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last Yr Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following pairings of organs, origins and arteries is correct?

A.
Artery
Celiac artery
Origin
Foregut
Developing organs
Liver, Pancreas, Distal duodenum

B.
Superior mesenteric artery
Midgut
Proximal duodenum, Appendix

C.
Inferior mesenteric artery
Hindgut
Proximal Transverse Sigmoid Rectum
2/3 colon. colon.

D.
Celiac artery
Foregut
Esophagus, Stomach, Proximal duodenum

E.
Inferior mesenteric artery
Midgut
Gallbladder, Cecum, Distal 1/3 transverse colon

A

D.
Celiac artery
Foregut
Esophagus, Stomach, Proximal duodenum

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2
Q

What is the embryological origin of ligamentum teres (Round ligament)? A. Ventral mesentery
B. Left umbilical vein
C. Dorsal mesentery
D. Umblical artery E. Vitelline duct

A

B. Left umbilical vein

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3
Q

Which of the following malformations can occur both in prenatal and postnatal life?
A. Hirschsprung disease B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal stenosis
D. Omphalocele
E. Gastroschisis

A

B. Pyloric stenosis

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4
Q

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
I. Von Ebner glands are found in fungiform papillae.
II. Sublingual salivary glands contain both serous and the conspicuous, mucous acini
III. Submucosal glands are only seen in duodenum but not in esophagus.
IV. Pylorus has simple branched tubular gland.
V. In cardia region, the number of gastric pits is more compared to other parts. VI. Auerbach nerve plexus locates in submucosa,
VII. Fundus is rich region for chief and parietal cells,
VIII. Appendix contains villi
IX. Urogastrone is secreted by crypts of Lieberkuhn.
A. II - III - IV- V- VII- IX
B. I- III - V - VI - VIII - IX
C. I - II - IV - V - VI- VII
D. II - III - V - VI - VIII - IX
E. I - IV - V - VI - VII 􏰀 IX

A

B. I- III - V - VI - VIII - IX

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5
Q

Which of the following disorder is a functional gastrointestinal disease? A. Peptic Uleer
B. Crohn’s Disease
C. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
D. Gallstones
E. Colonic Diverticular Disease

A

C. Irritable Bowel Syndrome

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6
Q

Which of the following symptoms suggests lower gastrointestinal disease? A. Hematemesis
B. Jaundice
C. Dysphagia
D. Pirozis
E. Hematochezia

A

E. Hematochezia

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7
Q

Which gastrointestinal disease causes tenderness at McBurney’s point? A. Acute Cholecystitis
B. Diverticulitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Acute appendicitis E. Peritonitis

A

D. Acute appendicitis

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8
Q

Which of the following diseases leads to direct bilirubinemia? A. Gilbert Disease
B. Hemolysis
C. Large Hematoma
D. Crigler Najjar Syndrome E. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

A

E. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

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9
Q

Which of the following diseases is the most common genetic causes of indirect hyperbilirubinemia?
A. Gilbert’s Syndrome
B. Mirizzi Syndrome
C. Rotor Syndrome
D. Crigler Najjar Syndrome E. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

A

A. Gilbert’s Syndrome

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10
Q

What should be the second line in the abdominal physical examination? A. Percussion
B. Auscultation
C. Palpation
D. Rectal Examination E. Inspection

A

B. Auscultation

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11
Q

Which one is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A. Crohn’s disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Type I diabetes
D. Colon cancer
E. Meckel’s diverticulum

A

A. Crohn’s disease

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12
Q

A 25 year old male had a third molar extracted from his lower jaw. This resulted in the loss of general sense from the anterior two thirds of the tongue. This loss was most likely due to injury of which of the following nerves?
A. Auriculotemporal B. Chorda tympani C. Lingual
D. Mental
E. Inferior alveolar

A

C. Lingual

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13
Q

A 30 year old man is admitted to the hospital after a middleweight boxing match, during physical examination the strength and symmetry of strength in opening the jaws are tested, Which of the following muscles is the most important in jaw protrusion and depressing the mandible?
A. Anterior portion of temporalis B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Masseter
E. Platysma

