ABS3 Flashcards

1
Q

The affinity of carbon monoxide for haemoglobin is

A

200-250 times greater than oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 100-kg patient with a 50% TBSA full thickness burn receives 10 L of 0.9% NaCl solution in transit to the hospital. His laboratory values 6 hours after the injury are likely to reflect

A

Acidosis

*0.9% NaCl results in hypernatremia and hyperchloremic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The topical antimicrobial agent mafenide acetate is most likely to cause

A

Metabolic acidosis

*Resulting from carbonic anhydrase inhibition
*Is effective in the presence of eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What chemical burn should be initially treated by careful wiping or sweeping of the skin rather than water

A

Powdered form of lye

*In cases of concrete powder or powdered forms of lye – should be swept from the patient to avoid activating the aluminium hydroxide with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Formic acid burns are associated with

A

Hemoglobinuria and hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The agent most effective in treating hydrofluoric acid burns is

A

Calcium

*Calcium-based therapies are the mainstay of treating hydrofluoric acid burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common indication for intubation

A

Altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fracture of the middle-distal third of radius with dislocation of the radioulnar joint (Piedmont fracture)

A

Galeazzi fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most commonly injured intra- abdominal organ in blunt abdominal trauma

A

Liver

*2nd = Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Topical therapy for burn patients has a side effect of metabolic acidosis

A

Mafenide acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The following would mandate elective intubation in a patient with a normal voice, normal oxygen saturation, and no respiratory distress

A

 Penetrating injuries to the neck and an expanding hematoma
 Evidence of chemical or thermal injury in the mouth, nares or hypopharynx
 Extensive subcutaneous air in the neck
 Complex maxillofacial trauma
 Airway bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In patients under the age of 8, cricothyroidotomy is contraindicated due to

A

Risk of subglottic stenosis

*Tracheostomy should be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Emergent tracheostomy is indicated in patients with

A

Laryngotracheal separation or laryngeal fractures

*In whom cricothyroidotomy may cause further damage or result in complete loss of the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most appropriate treatment of sucking chest wound

A

Occlusive dressing taped on 3 out of 4 sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 4-year-old is brought hypotensive to the ED after an MVA. Peripheral IV access is attempted but is unsuccessful. The next best access is

A

Intraosseous catheter

*Preferred site = Proximal tibia or distal femur of an unfractured extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During the circulation section of the primary survey, four life-threatening injuries that must be identified are

A
  • Massive hemothorax
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Massive hemoperitoneum
  • Mechanically unstable fractures (e.g., femoral artery injury)

*A pericardial effusion (without tamponade) is not immediately life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A massive hemothorax is define as

A

> 1500 mL of blood or, in the pediatric population, one third of the patient’s blood volume in the pleural space

*Blood volume can be quickly estimated by multiplying body weight (kg) x 70 (e.g., 20-kg child would have a total blood volume of 1400 mL, and one third of his blood volume is 466 mL, the amount necessary to be classified as massive hemothorax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Best initial treatment for acute traumatic pericardial tamponade in a patient with a SBP of 90 mmHg

A

Ultrasound guided placement of a pericardial catheter

*Followed by transfer to the operating room for definite treatment
*Patients with SBP <70 mmHg warrant emergency department thoracotomy (EDT) with opening of the pericardium to address the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of suspected blunt cardiac injury includes

A

Continuous monitoring if EKG abnormalities are noted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A patient presents with stable vital signs and respiratory distress after a stab wound to the chest. Chest tubes are placed and an air leak is noted. The patient is electively intubated. The patient arrests after positive pressure ventilation is started. What is the most likely diagnosis

A

Air embolism

*The patient should immediately be placed in Trendelenburg’s position to trap the air in the apex of the left ventricle and the aortic root with an 18-gauge needle and 50-mL syringe
*Vigorous massage is used to force the air bubble through the coronary arteries, if this is unsuccessful, a tuberculin syringe may be used to aspirate air bubbles from the right coronary artery
*Once circulation is restored, the patient should be kept in Trendelenburg’s position with the pulmonary hilum clamped until the pulmonary venous injury is controlled operatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the expected blood loss in a patient with 6 rib fractures

