Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 1- Foundations to Medicine > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

1
Q

Features common to all Eukaryotic Cells

A
  • Outer membrane
  • inner cytosol
  • Cytoskeleton
  • Organelles
  • Inclusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of the plasma membrane?

A

separates the cytoplasm from the outside environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of the plasma membrane

A

a bimolecular layer of amphipathic phospholipid molecules with their hydrophilic heads at the outer and inner surfaces and their hydrophobic fatty acid tails facing the middle of the 2 layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contents of the plasma membrane

A
  • phospholipid molecules
  • integral proteins
  • cholesterol
  • carbohydrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

role of integral proteins in the plasma membrane

A

They can act as receptors, channels, transporters, enzymes and cell attachment proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

movement of material inside the cell to extracellular environments

A

exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

movement of material outside the cell into the cell

A

endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Permeability of the plasma membrane

A

HIGHLY permeable to:
-water
-oxygen
-small hydrophobic molecules

VIRTUALLY IMpermeable to:
charged ions i.e. Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The cell membrane is fluid TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

intracellular

A

within the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

intercellular

A

between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

contents of the cytoplasm

A

organelles
inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Organelles within the cytoplasm (6)

A

Mitochondria
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
lysosomes
nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inclusions

A

components that the cell has synthesised itself or taken up from the extracellular environment
{may or may not be bound by a membrane}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 3 types of cytoskeletal filaments

A

microfilaments
intermediate filaments
microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

diameter of microfilaments

A

7nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are microfilaments composed of?

A

actin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diameter of intermediate filaments

A

> 10 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are intermediate filaments composed of?

A

6 main proteins which vary in different cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diameter of microtubules

A

25 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are microtubules composed of?

A

2 types of tubulin subunit (alpha and beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

structure of microtubules

A

a hollow alternating array of alpha and beta tubulin and can be assembled and disassembled
include stabilising proteins (microtubule associated proteins MAPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where do microtubules originate from?

A

the centrosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

role of dynein and kinesin with microtubules

A

the proteins attach to the microtubules and move along them, whilst associating with the membranes of organelles and vesicles ‘dragging’ them along the microtubule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Kinesin is an ATPase that moves toward the cell centre. TRUE/FALSE

A

FALSE Kinesin travels towards the cell periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dynein is an ATPase that moves towards the cell centre TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are cilia?

A

hairlike projections important in the movement of substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how can intermediate filaments be used to identify tumour origins?

A

The filaments are separated into classes and so the type of filament will correspond with a location or cell type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

location of neurofilaments

A

nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glial fibrillary acidic proteins are present in the glial cells of the nervous system. TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Intermediate filaments located in muscle cells

A

desmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

location of cytokeratins

A

epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

mesenchymal cells contain filesin. TRUE/FALSE

A

FLASE.
mesenchymal cells contain VIMENTIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

intermediate filament associated with the lens of the eye cells

A

filesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

location of lamin filaments

A

nuclei of all cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

role of intermediate filaments

A

bind intracellular elements together and to the plasma membrane

{form a network throughout the cells cytoplasm}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the structure of the nucleus?

A
  • enclosed by a nuclear envelope
  • inner and outer nuclear membrane
  • nuclear pores providing continuity with the cytoplasm
  • contains chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the outer nuclear membrane is studded with ribosomes. TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE.

The outer nuclear membrane is also continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum within the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

site of transcription of mRNA

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

site of transcription of tRNA

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

site of rRNA transcription

A

nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the 2 types of DNA contained within the nucleus?

A

euchromatin and heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is euchromatin?

A

DNA that is more dispersed and is actively undergoing transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is heterochromatin?

A

DNA that is highly condensed and is not undergoing transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how are chromosomes arranged in euchromatin?

A

uncoiled (active)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how are chromosomes arranged in heterochromatin?

A

coiled (inactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

the nucleus is surrounded by a [SINGLE/DOUBLE] nuclear membrane

A

DOUBLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

where are ribosomes formed?

A

the nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are ribosomes made up of?

A

a small subunit and a large subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the role of the small subunit within a ribosome?

A

binding RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the role of the large subunit within a ribosome?

A

catalysing the formation of peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the structural difference between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

the rough endoplasmic reticulum is ‘studded’ with ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

a vital role in the synthesis of proteins destined for insertion into membranes or for secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how does the amount of different types of ER vary between cell types?