A

B. Lateral pterygoid

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14
Q

A 54 year old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain. Gastroscopy reveals a tumor in the antrum of the stomach.
A CT scan is ordered to evaluate lymphatic drainage of the stomach. Which of the following lymph nodes is most likely to be involved in a malignancy of the stomach?
A. Celiac
B. Superior mesenteric C. Inferior mesenteric D. Lumbar
E. Ileocolic

A

A. Celiac

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15
Q

During a scheduled laparoscopic cholecystectomy in a 40 year old female patient, the resident accidentally clamped the hepatoduodenal ligament instead of the cystic artery. Which of the following vessels would most likely be occluded in this iatrogenic injury?
A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Proper hepatic artery
C. Splenic artery
D. Common hepatic artery
E. Inferior vena cava

A

B. Proper hepatic artery

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16
Q

A 62 year old male alcoholic is admitted to the hospital after vomiting dark red blood (hematemesis). Endoscopy reveals ruptured esophageal varices, resulting from portal hypertension. Which of the following venous tributaries to the portal system anastomoses with caval veins to cause the varices?
A. Splenic
B. Left gastroomental C. Left gastric
D. Left hepatic
E. Right gastric

A

C. Left gastric

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17
Q

A 47 year old man is admitted to the emergency department with excessive vomiting and dehydration. Radiographic images demonstrate that part of the bowel is being compressed between the abdominal aorta and the superior mesenteric artery. Which of the following intestinal structures is most likely to be compressed?
A. Descending part of duodenum B. Transverse colon
C. Horizontal part of duodenum D. Superior part of duodenum
E. Jejunum

A

C. Horizontal part of duodenum

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18
Q

Which of the following statement is right to distinguish the jejunum from the ileum?
A. Jejunum has a thinner wall compared with the ileum
B. Jejunum has less numerous and smaller circular fold compared with the ileum
C. Jejunum has more numerous vascular arcades compared with the ileum
D. Jejunum has more numerous lymphatic follicles beneath the mucosa compared with the ileum
E. Jejunum has less villi compared with the ileum

A

B. Jejunum has less numerous and smaller circular fold compared with the ileum

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19
Q

A 45 year old male is admitted to the hospital with a massive hernia that passes through the inguinal triangle (of Hesselbach). Which of the following structures is used to distinguish a direct inguinal hernia from an indirect inguinal hernia?
A. Inferior epigastric vessels
B. Femoral canal
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Rectus abdominis muscle (lateral border) E. Pectineal ligament

A

A. Inferior epigastric vessels

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20
Q

A 78 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of abdominal pain. Radiographic examination reveals diverticulosis and diverticulitis of the lower portion of the descending colon, with diffuse ulcerations. It is determined that the involved area of the bowel should be removed. If the patient’s anatomy follows the most typical patterns, which vessels and nerves will be gut during the operation?
A. Branches of the vagus nerve and middle colic artery
B. Superior mesenteric plexus and superior rectal artery
C. Branches of pelvic splanchnic nerves and left colic artery
D. Branches of vagus nerve and ileocolic artery
E. Left thoracic splanchnic nerve and inferior mesenteric artery

A

C. Branches of pelvic splanchnic nerves and left colic artery

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21
Q

Which carriers are used to transport the NH3 produced in muscle degradation of nitrogenated compounds via blood to the liver?
A. Alanine and glutamine B. Urea and alanine
C. NH4 and glutamate
D. Glutamate and glutamine E. a-Ketoglutarate and urea

A

A. Alanine and glutamine

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22
Q

Which of the following statements correctly, describes the molecule shown below?
COO- |
C=0
|
CH3
A. It can spontaneously decarboxylate.
B. A transamination reaction would convert it to alanine. C. A carboxylase reaction converts it to acetyl CoA
D. It requires NADPH to be converted to lactate.
E. It cannot be converted back to fatty acids

A

Idk

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23
Q

The major purpose of the *glucose-alanine cycle” between the liver and muscle tissues allows for which of the followings?
A. The alanine taken up by the muscle to be converted back to glucose. B. The liver to store the alanine as fat.
C. The muscle to deliver its excess nitrogen to the liver for excretion, and ultimately get back glucose, from the liver, to continue doing glycolysis
D. The liver to release alanine into the blood for other tissues to use, and get back glucose so it can store it as fat.
E. The liver to deliver its excess nitrogen for the muscles to use in protein synthesis, and get glucose from the muscle in return.

