1, T2 dermatomes)

Horner syndrome (ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, etc.)

weakness, atrophy of m.m. of hand

(cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea uncommon)

79
Q

(RR)
management of Pancoast tumors

A

chemoradiotherapy
surgical resection

80
Q

(RR)
MC pathogen causing PNA in CF patients and treatment

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

FQs such as levofloxacin or ciprofloxacin

81
Q

(RR)
how to recognize a CF pt in a vignette

A

OTC Vit A, D, E, K
pancreatic enzyme replacements
inhaled dornase alfa
chest physiotherapy
daily bronchodilators
PFT = mixed obstructive and restrictive patterns

82
Q

(RR)
“What GI dx should raise suspicion for CF?”

A

“meconium ileus at birth”

83
Q

(RR)
A pt w/ AFib with RVR is discharged from hospital on amiodarone. What diagnostic study should be followed OP?

A

CXR

pulmonary toxicity may result from chronic amiodarone therapy (MC is chronic interstitial pneumonitis)

84
Q

(RR)
who gets prednisone before TMP-SMX?

A

HIV-positive pts with moderate to severe PJP defined by ROOM AIR ARTERIAL OXYGEN PARTIAL PRESSURE OF LESS THAN 70 mm Hg (PaO2 < 70 mmHg)

or A-a oxygen gradient > 35 mmHg

85
Q

(RR) BUZZWORDS
bilateral ground-glass opacities in a batwing pattern

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia

treat with TMP-SMX (and add steroids for moderate to severe disease)

86
Q

(RR)
when do you use chest tube thoracostomy vs needle decompression of pneumothorax?

A

big pneumo and unstable pt = chest tube thoracostomy

needle decompress if chest tube thoracostomy is delayed

“Any patient who is unstable should undergo immediate chest tube thoracostomy with needle decompression implemented in those with delayed chest tube insertion.”

87
Q

(RR)
overuse of albuterol or any beta-2-adrenergic agonist may result in what lab abnormality?

A

hypokalemia

(“due to the increased activity of Na-K-ATPase pumps in skeletal m. which drive K+ intracellularly”)

88
Q

(RR)
what counseling should be given to child-bearing-age women regarding smoking?

A

smoking increases risk for infertility

89
Q

(RR)
T/F: “Nicotine is excreted in breast milk”

A

TRUE

90
Q

(RR)
define persistent-moderate asthma in terms of symptoms and FEV1

A

symptoms are daily and
>1 but < 7 nights/week

FEV1 is 60-80%

91
Q

(RR)
define persistent-mild asthma in terms of symptoms and FEV1

A

symptoms are >2 but <7 days/week and
>3-4 nights/month

FEV1>80%

92
Q

(RR)
three steps of asthma treatment

A

Step 1 - SABA (prn)

Step 2 - short-acting anticholinergics (ipratropium bromide (Atrovent))

Step 3 - systemic corticosteroids

93
Q

(RR)
usual test of choice for a pt with high clinical probability of PE

what if pt has elevated Cr?

A

CT angiogram of chest with IV contrast

if Cr is elevated, use V/Q scan

94
Q

(RR)
“How long should an individual undergo treatment for an isolated PE w/ no other risk factors?”

A

“3 months”

95
Q

(RR)
“in LOW clinical suspicion, negative D-dimer” tells us what?

A

“negative D-dimer excludes PE”

96
Q

(RR)
indications for a chest xray to r/o PNA

A

abnml v/s such as
T>38 C
HR >100 bpm
RR >24
or age >75 yrs w/ severe clinical s/s

97
Q

(RR)
gold standard for confirming etiology of a pleural effusion

A

“A diagnostic THORACENTESIS is gold standard for confirming the underlying etiology of pleural effusion and is indicated whenever there is new pleural effusion without an apparent cause.”

98
Q

(RR)
purpose of lateral decubitus radiograph in terms of pleural effusion

A

it can help differentiate free flowing fluid from loculated fluid (not sure why that’s important to know)

99
Q

(RR)
common CXR findings of pleural effusion

A

blunting of costophrenic angles

100
Q

(RR)
treatment for asthma s/s 3 days/week and night s/s 3x/month

A

this is PERSISTENT-MILD asthma

low dose inhaled corticosteroid and SABA (rescue inhaler)

101
Q

(RR)
superior vena cava syndrome - what is it?

A

elevated venous pressure in upper body resulting in obstruction of blood flow through the SVC

…usually caused by extrinsic compression, commonly caused by lung cancer tumors

102
Q

(RR)
clinical signs of superior vena cava syndrome

A

edema - facial and upper extremity

SOB

HA, CP

distended neck and chest veins

103
Q

(RR)
treatment for asthma pt using rescue inhaler 3-4 x/week and waking up 4 night/month with SOB

A

this is PERSISTENT - MILD asthma

time to add a low dose inhaled glucocorticoid

104
Q

(RR)
treatment for exercise-induced bronchoconstriction

A

LEUKOTRIENE RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST (LTRA) like montelukast

” Patients with prolonged or recurrent exercise, such as the patient in the vignette above, should also add a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA), such as montelukast, daily for bronchoprotective properties.” “improve overall asthma control”, also could be achieved by adding glucocorticoid.

105
Q

(RR)
When is surgical thoracotomy indicated to follow ER-chest tube for a hemothorax?

A

if >1500 mL of blood is evacuated

106
Q

(RR)
best imaging for a hemothorax

A

chest CT scan with contrast

107
Q

(RR)
“when does surfactant begin to be expressed in the fetal lung?”

A

20 weeks gestation

“surfactant gradually increases until 33-36 weeks gestation” at which point “there is a surge in surfactant”

108
Q

(RR)
what memory tool helps distinguish CXR findings for two key pneumoconiosis?

A

ASBESTOS: from the ROOF, affects the BASE (lower lobes)

SILICA, COAL: from the BASE of the earth, but affects the ROOF (upper lobes)

109
Q

(RR)
What do you do next if a TB skin test is negative, but pt had close contact with someone w/ active TB?

A

REPEAT TUBERCULIN SKIN TEST IN 8-10 WKS

“If the skin test is negative, and the patient had recent close contact with someone with active tuberculosis, the patient should have a repeat tuberculin skin test in 8 to 10 weeks to exclude a latent tuberculosis infection. The infection may be so recent that hypersensitivity has not developed to allow for a positive test.”

110
Q

(RR)
pneumonia + otalgia, and fluid-filled vesicles on TM

A

bullous myrignitis probably caused by Strep pneumo

111
Q

(RR)
first line treatment for TB

A

RIPE for 2 months, then RI for 4 months

PANCE (13 decks)

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