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NAVLE > NAVLE Wrong Questions > Flashcards

NAVLE Wrong Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What organisation regulated meat and poultry products including eggs?

A

USDA

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2
Q

What organisation regulates almost all food, seafood and use of veterniary drugs?

A

FDA

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3
Q

What organisation regulates pesticides and water standards?

A

EPA

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4
Q

What is the most likely cause of these fuzzy brown, colaescing lesions that result in a very high mortality rate in hatcheries?

A

Saprolegnia

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5
Q

What is a benefit of alfaxalone?

A

Has minimal dose-dependent effects on cardiopulmonary

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6
Q

What does the does reflex assess?

A

dazzle reflex examines CN II separate of visual cortex (cortical lesion animals will still have a dazzle)

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7
Q

What is 4-ipomeanol?

A

pneumotoxic compound that is produced by fungus Fusarium solani acting on the sweet potato

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8
Q

Describe a characteristic presentation of swine influenza:

A

Rapid spread of disease and very high temperatures

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9
Q

What would be a useful test for brucella screening monitoring in dairy herds?

A

Brucella milk ring test

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10
Q

What disease process would you be expecting with prolapsed, erythematous, proliferative lesion in a macaw?

A

Cloacal papilloma

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11
Q

What medications have been associated with the onset of congestive heart failure in cats?

A

Corticosteroids

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12
Q

What is unilateral progressive paresis suggestive of in budgerigars?

A

Renal neoplasia

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13
Q

What is the cause of Eperythrozoonosis in pigs?

A

Mycoplasma suis

Vectored by biting insects, causes anaemia, fever, icterus and reproductive failure
Young pigs> older pigs
Tetracycline Ab’s = treatment of choice

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14
Q

(What medication can be used to treat ear mites (psorptes) in rabbits?

A

ivermectin/selemectin - never use fibronil (Frontline) in rabbits ear it is very toxic

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15
Q

What is the best treatment against Eimeria in cattle?

A

Lasalocid

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16
Q

What is the cause of infectious laryngotrachitis?

A

Herpesvirus - diagnosed by intratracheal inclusion bodies in tracheal epithelium

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17
Q

How would the appetite appear in a dog with EPI?

A

Ravenous

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18
Q

What are the characteristic signs of hyperkalaemia?

A

Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex, lack of P waves, tall tented T waves

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of crypto infection in humans?

A

Water contamination

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20
Q

What is the most likely cause of non-alopecic crusting midline lesions in the horse?

A

Haematobia

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21
Q

What is the vector for african swine fever?

A

The soft tick - Ornithodorus

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22
Q

What two pathogens are most likely to cause gangrenous mastitis in a cow?

A

Mannheima and staph aureus

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23
Q

What pathogen should be vaccinate against when moving sheep to lush pasture/a feedlot situation?

A

Enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringens

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24
Q

When are IgM titres typically observed?

A

identify infection @ 1-2 weeks of exposure –> peak at 3-6 weeks –> negative by 12 weeks

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25
Q

When do IgG titres develop?

A

normally 2 weeks post infection –> stay present for very long time

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26
Q

Why is terbutaline often given for cases of asthma in cats?

A

beta -2 adrenergic agonist - bronchodilation + mild effects on heart

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27
Q

What does sago palm ingestion commonly cause?

A

Acute liver failure

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28
Q

What is the suspected cause of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

Recent vaccination

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29
Q

What structures would you expect to find in the guttural pouches?

A

7,9,10, 11 and 12
Sympathetic trunk + internal carotid

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30
Q

What organ does toxicity of aminoglycosides affect?

A

normally affects the kidneys

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31
Q

What is the infectious agent invovled in turkey coryza?

A

Bordatella avium

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32
Q

What drug should be given for hairball treatment?

A

Laxatone - contains petroleum/mineral gel

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33
Q

What disease does clostridium haemolyticum cause?

A

Redwater disease

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34
Q

What should be fed in cases of hyperkalaemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)?