A

C. The muscle to deliver its excess nitrogen to the liver for excretion, and ultimately get back glucose, from the liver, to continue doing glycolysis

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24
Q

Homocysteine, in a single enzyme-catalyzed reaction can be converted into which substance?
A. Cysteine
B. Serine
C. Propionyl CoA
D. Either methionine or cystathionine E. Either propionyl CoA or cysteine

A

D. Either methionine or cystathionine

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25
Q

Glucose 6-phosphate is at the crossroads of many metabolic pathways, and its fate depends on the energy needs of a sell. Which of the following incorrectly pairs an enzyme that reacts directly with glucose 6-phosphate with a product of that metabolic pathway?
A. Phosphoglucoisomerase: pyruvate
B. Glucose 6 phosphatase; glucose
C. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase: ribose, 5 phosphate D. UDP glucose pyrophosphorylase: glycogen
E. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase; NADPH

A

C. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase: ribose, 5 phosphate

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26
Q

There are several known diseases that are caused by genetic abnormalities in the carnitine system. The clinical symptoms can range from mild, recurrent muscle cramping to severe weakness, and death. Carnitine therapy has proved effective in some cases, as has the replacement of normal dietary fat by triacylglycerols containing medium chain length fatty acids. These diseases have become treatable disorders because medical students have learned the biochemistry of which metabolic reaction?
A. B-oxidation of fatty acids
B. Glycolysis
C. Methylation reactions by S-adenosylmethionine D. Pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis
E. Uren cycle

A

A. B-oxidation of fatty acids

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27
Q

Which of the following conditions is related to neonatal jaundice, also known as physiological jaundice?
A. Caused by maternal antibody-induced lysis of infant erythrocytes
B. Results from normal bilirubin generation but inadequate bilirubin conjugation
C. Results from severe hepatic failure
D. Always causes neuropathology including seizures and fever E. Results from deficiency of folate during pregnancy

A

B. Results from normal bilirubin generation but inadequate bilirubin conjugation

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28
Q

Which one is a precursor of the high-energy storage compound greatine phosphate?
A. Histidine B. Tyrosine C. Tryptophan D. Glycine
E. Glutamate

A

D. Glycine

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29
Q

If an individual had a genetic defect in the enzyme that produces N-acetylglutamate, which one of the followings would be the most likely clinical finding with hyperammonemia?
A. Elevated levels of argininosuccinate B. Elevated levels of arginine
C. Elevated levels of urea
D. No detectable ornithine
E. No detectable citrulline

A

E. No detectable citrulline

30
Q

What is the reason for the antimalarial drug primaquine (an oxidant) to cause hemolysis of erythrocytes in certain individuals and not in others?
A. It inhibits hexokinase in the susceptible individuals only
B. It inhibits the interaction of NADPH and glutathione, which is necessary for the integrity of the red cell membrane
C. The red cells of susceptible individuals can not phosphorylate glucose to provide substrate for the pentose phosphate pathway
D. It overwhelms the limited reducing capacity of red cells in individuals with G6PD deficiency
E. The erythrocytes of susceptible individuals, metabolize primaquine to form an active

A

D. It overwhelms the limited reducing capacity of red cells in individuals with G6PD deficiency

31
Q

Electron transport and phosphorylation can be uncoupled by compounds that increase the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane to which of the following?
A. Electrons B. Protons
C. Uncouplers D. Neutrons E. O2

A

B. Protons

32
Q

All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct except which one?
A. Phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine
B. Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate is increased
C. Urinary excretion of phenyllactate is increased
D. It can be controlled by giving a low phenylalanine diet
E. It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and melanin