A

cells that are relatively metabolically inactive have relatively little ER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

continuing the processing of proteins produced in the RER

the site of lipid synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is the amount of SER and RER the same in all cells?

A

NO.

most cells have relatively little SER but some specialised cells have an extensive amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

structure of the Golgi apparatus

A

a group of flattened, membrane bound cisternae arranged in sub-compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Role of the Golgi apparatus

A

modification and packaging of macromolecules produced in the ER.

-adds sugars
-cleaves some proteins
-sorts macromolecules into vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mitochondria can be easily seen in normal staining. TRUE/FALSE

A

FALSE
mitochondria cannot be seen easily in normal staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are mitochondria?

A

oblong, cylindrical organelles, typically 0.5-2 micrometers in length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

structure of the mitochondria

A
  • in outer membrane
  • extensively folded inner membrane into CRISTAE which act to increase surface area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Function of the mitochondria

A

power generators of the cell
-generate ATP via oxidative phosphorylation and the synthesis of certain lipids and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Mitochondria contain their own DNA TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are intercellular junctions

A

specialised membrane structures which link cells together into a functional unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

where are intercellular junctions most prominent

A

epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the 3 main types of intercellular junctions?

A
  • Occluding junctions
  • Anchoring junctions
  • Communication Junctions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the other name of occluding junctions and why?

A

Zonula Occludens

Zonula: Bands
Occludens: Allows no movement off molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Role of occluding junctions

A

Prevents diffusion (does not allow movement of molecules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do occluding junctions appear?

A

bands tightly closing the cell membranes together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what do adherent junctions do?

A

link submembrane actin bundles of adjacent bundles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the other name for adherent junctions?

A

zonula adherens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how do adherent junctions work?

A

transmembrane CADHERIN molecules bind to each other in the extracellular space and through link molecules , to actin of the cytoskeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what do desmosomes do?

A

link intermediate filaments of adjacent cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the other name for desmosomes and why?

A

macula adherens or spot junctions

macula = spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

where are desmosomes most common?

A

the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What do communicating junctions do?

A

allow selective diffusion of molecules between adjacent cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are communicating junctions sometimes called and why?

A

gap junctions as they allow selective diffusion between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Communicating junctions allow he movement of all molecules between adjacent cells TRUE/FALSE?

A

FALSE

They are selective of the molecules allowed to pass through depending on size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how are communication junctions structured?

A

each junction is a circular patch studded with several hundred pores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what proteins produce the pores in communication junctions?

A

connexon proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

where are communicating junctions most readily found?

A

epithelia, however are also present in some smooth muscle and in cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is a junctional complex?

A

Close association of several types of junctions found in certain epithelial tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the 3 ways in which material can be transferred in and out of the cell?

A
  • Diffusion
  • Transport proteins
  • Incorporation into vesicles (vesicular transport)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

(BASIC) what is endocytosis?

A

The movement of material from the extracellular space into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

(BASIC) what is exocytosis?

A

the discharge of material from within the cell out into the extracellular space

86
Q

How does endocytosis work?

A

-The cell membrane invaginates, fuses and the newly made endocytotic vesicle buds into the cell

87
Q

what is the correct term for the endocytotic vesicle?

A

endosome

88
Q

Endocytosis is receptor mediated TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

89
Q

(BASIC) what is phagocytosis?

A

Bacteria or larger material can be incorporated into the cell from the extracellular space

90
Q

what is the cell cycle?

A

the period of time between the birth of a cell and its own division to produce two daughter cells

91
Q

what is the minimum period of time the cell cycle can last?

A

12 hours

92
Q

what are cycling cells?

A

cells that continue to divide regularly in definite intervals

93
Q

what the 2 main sections of the cell cycle?

A

mitosis and interphase

94
Q

what are the stages of interphase?

A

G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase

95
Q

what happens to the 2 identical daughter cells formed during mitosis?

A

they move into interphase

96
Q

what is interphase?

A

the interval between the end of mitosis and the beginning of the next

97
Q

Mitosis is the longest part of the cell cycle. TRUE/FALSE

A

FALSE

Interphase is the longest part of the cell cycle, cells spend 90-95% in this phase

98
Q

What happens during the G1 stage of the cell cycle?

A

the cell responds to growth factors

99
Q

when would the G0 phase occur?

A

between G1 and S

100
Q

What happens to cells that cannot divide any further but can still proliferate by differentiation?

A

they enter the G0 phase

101
Q

what is the G0 phase?