A

750 mL

*For each rib fracture = 100 to 200 mL of blood loss
*Tibial fractures = 300 to 500 mL
*Femur fractures = 800 to 1000 mL
*Pelvic fracture = >1000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 25-year-old man presents following blunt trauma to the abdomen. FAST exam shows injury to the spleen. His HR is 110, RR is 25 and he is mildly anxious. What percentage of his blood volume do you estimate he has lost

A

15-30%

*Class II hemorrhagic shock (based on his vital signs) = loss of between 15-30% of his blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 27-year-old man presents to the ED after receiving blows to the head. He opens his eyes with painful stimuli, is confused, and localizes to pain. What is his GCS

A

11

*2 (E) + 4 (V) + 5 (M) = 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 75-year-old woman presents to the ED following an MVA. She has decreased strength and sensation in her arms. She has normal strength and sensation in her legs. The most likely diagnosis is

A

Central cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The appropriate treatment of an asymptomatic patient with a stab wound to Zone III of the neck is

A

Observation

*If symptomatic – should be evaluated with angiography and, if necessary, embolization of bleeding vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An indication for CT of the chest to rule out a thoracic aortic injury

A

High speed head-on MVC with normal chest radiograph

*CXR finding of a left apical cap is suggestive of a thoracic aortic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 20-year-old young man presents with a left anterior 8th intercostal space stab wound. He is in no distress and a chest x-ray is normal. A diagnostic peritoneal lavage is performed and has a RBC count of 8,000/µL and a WBC count of 300/µL. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient

A

Laparoscopy

*Patient with a DPL RBC count between 1000/µL and 10,000/µL – should undergo laparoscopy or thoracoscopy
*RBC count of >10,000/µL – an indication for laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 45-year-old, otherwise healthy woman presents after a moving vehicle accident. She is hemodynamically stable and with only minimal tenderness in her right upper quadrant. A FAST exam (focused abdominal sonographic test) is positive with fluid seen in the hepatorenal fossa and the pelvis. Next best step in her management is

A

CT scan

*Patients with fluid on FAST examination (considered a positive FAST) who do not have immediate indications for laparotomy and are hemodynamically stable undergo CT scanning to quantify their injuries
*If she has an isolated liver or spleen injury, the correct treatment is most likely observation – therefore, both laparoscopy and laparotomy would not be indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

After CT scan, she is shown to have a liver laceration. There is a 4-cm laceration into the right lobe with a 10-cm subcapsular hematoma. What grade liver injury does she have

A

Grade III

*Laceration >3 cm in depth = Grade III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A stable patient with a Grade III splenic laceration has the following laboratory results 2 hours after admission: Hgb 8.7, Hct 29, Plt 70,000, INR 1.3

A

Transfuse PRBCs only

*In acute phase of resuscitation the endpoint is 10 g/dL
*This patient, who is in the acute phase of resuscitation, should receive PRBCs because the Hgb is less than 10
*Because platelets are >50,000 and INR is <1.5, transfusions of platelets and/or FFP are not indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Indication for operative intervention in a patient with an isolated duodenal hematoma

A

Contained retroperitoneal leak

*Patients with persistent duodenal occlusion after 3 weeks – should undergo operative exploration
*Any sign of perforation is an indication
*The size of the hematoma is not a criterion for operative intervention, nor is the degree of initial occlusion by the hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An indication for a lower leg fasciotomy

A

> 35 mmHg difference in diastolic pressure and the compartment pressure

*Fasciotomy is indicated in:
 Patients with gradient of >35 mmHg (gradient = diastolic – compartment pressure)
 Ischemic periods of >6 hours
 Combined arterial and venous injuries
*In the absence of clinical signs such as pain and paresthesias, compartment pressures are used to determine the need for fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What bladder pressures is an absolute indication for a decompressive laparotomy

A

> 35 mmHg (≥48 cm H2O) = Grade IV abdominal hypertension

*Mortality is directly affected by decompression:
* 60% mortality in patients undergoing presumptive decompression
* 70% mortality in patients with a delay in decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Produced by the appendix

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lymphoid tissue in the appendix

A

 Is maximally present during puberty
 Appears approximately 2 weeks after birth
 Disappears after the age of 60 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The luminal capacity of normal appendix

A

0.1 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Appendectomy may decrease the risk of developing which disease

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Culture should be taken at the time of surgery