A

E. It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and melanin

33
Q

A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of fever, anorexia, headache. weakness, and altered mental status of 2 days’ duration, She works for an airline lying some places in Southeast Asia. Ten days before admission, she had a diamheal illness that lasted for about 36 hours, She has been constipated for the past 3 days. Her temperature is 39°C. heart rate is 68 beats/min, blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and respirations are 18 breaths/min. She knows who she is and where she is but does not know the date. She is picking at the bedclothes. Rose spots are seen on her trunk. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her illness?
A. Enterotoxigenic E- coli (ETEC) B. S. sonnei
C. S. enterica subspecies enterica serotype Typhimurium (Salmonella Typhimurium)
D. S. enterica subspecies, enterica serotype Typhi (Salmonella typhi) E. Enteroinvasive E- Coli (EIEC)

A

D. S. enterica subspecies, enterica serotype Typhi (Salmonella typhi)

34
Q

Which one of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infectious dose (ID50)? A. Shigella sonnei
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Salmonella Typhi
D. Campylobacter jeiumi
E. Salmonella Typhimurium

A

A. Shigella sonnei

35
Q

Your patient is a 40-year-old woman with a severe attack of diarrhea that began while she was returning from a vacation. She had multiple episodes of watery, nonbloody diarrhea and little vomiting. She is afebrile, A stool culture reveals only lactose-fermenting colonies on (Eosin-metyhlene-blue) EMB agar. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Shigella sonnei
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Salmonella enteritidis
E Campylobacter jejuni

A

B. Escherichia coli

36
Q

A 5-year-old child has had abdominal pain and diarrhea for 2 days. A stained preparation of the stool demonstrates, polymorphonuclear leukocytes, Which of the following is least likely to produce these findings?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Salmonella serotype Typhimurium E. Campylobacter jejuni

A

A. Vibrio cholerae

37
Q

Which of the following serologic patterns is suggestive of a patient with acute hepatitis B?
A. HBsA& positive. HBsAb negative, anti-HBe I2G positive. HBeA& positive B. HBsAg positive, HBsAb negative, anti-HBs igM positive, HBeAg positive
C. HBsAg negative, HBsAb positive, anti-HBe IgG positive, anti-HBeAg positive,
D. HBsAg positive, HBsAb negative, anti-HBe I2G positive, Delta ab positive E. HBsAg negative, HBsAb positive, anti-HBe negative, anti-HBeAg negative

A

B. HBsAg positive, HBsAb negative, anti-HBs igM positive, HBeAg positive

38
Q

What type of hepatitis B vaccine is currently in use? A. Synthetic peptide vaccine
B. Killed-vins vaccine
C. Attenuated live-virus vaccine
D. Subunit vaccine produced using recombinant DNA E. DNA vaccine

A

D. Subunit vaccine produced using recombinant DNA

39
Q

Which of the following is correct for hepatitis delta virus (HDV)?
A. HDV is a defective mutant of HBV.
B. HDV depends on HBV surface antigen for virion formation
C. HDV infection develops only in the patients with chronic hepatitis B. D. HDV is related to HCV.
E. HDV contains a circular DNA genome.

A

B. HDV depends on HBV surface antigen for virion formation

40
Q

Which of the following parasite can enter through intact skin? A. Giardia
B. Whip worm
C. Strongyloides
D. Trichinella E. Taenia

A

C. Strongyloides

41
Q

Hydatid disease of liver is caused by: A. Strongloides
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Taenia solium
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Diphyllobothrium latum

A

B. Echinococcus granulosus

42
Q

Which of the following parasites causes microcytic hypochromic anemia in infestation?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Ascaris, lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Strongyloides stercoralis E. Giardia lamblia

A

A. Ancylostoma duodenale

43
Q

Which of the following parasites pass through the lungs during their life cycle? A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura E. Taenia saginata

A

B. Ascaris lumbricoides

44
Q

By which structure does Giardia adhere to the intestinal wall? A. Axoneme
B. Flagella
C. Marginal plate
D. Parabasal body E. Ventral disk

A

E. Ventral disk

45
Q

What is the name of the condition described as “the presence of intestinal metaplasia within the esophageal mucosa in”?
A. Dysphagia
B. Hiatal hernia
C. Barrett esophagus D. Achalasia

A

C. Barrett esophagus

46
Q

Which one of the below features is seen in autoimmune gastritis? A. Markedly increased gastrin level
B. Increased acid production in stomach
C. Presence of neutrophils and plasma cells in subepithelial region D. Antral location
E. Association with poverty