A

the state of cell cycle arrest/ a cellular state outwit the replicative cycle

Any DNA damage preventing division is repaired

102
Q

when does the S phase of the cell cycle begin?

A

8hrs after mitosis

103
Q

how long does the S phase of the cell cycle take to complete?

A

about 7-8hrs

104
Q

what happens during the S Phase of the cell cycle?

A

new DNA is synthesised

105
Q

what is the gap between the end of the S phase and the beginning of mitosis called?

A

G2 phase

106
Q

how long roughly does the G2 phase take to happen?

A

2-4hrs

107
Q

what happens during the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

the cell prepares for division;

-the nuclear membrane starts to disappear and chromosomes begin to condense

108
Q

what type of cells does mitosis occur in most of?

A

somatic cells

109
Q

what is the result of mitosis?

A

the distribution of the parent cell genome into 2 identical daughter cells

110
Q

where are the paired centrioles located?

A

outside of the nuclear envelope in the cytoplasm

111
Q

during interphase how are chromosomes seen?

A

inactive and uncoiled long threads

112
Q

what are the 4 phases of mitosis?

A

prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase

113
Q

what happens during prophase of mitosis?

A
  • each chromosome splits into 2 chromatids except at the centromere
  • centrioles separate by the elongation of the microtubules
  • centrioles occupy the 2 opposite poles of the cell
114
Q

what occurs between prophase and metaphase of mitosis?

A

PROMETAPHASE:

  • nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear
  • chromosomes entangled in microtubule meshwork
115
Q

what happens during metaphase of mitosis?

A
  • centromeres present kinetochores
  • chromosomal microtubules extend from centromeres to centrioles
  • due to growth of chromosomal microtubules, chromosomes can now occupy equator
116
Q

how long does metaphase of mitosis last?

A

20 mins

117
Q

what are kinetochores?

A

bilateral discs coming from the centromeres of chromosomes during metaphase

118
Q

what happens when colchicine is administered during metaphase?

A

arrest of cell division

119
Q

how does colchicine arrest cell division in metaphase?

A

prevents the formation of spindle microtubules so chromosomes gather round the centrioles rather than along the cell equator

120
Q

What happens during telophase of mitosis?

A

the daughter chromosomes are enveloped by a new nuclear membrane and the nucleolus reappears

the chromosomes uncoil and become thin threads again

the cytoplasm divides and two daughter cells are formed

121
Q

what happens during cytokinesis?

A

the cytoplasm divides and two identical cells are formed

the cleavage furrow develops around the equator

the contraction of fibrillar component of cytoplasm help in hourglass constriction of cleavage.

122
Q

what is non-disjunction?

A

due to abnormal function of spindle apparatus one or more chromosomes fail to migrate properly in ANAPHASE

one daughter cell receives extra chromosomes and one is deficient

123
Q

what an isochromosome?

A

sometimes the centromere splits transversely rather than longitudinally resulting in two daughter chromosomes of unequal length

124
Q

what are the levels of structural organisation?

A

-Cell
-tissue
-organ
-organ system
-organism

125
Q

what are 3 histological techniques?

A
  • Tissue Processing
  • Embedding and Sectioning
  • Staining
126
Q

what does tissue processing do in histological testing?

A

preserves the tissue in its lifelike form and hardens it to be sliced

127
Q

what does embedding and sectioning do in histological testing?

A

sections the tissue to ensure its thin enough for light to pass through

128
Q

what does staining do in histological testing?

A

makes cells more visible under the microscope

129
Q

what are the 4 steps involved in tissue processing?

A

fixation
dehydration
clearing
infiltration

130
Q

what is the importance of fixation in tissue processing?

A

fixates the tissue with something like formalin

131
Q

what is the importance of dehydration in tissue processing?

A

replaces H2O in tissue with alcohol (clearing agent cannot replace H2O)

132
Q

what is the importance of clearing in tissue processing?

A

to replace all alcohol in the tissue with xylene

133
Q

what is the importance of infiltration in tissue processing?

A

to replace xylene in the tissue with paraffin wax.

134
Q

what temperature does the infiltration step of tissue processing occur at?

A

52-60 degrees Celsius

135
Q

explain the steps of embedding and sectioning tissues

A
  • take tissue out of cassette and place into a mould
  • remove from mould when cooled
  • Slice into extremely thin sections
136
Q

what type of stain would be used on an acidophilic tissue, what colour would it be and what is a common stain used for this?