A

For immunocompromised patients with appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pain in the right lower quadrant with compression of the left lower quadrant

A

Rovsing sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Important to consider in the differential diagnosis of an HIV positive patient with right lower quadrant abdominal pain

A

Cytomegalovirus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A patient with a 1.5 cm carcinoid tumor of the mid appendix should undergo

A

Appendectomy only

Appendiceal Carcinoid
* ≤ 1 cm = Appendectomy
* >1 - ≤ 2cm
o Tip or mid appendix = Appendectomy
o Base, mesoappendiceal invasion, metastases = Right hemicolectomy
* >2 cm = Right hemicolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At the time of laparoscopic surgery for presumed appendicitis, the patient is noted to have a mucous-filled, distended appendix measuring 3 cm in diameter. There is no acute inflammation or signs of perforation. The correct treatment for this patient is

A

Diagnostic laparoscopy only (no resection) with CT scan staging before proceeding with further surgery

*An intact mucocele presents no future risk for the patient, however, the opposite is true if the mucocele has ruptured and epithelial cells have escaped into the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Indicated in a patient with pseudomyxoma peritonei of appendiceal origin

A

Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

*Because 5-year survival of mucinous appendiceal neoplasms is only 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The treatment for lymphoma confined to the appendix is

A

Appendectomy alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Half-Life of low dose radiation Iodine 123

A

12 - 14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Half-Life of high dose radiation Iodine 123

A

8 – 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Irreversible side effect of anti-thyroid drugs

A

Aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Absolute contraindication of RAI

A

Pregnant women and breastfeeding

50
Q

Lugol’s iodine solution is given

A

7 to 10 days pre-op

51
Q

How many grams is left in a sub-total thyroidectomy

A

4-7 grams of normal tissue

52
Q

Plummer’s disease

A

Toxic multinodular goiter – similar w/ Grave’s disease but ABSENT extrathyroidal manifestations

53
Q

Contraindicated in thyroid storm

A

Aspirin-containing compounds

54
Q

DeQuervain’s thyroiditis

A

Sub-acute thyroiditis – Treatment: Medical

55
Q

Most common thyroid malignancy, (+) lymphatic invasion, best prognosis (>95%)

A

Papillary CA

56
Q

Orphan Annie nuclei

A

Papillary CA

57
Q

Most common thyroid malignancy in iodine deficiency, no lymphatic spread

A

Follicular CA

58
Q

Most common malignancy that metastasize to the thyroid

A

Renal cell CA

59
Q

Most common complication of thyroid surgery

A

Hypocalcemia (transient/permanent)

60
Q

Most common location of supernumerary glands

A

Thymus

61
Q

Most common location of ectopic parathyroid glands

A

Paraesophageal

62
Q

Mainstay treatment of hypercalcemic crisis

A

0.9% Saline intravenous hydration

63
Q

Provide a route for breast cancer metastases

A

Batson’s vertebral plexus

64
Q

Subclavicular group LNs

A

Level III

65
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Male breast, ≥2 cm

66
Q

Gynecomastia is pre-malignant

A

NO

67
Q

Gynecomastia in hypoandrogenic state (Klinefelter’s syndrome) is pre-malignant

A

YES

68
Q

Bloody nipple discharge

A

Intraductal PAPILLOMA

69
Q

Incision and drainage is contraindicated in what mastitis

A

Sporadic/ non-epidemic mastitis

70
Q

Mondor’s disease

A

Superficial thrombophlebitis

71
Q

A patient presents 1 month after a benign right breast biopsy with a lateral subcutaneous cord felt just under the skin and causing pain. The etiology of this condition is

A

Superficial thrombophlebitis/ Mondor’s disease

72
Q

35 F with (+) breast mass becomes larger just before onset of periods

A

Fibrocystic disease of the breast

73
Q

Smoking is NOT a risk for breast cancer

A

YES

74
Q

Breast cancer risk management (3)

A

Screening mammogram
Chemoprevention
Prophylactic mastectomy

75
Q

Cytoplasmic mucoid globules are distinctive
Bilateral, incidental on biopsy, usually no clinical signs

A

LCIS

76
Q

Ipsilateral, incidental findings, mammographic abnormality (calcifications), (+) nipple discharge, palpable mass