A

B. Increased acid production in stomach

47
Q

Which of the below condition is not a complication of chronic gastritis? A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Mucosal atrophy in the stomach epithelium
C. Intestinal metaplasia in the stomach epithelium
D. Curling ulcers
E. Dysplasia in the stomach epithelium

A

D. Curling ulcers

48
Q

Which one of the below choices is a hamartomatous lesion of the bowels? A. Sessile adenomatous polyp
B. Juvenile polyp
C. Villous adenoma in small intestine
D. Carcinoid tumor in appendix E. Inflammatory polyp

A

B. Juvenile polyp

49
Q

What is the main cause of “reticulin collapse” in liver tissue? A. Ductular reactions
B. Portal hypertension
C. Apoptosis (drop gut) of liver sells
D. Kupffer cell proliferation

A

C. Apoptosis (drop gut) of liver sells

50
Q

Which one of the below choices is morphologic feature of acute viral hepatitis? A. Ductular reactions
B. Interface hepatitis
C. Portal fibrosis
D. Porto-portal bridging necrosis
E. Scant mononuclear infiltration in portal tracts

A

E. Scant mononuclear infiltration in portal tracts

51
Q

Which of the following statements is not true for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A. It accounts for more than half of cancers in the oral cavity.
B. Exposure to carcinogenic agents such as smoking and alcohol use is one of the causes of this tumor.
C. HPV-associated oral squmaous cell carcinomas tend to be located in the tonsillar crypts and base of the tongue.
D. Histomorphologically, atypical glandular structures are seen in the myxoid stroma.
E. The cervical lymph nodes are the most common sites of regional metastasis

A

D. Histomorphologically, atypical glandular structures are seen in the myxoid stroma.

52
Q

Colonoscopy is performed on a 39-year-old female patient with complaints of left lower abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhea for two months. For the differential diagnosis of inflammatory bow el disease, biopsy is taken from the rectal mucosa. In the histopathological examination, cryptitis, crypt abscess, and crypt distortion are seen in the intestinal mucosa, and granuloma is not observed. It is observed that inflammation affects the mucosal and submucosal layers. In the colonoscopy, the entire colon and terminal ileum, except the rectum, are valuated as normal. With these findings, what is your probable diagnosis in this patient?
A. Celiac disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Crohn disease
D. Diverticulitis

 E. Campylobacter Enterocolitis
A

B. Ulcerative colitis

53
Q

Which of the following describes dilated anal and perianal collateral veins connecting the portal and caval venous systems?
A. Porto-caval shunt
B. Postcapillary venule
C. Hemorrhoid
D. Brachial plexus
E. Arteriovenous malformation

A

C. Hemorrhoid

54
Q

What is the initiating event in the mechanism of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?
A. Increased transcription of hepcidin protein
B. Misfolding in alpha 1 antitrypsin protein
C. Formation of excessive amounts of reactive oxygen products from ethanol D. Appearance of anti-liver kidney microsome-1 antibodies
E. Insulin resistance and the development of metabolic syndrome

A

E. Insulin resistance and the development of metabolic syndrome

55
Q

Which of the following autoimmune cholangiopathy is observed histomorphologically with inflammation and obliterative fibrosis of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile duets, has a risk of developing cirrhosis and cholangiocarcinoma in the advanced stage, and is associated with ulcerative colitis in most patients?
A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

 B. Extrahepatic cholelithiasis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Primary biliary cholangitis E. Dubin Johnson Syndrome
A

A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

56
Q

What is a sharply circumscribed lesion with red-blue discoloration that occurs in the liver tissue as a result of occlusion of the intrahepatic portal vein and rootlets due to thrombosis?
A. Sinusoidal obstruction B. Centrilobular necrosis C. Steatohepatitis
D. Zahn infarct
E. Periportal fibrosis

A

D. Zahn infarct

57
Q

Which of the following etiological factors is not associated with the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma development?
A. HBV infection
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis D. Hereditary hemochromatosis E. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

A

C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

58
Q

A patient is prescribed an anticholinergic drug, with a potential side effect on salivary production to treat her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following is the most likely side effect experienced by the patient?
A. Bitter taste B. Dry mouth