A

Timothy hay - low in potassium

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35
Q

How does omeprazole work?

A

Proton pump blocker

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36
Q

How does cimetidine/ranitidine/famotidine work?

A

H2 antagonists

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37
Q

What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in kittens?

A

GI parasites

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38
Q

What are the three stages of parturition in the foal?

A
  1. fetal repositioning into the dorsosacral position
  2. Rupture of chorioallantois + ends with birth of foal
  3. Stage 3 characterised by passage of fetal membranes (placenta)
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39
Q

What is Tyzzers disease?

A

Acute necrotising hepatitis caused by Clostridium piliformis

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40
Q

What is the most effective strategy to rid a herd of Leptospira harjo bovis?

A

Treat all herd with tetracycline antibiotics and then vaccinate to eliminate carriers

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41
Q

What are the clinical signs of fescue grass toxicity seen in cattle?

A

Lameness + sloughing of the rear hooves

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41
Q

What are the clinical signs of fescue grass toxicity seen in cattle?

A

Lameness + sloughing of the rear hooves

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42
Q

What is the cause of fowl plague?

A

Avian influenza

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43
Q

What will happen if you give oral ampicillin in a rabbit?

A

Clostridial enterotoxaemia

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44
Q

Shoudl stallions with Taylorella equigenitalis ever be bred?

A

No - these animals should never be bred

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45
Q

What treatment should be instituted for brodifacoum toxicity?

A

Vitamin K1 administration for 4-6 weeks

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46
Q

What is the treatment for a 3rd degree AV block?

A

Pacemaker implantation

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47
Q

How many permanent teeth do goats have?

A

32

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48
Q

Name the toxin in beetles that causes colic

A

Canthardin

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49
Q

What equine pathogen is associated lung pathology?

A

Parascaris equorum

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50
Q

What are the three requirements for a definitive diagnosis of PCVA2?

A
  1. Doubling of mortality
  2. Lymphoid depletion (histopathology)
  3. High number of PCVA2 antigen in tissue (IHC on tissue)
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51
Q

What organs do aminoglycosides affect?

A

Kidneys

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52
Q

Describe the innervation of the iris contrictor muscle:

A

Innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system of CNIII

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53
Q

What is the prinicipal cause of FIP?

A

Coronavirus

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54
Q

What is a foodborn illness that can cause haemorrhagic diarrhoa and haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) in suscpetible animals?

A

E.coli O157:H7

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55
Q

What is the top differential for a hamster that appears with a wet tail?

A

Proliferative ileitis

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56
Q

What nerve is responsible for tear production?

A

CN VII

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57
Q

What is the treatment for mammary gland hyperplasia in cats?

A

OVH

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58
Q

What is the formula for calculating prevalence in a population?

A

P = ID
Incidence (number of new cases in a period of time) and duration (how long the cases last)

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59
Q

What does a clicking sound on manipulation of the stifle mean?

A

Means damage to the medial meniscus

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60
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle of the goat, cow and pig?

A

21 days

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61
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle of the sheep?

A

17 days

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62
Q

What is the effect of vitamin E deficiency in chicks?

A

Nutritional encephalomalacia

63
Q

What are the main symptoms that were associated with mare reproductive loss syndrome?

A

Abortion + neonatal fetal loss + fibrinous pericarditis

64
Q

What is the treatment for aspergillosis in chickens?

A

Cull them

65
Q

Who is most commonly affected by perineal adenomas?

A

Older intact males

66
Q

What is the most liver specific enzyme in cow, sheep, goat and horse?

A

Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)

67
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic test for canine distemper virus?

A

Immunofluroscent assay of affected epithelium

68
Q

What is the treatment of choice for splints in horses?

A

Rest + NSAID’s

69
Q

What does fusobacterium necrophorum typically cause in young piglets?

A

Necrotic rhinitis

70
Q

What mycotoxin causes hyperoestrogenism and pseudopregnancy in pigs?

A

Zearaleone

71
Q

What should be done prior to managing an anaesthetic in ruminants?

A

Withold feed + water for a sufficient period of time to minimise bloat

72
Q

What do turkeys have a high requirement for?

A

Choline

73
Q

What is the cause of spirochaetal colitis?

A

Brachyspira pilosicoli

74
Q

What is a major side effect of the chemotherapeutic drug adriamycin in dogs?

A

Cardiotoxicity

75
Q

What chemotherapeutic drug causes ileus?

A

Vincristine

76
Q

What chemotherapeutic causes anaphylaxis?

A

L - asparaginase

77
Q

What chemotherapeutic drug causes nephrotoxicity?

A

Cisplatin

78
Q

What chemotherapeutic drug causes cystitis?

A

cyclophosphamide

79
Q

What poultry disease has been transmitted to humans through the consumption of infected eggs?

A

Salmonella enterititis

80
Q

What vitamin deficiency results in blunted choanal papillae and poor feather quality in birds?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

81
Q

What is an example of an osmotic diuretic?

A

Mannitol

82
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasia in a horse?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

83
Q

What parasite in horses can result in thrombosis of the mesenteric artery?

A

S. vulgaris

84
Q

Murine respiratory mycosis in rats is typically characterised by what clinical signs?

A

Nasal discharge + ataxia

85
Q

Where does Anaplasma phagocytophilum live?

A

In neutrophils

86
Q

What is the cause of big head in sheep?

A

Clostridium novyi type A: through wounds, treat with penicillin, multivalent clostrideal toxoids

87
Q

What is the survival time from an osteosarcoma in cats?

A

Typically 12 months or more - stark contrast to dogs

88
Q

How is dermatomyositis typically diagnosed?

A

Skin + muscle biopsy

89
Q

What are the normal parameters for sperm?

A

70% normal morphology, 30% forwards motility

90
Q

Why does parvovirus survive so long in the environment?

A

Non-enveloped virus

91
Q

How long is a mares oestrus cycle?

A

6 days

92
Q

What is the main concern with praire dogs?

A

Yesinea pestis - occurs from bites by infected fleas

93
Q

How is cat gut suture broken down?

A

Phagocytosis

94
Q

How are vicryl, maxon and PDS typically broken down?

A

Hydrolysis

95
Q

What is the definitive host of Dictyocaulus arnfeldi?

A

Donkey

96
Q

What is the most common cause of no hairs on the ears of daschsunds?

A

Canine pinnal alopecia - congenital

97
Q

How does heparin work?

A

Binds to antithrombin –> accelerates interaction of antithrombin + activated factor X or thrombin

98
Q

How many airsacs do birds have?

A

9 air sacs

99
Q

What is the cause of avian encephalmyelitis?

A

Marble spleen disease

100
Q

What disease of cats causes oral ulcers?

A

Calicivirus

101
Q

What is the most common cause of aural haematomas in pigs?

A

Biting from other pen mates

102
Q

What is the most common cause of Theilers disease?

A

Tetanus antitoxin

103
Q

What is the most common cause of Tyzzers disease?

A

Bacillus or Clostridium piliformis

104
Q

What is the cause of skin fragility syndrome in cats?

A

Poorly regulated diabeties due to hyperadrenocorticism

105
Q

What do you expect to see on vaginal cytology in a bitch in pro-oestrus?

A

Red blood cells + <90% cornified cells

106
Q

What is the best treatment for feline constipation?

A

Cisapride

107
Q

What endocrinopathy predisposes to SARDS?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

108
Q

What is a potential cause of primary anterior uveitis?

A

Coccidiois immitis infection

109
Q

What is the normal amount of water to drink for a horse?

A

50-70ml water/kg/day

110
Q

What is the normal urine production in a horse per day?

A

10-15 ml/kg/day

111
Q

What is the most likley cause of a yellow sticky ascites in cats?

A

FIP

112
Q

Antidote for ethylene glycol

A

4-MP

113
Q

What is the most common type of cardiac regurg in horses?

A

Atrial regurgiation - often incidental

114
Q

What is the best method of evaluating a horses response to anaemia?

A

Bone marrow sampling

115
Q

How is extraocular polymyositis treated?

A

Prednisolone +/- azathioprine

116
Q

What is the most common brain lesion associated with listeriosis?

A

Microabscesses

117
Q

What is the best treatment for Potomac horse fever?

A

Oxytetracycline - 7-10d course

118
Q

How should pigs be treated in an APP outbreak?

A

Inject all pigs with enrofloxacin

119
Q

What is the only FDA approved treatment for demidicosis?

A

Amitraz (Mitaban)

120
Q

What bloodwork abnormality is typically asscoiated with renal carcinoma?

A

Polycythaemia

121
Q

What are three lesions that can result in a raised plaque appearance in a birds mouth?

A

Candida, hypovitaminosis A and trichomoniasis

122
Q

What are the chances of survivial from an abdominal ulcer in calves?

A

Guarded - less than 10%

123
Q

What is the most common skin tumour of the cat?

A

Basal cell tumour

124
Q

Most common respiratory disease of barn raised calves 1-6 months

A

Enzootic pneumoniae - P.mulitcoda

125
Q

What is the most common side effect of ivermectin?

A

Neurotoxicity

126
Q

3 parapox viruses that can cause lesions in humans

A

Pseudocowpox, Bovine papular stomatitis, contagious ecthyemea of goats and sheep

127
Q

Treatment for calicivirus

A

Clindamycin + sucrulfate

128
Q

Meningeal worm in Llamas

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

129
Q

Treatment for cat given fleet enema

A

Calcium gluconate
IV fluid therapy
Phosphorus binders

130
Q

Carrier of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Dermacentor tick

131
Q

Treatment of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Doxycycline

132
Q

Induction of abortion in cow

A

Before 4 months and last month - PGF 2a
Anywhere inbetween - PGF2a an dexamethasone

133
Q

Treatment for Glassers disease in herd of pigs

A

Long acting injections of ceftiofur for every pig

134
Q

Cat predisposed to cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma

A

White cat

135
Q

Tumour containing different number of chromosomes to host

A

Transmissible venereal cell tumour

136
Q

Canine distemper

A

Paramyxoviridae

137
Q

Cattle lungworm

A

Dictyocaulus viviparus

138
Q

Most equine uroliths

A

Ca carbonate

139
Q

Side effect of pradofloxacin in dogs

A

Bone marrow suppression

140
Q

Treatment for Giardia

A

Fenbendazole/Metronidazole

141
Q

What is the best strategy for diagnosis of dermatophytosis?

A

microscopic examination of macroconidia

142
Q

cat with a severe chemosis

A

chlamydophila

143
Q

chemotherapeutic drug causing fatal pulomary oedema in cats

A

cisplatin (cis-plat-splats cats)

144
Q

2 differentials for fish with chronic low mortality + internal granulomas

A

Mycobacteriosis and Francisellosis

145
Q

Most important mycotoxin of cattle

A

Aflatoxin

146
Q

Fowlpox virus

A

intracyctoplasmic inclusions

147
Q

Nervous coccidoisis cause

A

Eimeria

148
Q

What drugs should be used for erysipelas

A

Penicillins + tetracyclins

149
Q

Signalment of heaves in horses

A

> 6y

150
Q

Best control method for Mareks

A

In-ovo vaccination

151
Q

Cow with small bladder and pitting ventrally

A

ruptured urethra

152
Q

Vitamin K3 is contraindicated in horses due to

A

nephrotoxciosis

153
Q

A dog with greasy seborrhoea of the face + dorsal trunk

A

Skin scrape

154
Q

Copper coloured eyes

A

Portosystemic shunt

155
Q

Shortest acting and most potent to longest acting and most potent insulin

A

Regular, NPH, Lente, PZI, Ultralente

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