A

DCIS

77
Q

(+) Paget’s cells, (+) CEA

A

Paget’s disease

(+) Pagetoid cells or Paget-like cells, (+) S-100 = Melanoma

78
Q

Most common type of breast cancer

A

Invasive breast CA

79
Q

Small cells arranged in single file orientation or Indian file configuration

A

Invasive lobular CA

80
Q

(+) Coarse calficications

A

BENIGN

81
Q

Breast biopsy technique for patients who will receive preoperative systemic therapy

A

Core needle biopsy

82
Q

Low grade/ negative margin DCIS

A

Lumpectomy alone

Intermediate grade/ close margin = Lumpectomy + RT
High grade/ positive margin = Total mastectomy + SLNB

83
Q

Absolute contraindications to breast conservation therapy or BCS

A

Prior RT
Pregnant (1st and 2nd trimester)
Persistently positive margin
Multicentric lesions
Diffuse microcalcifications
Active connective tissue disorders (scleroderma, lupus)

84
Q

Breast mass less than 0.5 cm and no adverse features

A

NOT indicated for adjuvant chemotherapy

85
Q

Toker cells

A

Nipple

86
Q

Human bites

A

Eikenella corrodens

87
Q

Coagulation necrosis

A

Acid

88
Q

Threshold of pressure injury

A

> 2x the capillary perfusion pressure/30 mmHg at least two hours

89
Q

Gamma-secretase gene mutation

A

Hidradenitis suppuritativa

90
Q

Site of TEN

A

Dermo-epidermal junction

91
Q

Most common type of skin cancer

A

Basal cell CA

92
Q

Forms a waxy or pearly appearing papule with raised-well demarcated borders

A

Basal cell CA

93
Q

Most common subtype or BCC

A

Nodular

94
Q

Most aggressive variant of BCC

A

Morpheaform

95
Q

Most common malignant eyelid tumor

A

BCC

96
Q

Upper lip malignancy

A

BCC

97
Q

Moh’s surgery

A

Preserves normal tissue allowing best cosmetic outcome

98
Q

Most common subtype of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading

99
Q

Most aggressive variant of melanoma or worst prognosis

A

Nodular

100
Q

Most common non-cutaneous site

A

Ocular melanoma

101
Q

Most common site of metastasis of skin cancer

A

Lung and liver

102
Q

Mainstay of treatment for malignant melanoma

A

Wide excision with 1-2 cm margin depending on the tumor thickness

103
Q

Abdominal layer that does not reach the scrotum

A

Transversus abdominis

104
Q

Length of inguinal canal

A

4 – 6 cm
(Infants: 1 – 1.5 cm)

105
Q

Posterior wall of inguinal canal

A

Medial: Conjoint tendon
Lateral: Transversalis fascia and transversus abdominis muscle

106
Q

In repair of femoral hernia, the structure most vulnerable to major injury lies

A

Laterally

107
Q

Most common esophageal pathology

A

GERD

108
Q

Resting pressure of LES

A

6 – 26 mmHg

109
Q

Characteristics that prevent reflux

A

Resting pressure
Overall length
Intraabdominal length exposed to positive pressure (most common)

110
Q

Gold standard in diagnosis of GERD

A

24-hours pH monitoring

111
Q

Most common anti-reflux surgery

A

Nissen fundoplication

112
Q

180 degrees anterior fundoplication of the distal esophagus

A

Dor fundoplication

113
Q

Most common type of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Type I – Sliding

114
Q

Borchardt triad (seen in type II)

A

Chest pain
Retching with inability to vomit
Inability to pass NGT

115
Q

Treatment is largely surgical

A

Type II – Rolling/ Paraesophageal

116
Q

Most common esophageal diverticula

A

Zenker’s diverticula

117
Q

Area of potential weakness situated behind the esophagus at the level of the cricophrayngeus muscle

A

Killian’s triangle

118
Q

Triad of achalasia

A

Hypertensive LES
Aperistalsis of esophageal body
Failure of LES to relax

119
Q

Most effective nonsurgical treatment of achalasia

A

Pneumatic dilatation

120
Q

Most common primary esophageal motility disorder

A

Nutcracker esophagus

121
Q

Heller’s myotomy plus partial fundoplication

A

Achalasia treatment

122
Q

Most common site of perforation

A

Mid esophagus