A

-An acidic stain
- Red or pink
- Eosin

137
Q

what type of stain would be used on a basophilic tissue, what colour would it be and what is a common stain used for this?

A
  • A basic stain
  • Blue or purple
  • Hematoxylin
138
Q

what is the most common stain type used?

A

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E)

139
Q

what are the 4 basic tissue types?

A

Epithelium
Connective tissue
muscle tissue
nervous tissue

140
Q

basic Role of epithelia

A

cover the surface of the body
lines hollow organs
forms glands

141
Q

Basic role of connective tissue

A

forms the framework of the body
-Dynamic role in growth and homeostasis of tissues

142
Q

basic role of muscle tissue

A

specialised to contract and generate force

143
Q

three types of muscle tissue

A

cardiac
skeletal
smooth

144
Q

basic role of nervous tissue

A

specialised to conduct impulses

145
Q

what does nervous tissue consist of?

A

neurons and supporting cells

146
Q

characteristics of epithelia

A
  • Polarity (apical and basal end)
  • Tightly adherent (cell junctions)
  • Avascular (vessels beneath the epithelium)
147
Q

what are the 2 main types of epithelium?

A

covering epithelium and glandular

148
Q

what are the 3 types of covering epithelium and what is the difference between them all?

A

Simple
one single layer of cells

Stratified
2 or more layers of cells

Pseudo stratified
appears like more than one layer but only a single layer

149
Q

what are the 3 categories of simple epithelia and what do the cells look like?

A

squamous (flat)

cuboidal (cube like)

columnar (column like)

150
Q

what are the 4 different types of stratified epithelia?

A

squamous
cuboidal
columnar
transitional (top cell layer sometimes appears squamous and sometimes looks cuboidal)

151
Q

what are microvilli?

A

minute fingerlike projections at the apical end of cells

increase the surface area of the cells to aid in absorption

152
Q

what are goblet cells?

A

specialised cells that produce mucus

153
Q

how are glands formed?

A

inward dipping of epithelium

154
Q

what are the 2 types of glands formed by glandular epithelium?

A

exocrine glands and endocrine glands

155
Q

how do endocrine glands secrete products?

A

directly onto a surface through a duct.

156
Q

how do endocrine glands secrete products?

A

directly into the blood stream

157
Q

What are the 2 (3) main types of connective tissue?

A

soft hard and special (blood/lymph)

158
Q

soft connective tissue examples

A

tendons
ligaments
dermis of the skin etc…

159
Q

hard connective tissue examples

A

cartilage and bone

160
Q

what cells are found within connective tissue and what are they?

A

fibroblasts (produce and maintain the extracellular matrix)
adipocytes - fat cells
osteocytes - bone cells
chondrocytes - cartilage cells

161
Q

what does the extracellular matrix consist of?

A

fibres
ground substance
tissue fluid

162
Q

what does loose CT look like on imaging?

A

loosely packed fibres
thick collagen fibres
thin elastic fibres
lots if ground substance

163
Q

what does adipose tissue look like on imaging?

A

little ECM
Little ground substance
cells filled with a fat droplet
nucleus appears small and pushed to the side

164
Q

what does dense connective tissue look like on imaging?

A

dense packed fibres

regular dense CT if fibres are aligned (e.g. tendon)

irregular dense CT if fibres are in diff directions (e.g. skin dermis)

165
Q

what is cartilage?

A

strong, flexible, compressible semi-rigid tissue

Avascular (receives nutrients through diffusion from adjacent tissues)

166
Q

what are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

hyaline (ribs, joints, bronchioles, etc..)
fibrous (ext ear)
elastic (intervertebral discs/cushion)

167
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

most common

collagen fibres

glossy appearance

clear matrix/ ground substance

GROUPS of chondrocytes in lacunae (holes/gaps)

168
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

collagen fibres bundles in ECM

SINGLE chondrocytes in lacunae

169
Q

Elastic Cartilage

A

Thin elastic fibres with ground substance in ECM

GROUPS of chondrocytes in lacunae

170
Q

what are the 3 cell types in bone?

A

osteocytes
osteoclasts
osteoblasts

171
Q

what does the ECM in bone consist of?

A

organic matrix (collagen, glycoproteins)
inorganic matrix ( calcium, phosphates and minerals)

172
Q

what are the 2 types of bone and what do they look like?

A

compact bone - dense areas without cavities
spongy/cancellous/trabecular bone - fine meshwork

173
Q

what are the contractile fibre cells in muscle tissue?