 C. Gleeking D. Spitting E. Weight gain
A

B. Dry mouth

59
Q

Which of the following statement is true for secondary bile acids? A. Formed by small intestinal enterokinases
B. Not subject to enterohepatic circulation
C. Primary bile acids conjugated to glycine or taurine
D. Produced by bacterial action in the colon E. Secreted primarily in adulthood

A

D. Produced by bacterial action in the colon

60
Q

A 2-month baby boy presents with vomiting diarrhea, and failure to thrive. On investigation, edema and ascites are found. Blood values show hypoproteinemia. Several attempts with different protein diets are unsuccessful, but the administration of pancreatic enzymes alleviates the symptoms. A genetic profile reveals a rare deficiency of an intestinal brush border enzyme. Which of the following enzymes is most likely defective?
A. Carboxypeptidase B. Chymotrypsin
C. Enteropeptidase D. Pepsin
E. Trypsin

A

C. Enteropeptidase

61
Q

Vitamin B12 is utilized by all cells in its coenzyme form in various metabolic reactions. The uptake of cobalamin is more complex, and requires the participation of a specific binding factor secreted by the stomach. Which of the following is required for absorption of vitamin B12?

 A. Pepsinogen B. Mucous C. Bile salts D. Intrinsic factor E. Hydrochloric acid
A

D. Intrinsic factor

62
Q

A 34-year-old woman broke her hip bone when getting out of the car and falling onto the pavement. Her past history shows that a year ago, she suffered from primary biliary cholangitis, which led to destruction of her bile ducts and disruption of bile flow. The results from a bone density scan shows significantly reduced bone mineral density for her age. Which is most likely deficient in this patient?
A. Iron
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin D

A

E. Vitamin D

63
Q

A woman with a body mass index of 45 enrolls in a study measuring postprandial serum levels of hormones involved in regulating hunger and satiety. Which of the following appetite- stimulating hormones of humoral factors is inadequately suppressed in this obese patient after eating?
A. Ghrelin
B. Glucagon-like peptide 1 C. Leptin
D. Neuropeptide Y
E. Peptide YY

A

A. Ghrelin

64
Q

Which of the following is a drug that irreversibly inhibits the H + /K+ ATPase in the parietal sells?
A. Cimetidine
B. Diphenoxylate C. Metoclopramide D. Sulfasalazine
E. Esomeprazole

A

E. Esomeprazole

65
Q

Which drug has been associated with extrapyramidal symptoms? A. Bisacodyl
B. Sucralfate
C. Aprepitant
D. Metoclopramide
E. Bismuth subsalicylate

A

D. Metoclopramide

66
Q

Which statement is most accurate?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is the drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B. Mefloquine destroys secondary exoerythrocytic schizonts
C. Primaquine is a blood schizonticide and does not affect secondary tissue schizonts
D. Proguanil complexes with double-stranded DNA, blocking replication E. Chloroquine is an inhibitor of plasmodial dihydrofolate reductase

A

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is the drug of choice for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

67
Q

A patient who is taking verapamil for hypertension and angina, has become constipated (constpation is the most common side effect of verapamil). Which of the following drugs is an osmotic laxative that could be used to treat the patient’s constipation?
A. Aluminum hydroxide

 B. Diphenoxylate C. Metoclopramide D. Magnesium hydroxide E. Ranitidine
A

D. Magnesium hydroxide

68
Q

A patient is receiving highly emetogenic chemotherapy for metastatic carcinoma. To prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, she is likely to be treated with which of the following?
A. Levodopa
B. Methotrexate C. Misoprostol D. Sucralfate
E. Ondansetron

A

E. Ondansetron

69
Q

Which of the following is a small molecule that polymerizes in stomach acid and coats the ulcer bed, resulting in accelerated healing and reduction of symptoms?
A. Castor oil B. Mineral oil C. Sucralfate D. Omeprazole E. Linaclotide

A

C. Sucralfate

70
Q

Which one of the followings is not a surgical emergency? A. Ruptured abdominal aorta aneurysm
B. Severe gastritis

 C. Appendicitis D. Rupture of pancreas due to blunt force trauma E. Acute mesenteric ischemia
A

B. Severe gastritis

301 Final (10 decks)

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