A

Actin (thinner)
myosin (thicker)

174
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

cardiac
skeletal
smooth

175
Q

cardiac muscle features

A

short branching fibres
striated
single central nucleus
intercellular junction (intercalated discs)
gap junctions (to allow contraction)
involuntary

176
Q

skeletal muscle features

A

prominent striations
long cylindrical fibres with no branches
multinucleated
peripheral nuclei
voluntary

177
Q

smooth muscle features

A

involuntary
spindle shaped cells
central nucleus

178
Q

what does nervous tissue consist of?

A

neurons and supporting cells with a connective tissue coat

179
Q

what is the ratio of nerve cells to supporting cells

A

1:10

180
Q

what is meant by multipolar neurones?

A

multiple dendrites one axon

181
Q

what is meant by bipolar neurones?

A

one dendrite
one axon
both can branch afterwards
2 cytoplasmic processes

182
Q

what is meant by pseudo-unipolar neurones?

A

one main cytoplasmic process
splits into a central process and a peripheral process

183
Q

what cell type produces myelin in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

184
Q

what cell type produces myelin in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

185
Q

what do astrocytes do in the CNS?

A

support ion transport and form the blood brain barrier

186
Q

what do microglia do in the CNS?

A

provide immune surveillance

187
Q

what is the 4 layers of the GI tract?

A
  • Mucosa (inner)
    -Submucosa
  • Muscularis
  • Serosa/adventitia (outer)
188
Q

what are the 3 layers of mucosa in the GI tract?

A
  • Epithelium
  • Lamina Propria (CT)
  • Muscularis mucosa (muscular, divide mucosa and submucosa)
189
Q

what are the 2 layers of the muscularis of the GI tract?

A

Muscularis interna

(nerve plexus)

Muscularis externa

190
Q

what are the variations in mucosa in the GI tract

A

protective (oral cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, anal)
-Non-keratinized stratified, squamous, epithelium

Absorptive (small intestine)
-simple columnar epithelium with VILLI, and tubular glands.

secretory (stomach)
- simple columnar epithelium with extensive tubular glands

protective and absorptive (large intestine)
- simple columnar epithelium with tubular Glands

191
Q

what are the associated organs of the GI system?

A

-Salivary glands
- Liver
- Gall bladder
- Pancreas

192
Q

what are the 3 salivary glands?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

193
Q

what do the striated ducts in the salivary glands do?

A

modify the saliva

194
Q

Organization of the Liver

A

Contains hepatocytes

Contains hepatic lobules

195
Q

what are hepatic lobules?

A

hexagonal arrangements

central vein running through the centre
at each corner (bile duct, portal vein and hepatic artery)

blood flows from portal and hepatic artery towards central vein through SINUSOIDS

196
Q

Is the pancreas an exocrine or endocrine gland?

A

Both
the pancreas has an exocrine portion and an endocrine gland so is a MIXED GLAND

197
Q

What is the exocrine portion of the pancreas and its function?

A

serous acini and produced digestive juices, proteases and lipases

198
Q

what is the endocrine portion of the pancreas and what is its function?

A

islets of langerhans

specialised to produce insulin and glucagon

199
Q

what do A cells in Islets of langerhans do in the pancreas?

A

produce glucagon

200
Q

what do B cells in Islets of Langerhans do in the pancreas?

A

produce insulin

201
Q

what does the respiratory system consist of?

A

upper resp tract
trachea
bronchial tree
lungs

202
Q

what are the 3 layers of the trachea?

A

respiratory epithelium
lamina propria
hyaline cartilage of tracheal ring

203
Q

what type of epithelium is present in the trachea?

A

pseudo-stratified, ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

204
Q

bronchi structure

A

large diameter

204
Q

bronchi structure

A

large diameter

205
Q

bronchi structure

A

large diameter
have hyaline cartilage in their walls

206
Q

bronchioles structure

A

small airways
no cartilage in wall
predominantly smooth muscle in their wall

207
Q

what type of epithelium line alveoli?

A

simple squamous for gas exchange

208
Q

structure of kidney

A

cortex
medulla
nephrons

209
Q

what is the medulla of the kidney consisted of?

A

the loop of henle
thick and thin segments
collecting duct

210
Q

what is the cortex of the kidney consisted of?

A

renal corpuscle
proximal convoluted tubule
distal convoluted tubule

Year 1- Foundations to Medicine (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions