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Anatomy & Physiology > 5 Axial Skeleton > Flashcards

5 Axial Skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

how can the Axial skeleton be divided?

A

skull
vertebral column
thoracic cage

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2
Q

What are the sets of bones the skull is formed by?

A

Cranium

Facial bones

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3
Q

Cranium

A

part of the skull; encloses and protects the fragile brain tissue

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4
Q

part of the skull; encloses and protects the fragile brain tissue

A

Cranium

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5
Q

facial bones

A

part of the skull; hold the eyes in an anterior position; allow facial muscles to show expressions

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6
Q

part of the skull; hold the eyes in an anterior position; allow facial muscles to show expressions

A

facial bones

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7
Q

what are all but one of the bones of the skull joined together by?

A

sutures

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8
Q

sutures

A

interlocking, immovable joints

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9
Q

interlocking, immovable joints

A

sutures

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10
Q

what bone of the skull isn’t joined by a suture?

A

mandible; attached to the rest of the skull by a freely movable joint

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11
Q

Bones of the cranium: how many & single or double?

A

8 bones

2 paired; 4 single

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12
Q

Bones of the Cranium

A 
Frontal 
Parietal - 2
Temporal - 2
Occipital
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
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13
Q

Calvaria

A

skull cap; upper part of Cranium

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14
Q

skull cap; upper part of Cranium

A

Calvaria

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15
Q

Frontal Bone

A

anterior portion of the cranium; forms the anterior part of the cranial floor; forms the forehead, the bony projections under the eyebrows, and the superior part of each eye’s orbit

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16
Q

Parietal bones

A

The pair form most of the superior and lateral walls of the cranium. They meet in the midline of the skull at the sagittal suture and form the coronal suture, where they meet the frontal bone.

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17
Q

forms the forehead, the bony projections under the eyebrows, and the superior part of each eye’s orbit

A

Frontal bone

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18
Q

The pair form most of the superior and lateral walls of the cranium.

A

Parietal bones

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19
Q

They meet in the midline of the skull at the sagittal suture

A

Parietal bones

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20
Q

form the coronal suture, where they meet the frontal bone

A

Parietal bones

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21
Q

Temporal Bones

A

lie inferior to the parietal bones; they join them at the squamous sutures

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22
Q

lie inferior to the parietal bones

A

temporal bones

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23
Q

they join the parietal bones at the squamous sutures

A

temporal bones

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24
Q

forms the anterior part of the cranial floor

A

frontal bone

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25
Q

anterior portion of the cranium

A

frontal bone

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26
Q

posterior and lateral to the frontal bone

A

parietal bones

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27
Q

form the sides of the cranium

A

parietal bones

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28
Q

sagittal suture

A

the suture at the midline of the skull where the two parietal bones meet

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29
Q

midline of the skull where the two parietal bones meet

A

sagittal suture

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30
Q

coronal suture

A

the suture formed where the two parietal bones meet the frontal bone

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31
Q

formed where the two parietal bones meet the frontal bone

A

coronal suture

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32
Q

lie superior to the temporal bones

A

parietal bones

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33
Q

important bone markings on the temporal bone

A 
external acoustic meatus
styloid process
zygomatic process
mastoid process
jugular foramen
internal acoustic meatus
carotid canal
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34
Q

external acoustic meatus

A

canal on temporal bone leading to eardrum and middle ear; route by which sound enters the ear;

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35
Q

canal leading to eardrum and middle ear

A

external acoustic meatus

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36
Q

route by which sound enters the ear

A

external acoustic meatus

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37
Q

styloid process

A

needle-like projection of temporal bone; just inferior to the external auditory meatus; many neck muscles use as an attachment point

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38
Q

needle-like projection of temporal bone

A

styloid process

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39
Q

projection just inferior to the external auditory meatus

A

styloid process

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40
Q

many neck muscles use these parts of temporal bone as attachment points

A

styloid process

mastoid process

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41
Q

zygomatic process

A

thin bridge-like projection on the temporal bone that joins the cheekbone anteriorly;

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42
Q

thin bridge-like projection on the temporal bone that joins the cheekbone anteriorly;

A

zygomatic process

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43
Q

together these two bones form the zygomatic arch

A

zygomatic process of the temporal bone

zygomatic bone

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44
Q

mastoid process

A

rough projection of the temporal bone posterior and inferior to the external acoustic meatus; provides an attachment site for some muscles of the neck; high-risk spot for infection, used to drill in to drain when infected

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45
Q

rough projection of the temporal bone posterior and inferior to the external acoustic meatus

A

mastoid process

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46
Q

high-risk spot for infection on the temporal bone; used to drill in to drain when infected

A

mastoid process

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47
Q

jugular foramen

A

opening on the temporal bone medial to the styloid process; at the junction of the occipital and temporal bones; allows for the passage of the jugular vein and cranial nerves

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48
Q

opening on the temporal bone medial to the styloid process; at the junction of the occipital and temporal bones

A

jugular foramen

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49
Q

allows for the passage of the jugular vein and cranial nerves

A

jugular foramen

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50
Q

jugular vein

A

the largest vein in the head; drains the brain; passes through the jugular foramen on the temporal bone

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51
Q

the largest vein in the head; drains the brain; passes through the jugular foramen on the temporal bone

A

jugular vein

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52
Q

internal acoustic meatus

A

opening on posterior aspect of temporal bone; just anterior to the jugular foramen in the cranial cavity; allows cranial (facial) nerves to pass

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53
Q

opening on posterior aspect of temporal bone; just anterior to the jugular foramen in the cranial cavity; allows cranial (facial) nerves to pass

A

internal acoustic meatus

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54
Q

carotid canal

A

opening on the temporal bone medial to the styloid process and anterior to the jugular foramen; allows the internal carotid artery to enter the cranial cavity, supplying blood to most of the brain

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55
Q

opening on the temporal bone medial to the styloid process and anterior to the jugular foramen

A

carotid canal

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56
Q

allows the internal carotid artery to enter the cranial cavity, supplying blood to most of the brain

A

carotid canal

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57
Q

occipital bone

A

the most posterior bone of the cranium; forms the base and back wall of the skull; joins the sphenoid bone anteriorly

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58
Q

the most posterior bone of the cranium

A

occipital bone

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59
Q

forms the base and back wall of the skull

A

occipital bone

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60
Q

joins the sphenoid bone anteriorly

A

occipital bone

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61
Q

where the occipital bone joins the parietal bones anteriorly

A

lambdoid suture

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62
Q

lambdoid suture

A

where the occipital bone joins the parietal bones anteriorly

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63
Q

foramen magnum

A

large opening in the base of the occipital bone; surrounds the lower part of the brain and allows the spinal cord to join with the brain

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64
Q

large opening in the base of the occipital bone

A

foramen magnum

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65
Q

surrounds the lower part of the brain and allows the spinal cord to join with the brain

A

foramen magnum

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66
Q

occipital condyles

A

rounded projections of the occipital bone lateral to the foramen magnum on each side; rest on the first cervical vertebra of the spinal column (atlas)

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67
Q

rounded projections of the occipital bone lateral to the foramen magnum on each side

A

occipital condyles

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68
Q

rest on the first cervical vertebra of the spinal column (atlas)

A

occipital condyles

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69
Q

sphenoid bone

A

butterfly-shaped bone; spans the width of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity; portion of which seen exteriorly on the lateral aspect of the skull, anterior to the temporal bones

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70
Q

butterfly-shaped bone; spans the width of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity

A

sphenoid bone

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71
Q

sella turcica

A

“turk’s saddle” saddle shaped region in the sphenoid midline; forms a snug enclose for the pituitary gland

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72
Q

“turk’s saddle” saddle shaped region in the sphenoid midline

A

sella turcica

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73
Q

forms a snug enclose for the pituitary gland

A

sella turcica

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74
Q

greater wings of the sphenoid bone

A

portions of the sphenoid seen exteriorly on the lateral aspect of the skull, anterior to the temporal bones; form part of the orbits of the eyes; have two important openings: optic canal and superior orbital fissure

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75
Q

portions of the sphenoid seen exteriorly on the lateral aspect of the skull

A

greater wings of the sphenoid bone

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76
Q

anterior to the temporal bones;also form part of the posteroir orbits of the eyes

A

greater wings of the sphenoid bone

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77
Q

foramen ovale

A

large oval opening in the sphenoid bone; in line with the posterior end of the sella turcica; allows fibers of cranial nerve V to pass to the chewing muscles of the lower jaw (mandible)

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78
Q

large oval opening in the sphenoid bone; in line with the posterior end of the sella turcica

A

foramen ovale

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79
Q

allows fibers of cranial nerve V to pass to the chewing muscles of the lower jaw (mandible)

A

foramen ovale

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80
Q

have two important openings: optic canal and superior orbital fissure

A

greater wings of the sphenoid bone

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81
Q

where do you see the sphenoid bone externally?

A

forming part of the eye orbits and anterior two the temporal bones

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82
Q

seen externally forming part of the eye orbits and anterior two the temporal bones

A

sphenoid bone

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83
Q

optic canal

A

opening in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit; allows the optic nerve to pass to the eye

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84
Q

opening in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit; allows the optic nerve to pass to the eye

A

optic canal

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85
Q

superior orbital fissure

A

slit-like opening in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit; allows the cranial nerves controlling eye movement to pass

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86
Q

slit-like openings in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit

A

superior orbital fissure

inferior orbital fissure

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87
Q

allows the cranial nerves controlling eye movement to pass

A

superior orbital fissure

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88
Q

inferior orbital fissure

A

slit-like opening in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit; formed by inferior edge of greater wings of sphenoid bone and superior edges of maxillae

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89
Q

slit-like opening in the sphenoid bone seen externally through the eye orbit; formed by inferior edge of greater wing of sphenoid bone and superior edge of maxilla

A

inferior orbital fissure

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90
Q

sphenoidal sinuses

A

the air cavities riddling the central part of the sphenoid bone

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91
Q

the air cavities riddling the central part of the sphenoid bone

A

sphenoidal sinuses

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92
Q

ethmoid bone

A

irregularly shaped bone anterior to the sphenoid; forms the roof of the nasal cavity, upper nasal septum, and part of the medial walls of the orbits

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93
Q

irregularly shaped bone anterior to the sphenoid

A

ethmoid bone

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94
Q

forms the roof of the nasal cavity, upper nasal septum, and part of the medial walls of the orbits

A

ethmoid bone

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95
Q

crista galli

A

“cock’s comb;” vertical projection of the ethmoid bone to which the dura mater (outermost covering of brain) attaches

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96
Q

vertical projection of the ethmoid bone to which the dura mater (outermost covering of brain) attaches

A

crista galli

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97
Q

cribriform plates

A

Part of ethmoid bone; bony plates on the with many small holes; lateral to the crista galli; allow the olfactory fibers (smell receptors) to pass to the brain from the nasal mucosa

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98
Q

bony plates with many small holes; lateral to the crista galli; part of ethmoid

A

cribriform plates

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99
Q

allow the olfactory fibers (smell receptors) to pass to the brain from the nasal mucosa

A

cribriform plates

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100
Q

each bone in the calvarium is named for what?

A

the corresponding lobe of the cerebrum (largest part of brain); the frontal bone protects the frontal lobe, the parietal bones protect the parietal lobes…

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101
Q

calvarium bones that have openings that connect the structures of the inner and outer ears

A

temporal bones

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102
Q

cranium bones that protect the underside of the brain

A

ethmoid bone

sphenoid bone

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103
Q

keystone bone

A

sphenoid: forms cranium floor and connects to all skull bones

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104
Q

supports the olfactory bulb (terminus of the olfactory nerve)

A

the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

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105
Q

the frontal bone articulates with how many other bones?

A

12

10 of which are facial

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106
Q

superior and middle nasal conchae

A

thin, delicately coiled plates of bone extending medially from the ethmoid into the nasal cavity; form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity; increase the turbulence of air flowing through the nasal passages, increase the surface area of the mucosa that covers them which increases the ability to warm and humidify incoming air

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107
Q

thin, delicately coiled plates of bone extending medially from the ethmoid into the nasal cavity

A

superior and middle nasal conchae

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108
Q

increase the turbulence of air flowing through the nasal passages, increase the surface area of the mucosa that covers them which increases the ability to warm and humidify incoming air

A

superior and middle nasal conchae

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109
Q

form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity

A

superior and middle nasal conchae

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110
Q

facial bones: about

A

14 bones; 12 paired; form the base of the muscles of the face; allow us to show feeling and chew food;

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111
Q

14 bones; 12 paired; form the base of the muscles of the face; allow us to show feeling and chew food;

A

facial bones

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112
Q

mandible

A

the lower jawbone; articulates with the temporal bones in the only freely moveable joints of the skull; largest and strongest bone of the face

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113
Q

the lower jawbone

A

mandible

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114
Q

articulates with the temporal bones in the only freely moveable joints of the skull

A

mandible

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115
Q

largest and strongest bone of the face

A

mandible

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116
Q

body

A

the horizontal part of the mandible; forms the chin

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117
Q

ramus

A

vertical extension of the body on either side of the mandible

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118
Q

alveolar margin (alveolar process)

A

superior edge of the mandible; contains sockets (alveoli) for the lower teeth

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119
Q

the horizontal part of the mandible; forms the chin

A

body

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120
Q

vertical extension of the body on either side of the mandible

A

ramus (both: the rami)

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121
Q

superior edge of the mandible

A

alveolar margin (alveolar process)

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122
Q

contains sockets (alveoli) for the lower teeth

A

alveolar margin

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123
Q

maxillae

A

the two maxillary bones fuse in a median suture to form the upper jaw and part of the orbits

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124
Q

temporomandibular joint

A

point where mandible articulates with the temporal bones

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125
Q

point where mandible articulates with the temporal bones

A

temporomandibular joint

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126
Q

the two bones fuse in a median suture to form the upper jaw and part of the orbits

A

the two maxillae, or maxillary bones

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127
Q

“keystone” bones of the face

A

maxillae; all facial bones except the mandible join the maxillae

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128
Q

all facial bones except the mandible join this

A

maxillae

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129
Q

carry the upper teeth in the alveolar process

A

maxillae

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130
Q

the maxillae carry the upper teeth in this

A

alveolar process

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131
Q

palatine processes

A

extensions of the maxillae that form the anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth

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132
Q

extensions of the maxillae that form the anterior part of the mouth

A

palatine processes (hard palate)

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133
Q

the maxillae form the jaw and the boundaries of these cavities

A

roof of mouth
floor and lateral walls of the nasal cavity
floors of the orbits

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134
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

drain into nasal passages; naming reveals position surrounding the nasal cavity; lighten the skull/facial bones and act as resonance chambers for speech; the maxillary sinus is the largest;

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135
Q

the four skull bones that contain sinuses (mucosa-lined air cavities)

A

maxillary
sphenoid
ethmoid
frontal

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136
Q

drain into nasal passages; naming reveals position surrounding the nasal cavity

A

paranasal sinuses

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137
Q

lighten the skull/facial bones and act as resonance chambers for speech

A

paranasal sinuses

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138
Q

the maxillary sinus is the largest

A

paranasal sinuses

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139
Q

sinuses

A

mucosa-lined air cavities which lead into the nasal passages

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140
Q

why do infection in the nose and throat cause sinus pain?

A

because the mucosa lining in the sinuses is continuous with that in the nose in throat; infections tend to migrate

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141
Q

palatine bones

A

paired bones posterior to the palatine processes of the maxillae; form the posterior part of the hard palate and part of the orbit; the posterior borders serve as the attachment site of the soft palate

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142
Q

paired bones posterior to the palatine processes of the maxillae

A

palatine bones

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143
Q

form the posterior part of the hard palate and part of the orbit

A

palatine bones

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144
Q

the posterior borders serve as the attachment site of the soft palate

A

palatine bones

145
Q

failure of either of these to fuse medially results in cleft palate

A

palatine bones or palatine processes

146
Q

zygomatic bones

A

cheekbones; lateral to the maxilla; also form much of the lateral walls of the orbits (eye sockets)

147
Q

the facial bones

A 
mandible
maxillae - 2
palatine - 2
zygomatic - 2
lacrimal - 2
nasal - 2
vomer
inferior nasal conchae - 2
148
Q

cheekbones

A

zygomatic bones

149
Q

lateral to the maxilla

A

zygomatic bones

150
Q

form much of the lateral walls of the orbits (eye sockets)

A

zygomatic bones

151
Q

lacrimal bones

A

fingernail-sized bones forming part of the medial walls of each orbit; between the maxilla and the ethmoid; each has an opening that serves as a passageway for tears (lacrima=tear)

152
Q

fingernail-sized bones forming part of the medial walls of each orbit

A

lacrimal bones

153
Q

bones between the maxilla and the ethmoid

A

lacrimal bones

154
Q

each has an opening that serves as a passageway for tears

A

lacrimal bones (lacrima=tear)

155
Q

nasal bones

A

the small rectangular bones forming the bridge of the nose (lower part of nose is made up of cartilage)

156
Q

the small rectangular bones forming the bridge of the nose

A

nasal bones

157
Q

what is the lower part of the skeleton of the nose made up of?

A

cartilage

158
Q

vomer bone

A

blade-shaped bone in the median line of the nasal cavity; forms the lower part and most of the nasal septum; posterior border is free

159
Q

bones located in back of the nasal cavity

A

palatine bones

160
Q

blade-shaped bone in the median line of the nasal cavity

A

vomer

161
Q

forms the lower part and most of the nasal septum

A

vomer bone

162
Q

the superior half is fused with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

A

vomer bone

163
Q

superior to the vomer

A

perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

164
Q

inferior nasal conchae

A

thin, curved bones protruding medially from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity; serve same purpose as the nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone

165
Q

thin, curved bones protruding medially from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity; serve same purpose as those of the ethmoid bone

A

inferior nasal conchae

166
Q

which bones do each of the nasal conchae belong to?

A

superior nasal conchae - ethmoid bone
middle nasal conchae - ethmoid bone
inferior nasal conchae - a facial bone of its own

167
Q

hyoid bone

A

not part of skull; located in throat above larynx; anchored by ligaments to the styloid processes of the temporal bones; only bone in body not attached to another bone; point of attachment for neck muscles that raise and lower larynx while we speak; moveable base for tongue

168
Q

not part of skull; located in throat above larynx; anchored by ligaments to the styloid processes of the temporal bones

A

hyoid bone

169
Q

only bone in body not attached to another bone

A

hyoid bone

170
Q

point of attachment for neck muscles that raise and lower larynx while we speak; moveable base for tongue

A

hyoid bone

171
Q

zygomatic arch

A

the bony arch at the outer border of the eye socket, formed by the union of the zygomatic bone (cheekbone) and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone

172
Q

the bony arch at the outer border of the eye socket

A

zygomatic arch

173
Q

formed by the union of the zygomatic bone (cheekbone) and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone

A

zygomatic arch

174
Q

fontanels

A

fibrous membranes connecting the cranial bones in an infant’s skull; soft spots; allow the fetal skull to be compressed slightly during birth; allow for growth of the brain during early infancy; gradually converted to bone (ossify) and gone by 24 months

175
Q

the fontanels

A

anterior fontanel
posterior fontanel
sphenoidal fontanel (temporal fontanel)
mastoid fontanel

176
Q

fibrous membranes connecting the cranial bones in an infant’s skull

A

fontanels

177
Q

“soft spots” in infants

A

fontanels

178
Q

allow the fetal skull to be compressed slightly during birth; allow for growth of the brain during early infancy

A

fontanels

179
Q

ossify

A

convert to bone

180
Q

convert to bone

A

ossify

181
Q

fontanel where the coronal suture and sagittal suture will eventually be

A

anterior fontanel

182
Q

anterior fontanel

A

fontanel where the coronal suture and sagittal suture will eventually be

183
Q

fontanel where the sagittal suture and lambdoid suture will eventually be

A

posterior fontanel

184
Q

posterior fontanel

A

fontanel where the sagittal suture and lambdoid suture will eventually be

185
Q

fontanel where the coronal suture and lambdoid suture will eventually be

A

sphenoidal/temporal fontanel

186
Q

fontanel where the temporal, occipital, and parietal bones will eventually meet

A

mastoid fontanel

187
Q

mastoid fontanel

A

fontanel where the temporal, occipital, and parietal bones will eventually meet

188
Q

which bone has the cribriform plate and crista galli?

A

ethmoid bone

189
Q

what serves as the axial support of the body?

A

vertebral column (spine)

190
Q

what is the location of the vertebral column?

A

extends from the skull, which it supports, to the pelvis, where it transmits the weight of the body to the lower limbs

191
Q

extends from the skull, which it supports, to the pelvis, where it transmits the weight of the body to the lower limbs

A

the vertebral column

192
Q

another name for the vertebral column

A

spine

193
Q

another name for spine

A

vertebral column

194
Q

what supports the skull?

A

the vertebral column

195
Q

how are the bones of the vertebral column connected and supported?

A

ligaments

196
Q

what is running through the central cavity of the vertebral column?

A

the delicate spinal cord, which the vertebral column surrounds and protects

197
Q

how many bones in the vertebral column before/after birth?

A

33 separate before; 9 fuse to form 2 composite bones; 26 after

198
Q

9 vertebrae fuse before birth to form which two composite bones?

A

sacrum

coccyx

199
Q

vertebrae

A

bones of the spine

200
Q

bones of the spine

A

vertebrae

201
Q

what construct the inferior portion of the vertebral column?

A

two composite bones: sacrum & coccyx

202
Q

the seven vertebrae of the neck

A

cervical vertebrae

203
Q

cervical vertebrae

A

the seven vertebrae of the neck

204
Q

the twelve vertebrae of the middle vertebral column

A

thoracic vertebrae

205
Q

thoracic vertebrae

A

the twelve vertebrae of the middle vertebral column

206
Q

the five vertebrae supporting the lower back

A

lumbar vertebrae

207
Q

lumbar vertebrae

A

the five vertebrae supporting the lower back

208
Q

the names of the sets of bones of the vertebral column, superior to inferior

A 
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
coccyx
209
Q

intervertebral discs

A

pads of flexible fibrocartilage separating the individual vertebrae; cushion vertebrae and absorb shock while allowing the spine flexibility

210
Q

pads of flexible fibrocartilage separating the individual vertebrae

A

intervertebral discs

211
Q

cushion vertebrae and absorb shock while allowing the spine flexibility

A

intervertebral discs

212
Q

how do intervertebral discs change as a person ages?

A

in youth have high water content (90%) are spongy and compressible; as a person ages, water content decreases (like that of other tissues) discs become harder & less compressible

213
Q

herniated discs

A

a tear in the outer ring of the intervertebral disc allows the soft center to bulge out and cause pressure on the spinal cord

214
Q

a tear in the outer ring of the intervertebral disc allows the soft center to bulge out and cause pressure on the spinal cord

A

herniated discs

215
Q

the two major regions of a intervertebral disc

A

central gelatinous region that behaves like a fluid

outer ring of tough collagen fibers that stabilize disc

216
Q

composition of the central region of a intervertebral disc

A

gelatinous; behaves like a fluid

217
Q

composition of the outer ring of a intervertebral disc

A

tough collagen fibers

218
Q

primary curvatures

A

spinal curvatures in the thoracic and sacral regions or the vertebral column

219
Q

why are the primary curvatures of the spine named so?

A

because they are present when we are born

220
Q

what produces the C-shaped spine of a newborn baby?

A

the two primary curvatures of the thoracic and sacral regions together

221
Q

secondary curvatures

A

the spinal curvatures in the cervical and lumbar regions of the vertebral column

222
Q

why are the secondary curvatures of the spine named so?

A

because they develop sometime after birth

223
Q

spinal curvatures in the thoracic and sacral regions or the vertebral column

A

primary curvatures

224
Q

the spinal curvatures in the cervical and lumbar regions of the vertebral column

A

secondary curvatures

225
Q

what does the secondary curvature of the spine allow in adults?

A

allows us to center our body weight on our lower limbs with minimal effort

226
Q

when does the cervical curvature of the spine appear?

A

when a baby begins to raise its head

227
Q

when does the lumbar curvature of the spine develop?

A

when a baby begins to walk

228
Q

what curvature of the spine appears when a baby begins to raise its head

A

cervical

229
Q

what curvature of the spine develops when a baby begins to walk?

A

lumbar

230
Q

what is the purpose of the discs and the S-shaped (springlike) construction of the vertebral column?

A

prevents shock to the head in walking and running and make the body trunk flexible

231
Q

prevents shock to the head in walking and running and make the body trunk flexible

A

the discs and the S-shaped (springlike) construction of the vertebral column

232
Q

scoliosis

A

abnormal spine curvature - spine curves laterally

233
Q

kyphosis

A

abnormal spine curvature - thoracic curvature exaggerated, bulged out

234
Q

lordosis

A

abnormal spine curvature - lumbar curvature exaggerated, pushed in

235
Q

abnormal spine curvature - spine curves laterally

A

scoliosis

236
Q

abnormal spine curvature - thoracic curvature exaggerated, bulged out

A

kyphosis

237
Q

abnormal spine curvature - lumbar curvature exaggerated, pushed in

A

lordosis

238
Q

causation of abnormal spine curvatures

A

congenital (present at birth), disease, poor posture, or unequal muscle pull on the spine

239
Q

how do the different curvatures of the vertebral column curve? (concave/convex in reference to the posterior aspect)

A

cervical - concave
thoracic - convex
lumbar - concave
sacrum - convex

240
Q

the common features of vertebrae

A 
centrum (body)
vertebral arch
laminae
pedicles
vertebral foramen
transverse processes
spinous process
superior and inferior articular processes
241
Q

centrum (body)

A

disc-like, weight-bearing, rounded central portion of the vertebra facing anteriorly in the vertebral column

242
Q

vertebral arch

A

represents the junction of all posterior extensions from the vertebral body; composed of pedicles, laminae, and spinous process

243
Q

lamina

A

two broad plates, extending dorsally and medially from the pedicles, fusing to complete the roof of the vertebral arch

244
Q

pedicles

A

two short, thick processes, which project dorsally, one on either side, from the superior part of the vertebral body at the junction of its posterior and lateral surfaces. They connect the body of the spinal vertebra to the arch

245
Q

vertebral foramen

A

opening enclosed by the body and vertebral arch of the vertebrae through which the spinal cord passes

246
Q

transverse processes

A

two lateral projections from the vertebral arch

247
Q

spinous process

A

single posterior projection from the vertebral arch (from where the laminae fused)

248
Q

superior and inferior articular processes

A

paired projections lateral to the vertebral foramen that enable adjacent vertebrae to articulate with one another

249
Q

disc-like, weight-bearing, rounded central portion of the vertebra facing anteriorly in the vertebral column

A

centrum (body)

250
Q

represents the junction of all posterior extensions from the vertebral body; composed of pedicles, laminae, and spinous process

A

vertebral arch

251
Q

two broad plates, extending dorsally and medially from the pedicles, fusing to complete the roof of the vertebral arch

A

two lamina (laminae)

252
Q

two short, thick processes, which project dorsally, one on either side, from the superior part of the vertebral body at the junction of its posterior and lateral surfaces. They connect the body of the spinal vertebra to the arch

A

pedicles

253
Q

opening enclosed by the body and vertebral arch of the vertebrae through which the spinal cord passes

A

vertebral foramen

254
Q

two lateral projections from the vertebral arch

A

transverse processes

255
Q

single posterior projection from the vertebral arch (from where the laminae fused)

A

spinous process

256
Q

paired projections lateral to the vertebral foramen that enable adjacent vertebrae to articulate with one another

A

superior and inferior articular processes

257
Q

what form the neck portion of the vertebral column?

A

the seven cervical vertebrae

258
Q

what is the first vertebrae called?

A

the atlas

259
Q

what is the second vertebrae called?

A

the axis

260
Q

atlas

A

first cervical vertebrae; has no body; the superior surfaces of its transverse processes contain large depressions that receive the occipital condyles of the skull - this joint allows you to nod “yes”

261
Q

this vertebrae has no body

A

atlas

262
Q

the superior surfaces of its transverse processes contain large depressions that receive the occipital condyles of the skull

A

atlas

263
Q

this joint allows you to nod “yes”

A

the joint formed between the transverse processes of the atlas and the occipital condyles of the skull

264
Q

axis

A

second cervical vertebrae; acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (and skull); has a large vertical process (the dens) that acts as the pivot point; this joint between C1 and C2 allow you to rotate your head side to side (“no”)

265
Q

this vertebrae acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (and skull)

A

axis

266
Q

this vertebrae has a large vertical process (the dens) that acts as the pivot

A

axis

267
Q

the joint between these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head side to side (“no”)

A

between the atlas and the axis

268
Q

the dens

A

the large vertical process of the axis that acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (and skull)

269
Q

the large vertical process of the axis that acts as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (and skull)

A

dens

270
Q

“typical” cervical vertebrae

A

five: C3 - C7; the smallest, lightest vertebrae; most often their spinous processes are short and divided into two branches; the transverse processes contain foramina (openings) through which the vertebral arteries pass to the brain above

271
Q

C3-C7 of the vertebrae

A

“typical” cervical vertebrae

272
Q

most often the spinous processes of these vertebrae are short and divided into two branches

A

“typical” cervical vertebrae

273
Q

the transverse processes of these vertebrae contain foramina (openings) through which the vertebral arteries pass to the brain above

A

“typical” cervical vertebrae

274
Q

anytime you see foramina in the transverse processes of a vertebrae, it is definitely this type of vertebrae

A

“typical” cervical vertebrae

275
Q

the smallest, lightest vertebrae

A

“typical” cervical vertebrae

276
Q

when you run your fingers down the back of your neck you can feel this

A

the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae

277
Q

vertebrae prominens

A

C7; the spinous process of the seventh cervicle vertebrae; called so because it is especially prominent

278
Q

C7; the spinous process of the seventh cervicle vertebrae; what is it called because it is especially prominent?

A

vertebrae prominens

279
Q

what is the size of the thoracic vertebrae compared to that of the cervical vertebrae?

A

the thoracic vertebrae are larger

280
Q

thoracic vertebrae

A

12: T1 to T12; only vertebrae to articulate with the ribs; form the posterior aspect of the thoracic cage

281
Q

T1 to T12 of the vertebrae

A

thoracic vertebrae

282
Q

only vertebrae to articulate with the ribs

A

thoracic vertebrae

283
Q

form the posterior aspect of the thoracic cage

A

thoracic vertebrae

284
Q

the body on these vertebrae are slightly heart-shaped

A

thoracic vertebrae

285
Q

the body on these vertebrae have two small costal facets (articulating surfaces) one superior, one inferior, that articulate with the heads of the corresponding ribs

A

thoracic vertebrae

286
Q

the transverse processes of these vertebrae articulate with the knob-like tubercles of the ribs

A

thoracic vertebrae

287
Q

the vertebral foramen of these vertebrae are oval or round

A

thoracic vertebrae

288
Q

the spinous process is long and hooks sharply downward, causing the vertebrae to look like a giraffe’s head when viewed laterally

A

thoracic vertebrae

289
Q

lumbar vertebrae

A

5: L1-L5; the sturdiest of the vertebrae because subjected to the most stress of the vertebral column; have massive block-like bodies; have short, thick, hatchet-shaped spinous processes that extend directly backward and look like a moose head from lateral view

290
Q

L1-L5

A

lumbar vertebrae

291
Q

the sturdiest of the vertebrae

A

lumbar vertebrae

292
Q

subjected to the most stress of the vertebral column

A

lumbar vertebrae

293
Q

these vertebrae have massive block-like bodies

A

lumbar vertebrae

294
Q

these vertebrae have short, thick, hatchet-shaped spinous processes that extend directly backward and look like a moose head from lateral view

A

lumbar vertebrae

295
Q

sacrum

A

formed by the fusion of 5 vertebrae; is the posterior border of the pelvis; articulates superiorly with L5 and inferiorly connects with the coccyx

296
Q

formed by the fusion of 5 vertebrae; is the posterior border of the pelvis

A

sacrum

297
Q

articulates superiorly with L5 and inferiorly connects with the coccyx

A

sacrum

298
Q

median sacral crest

A

is the remnant of the spinous processes of the fused vertebrae; roughens the midline surface of the sacrum

299
Q

is the remnant of the spinous processes of the fused vertebrae of the sacrum

A

median sacral crest

300
Q

roughens the midline surface of the sacrum

A

median sacral crest

301
Q

ala (alae plural)

A

winglike superior portion of the sacrum which articulates laterally with the hip bones, forming the sacroiliac joints

302
Q

sacroiliac joints

A

where the alae of the sacrum articulates with the hip bones

303
Q

where the alae of the sacrum articulates with the hip bones

A

sacroiliac joints

304
Q

winglike superior and lateral portion of the sacrum

A

ala (alae plural)

305
Q

the median sacral crest is flanked laterally by these

A

posterior sacral foramina

306
Q

posterior sacral foramina

A

flank the median sacral crest laterally

307
Q

the vertebral canal continues inside the sacrum as this

A

sacral canal

308
Q

the large inferior opening where the vertebral canal terminates in the sacrum near the coccyx

A

sacral hiatus

309
Q

sacral canal

A

where the vertebral canal continues inside the sacrum until it terminates at the sacral hiatus

310
Q

sacral hiatus

A

the large inferior opening where the sacral canal terminates in the sacrum near the coccyx

311
Q

coccyx

A

human “tailbone”; formed from the fusion of three to five tiny, irregularly shaped vertebrae

312
Q

human “tailbone”; formed from the fusion of three to five tiny, irregularly shaped vertebrae

A

coccyx

313
Q

the lateral openings created between vertebrae when they are articulated with each other

A

the intervertebral foramina (singular: foramen)

314
Q

intervertebral foramina

A

the lateral openings created between vertebrae when they are articulated with each other; allow for the passage of spinal nerves, arteries and ligaments

315
Q

allow for the passage of spinal nerves, arteries and ligaments

A

intervertebral foramina

316
Q

what is the bony thorax composed of?

A

the sternum, ribs, and thoracic vertebrae

317
Q

the sternum, ribs, and thoracic vertebrae compose what?

A

the bony thorax (thoracic cage)

318
Q

what is another name for the bony thorax?

A

the thoracic cage

319
Q

why is the bony thorax called the thoracic cage?

A

because it forms a protective cone-shaped cage of slender bones around the organs of the thoracic cavity (heart, lungs, and major blood vessels)

320
Q

sternum

A

breastbone; attached to the first seven pairs of ribs; typical flat bone resulting in the fusion of three bones - the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process, superior to inferior

321
Q

breastbone

A

sternum

322
Q

typical flat bone resulting in the fusion of three bones - the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

A

sternum

323
Q

typical flat bone attached to the first seven pairs of ribs

A

sternum

324
Q

manubrium

A

bone at the superior end of the sternum; looks like the knot of a tie; articulates with the clavicle (collarbone) laterally

325
Q

body (bone of sternum)

A

lies inferior to the manubrium and superior to the xiphoid process; forms most of the sternum

326
Q

xiphoid process

A

bone at the inferior end of the sternum; lies at the level of the fifth intercostal space

327
Q

bone at the superior end of the sternum

A

manubrium

328
Q

lies inferior to the manubrium and superior to the xiphoid process

A

body

329
Q

bone at the inferior end of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

330
Q

this bone of the sternum looks like the knot of a tie

A

manubrium

331
Q

forms most of the sternum

A

body

332
Q

this part of the sternum articulates with the clavicle (collarbone) laterally

A

manubrium

333
Q

this part of the sternum lies at the level of the fifth intercostal space

A

xiphoid process

334
Q

important bony landmarks of the sternum

A

jugular notch
sternal angle
xiphisternal joint

335
Q

jugular notch

A

concave upper border of the manubrium; generally is at the level of the third thoracic vertebrae

336
Q

concave upper border of the manubrium

A

jugular notch

337
Q

sternal angle

A

where the manubrium and the body of the sternum meet at a slight angle to each other; form a transverse ridge at the level of the second ribs

338
Q

form a transverse ridge on the sternum at the level of the second ribs

A

sternal angle

339
Q

where the manubrium and the body of the sternum meet at a slight angle to each other

A

sternal angle

340
Q

xiphisternal joint

A

point where the sternal body and the xiphoid process fuse; lies at level of ninth thoracic vertebrae

341
Q

point where the sternal body and the xiphoid process fuse

A

xiphisternal joint

342
Q

how many ribs form the wall of the thoracic cage?

A

12 pairs

343
Q

how are the ribs positioned?

A

all articulate with the vertebral column posteriorly and then curve downward an toward the anterior body surface

344
Q

all articulate with the vertebral column posteriorly and then curve downward an toward the anterior body surface

A

ribs

345
Q

what are the first seven ribs called?

A

true ribs

346
Q

true ribs

A

the first seven pair of ribs; attach directly to the sternum by costal cartilages

347
Q

costal cartilages

A

cartilages that connect the sternum and the ends of the ribs;

348
Q

cartilages that connect the sternum and the ends of the ribs;

A

costal cartilages

349
Q

false ribs

A

the five pairs of ribs after the true ribs; either attached indirectly to the sternum or not attached to sternum at all; last two are floating ribs

350
Q

floating ribs

A

the bottom two false ribs; do not attach to sternum

351
Q

the five pairs of ribs after the true ribs

A

false ribs

352
Q

ribs either attached indirectly to the sternum or not attached to sternum at all

A

false ribs

353
Q

last two are floating ribs

A

false ribs

354
Q

ribs that do not attach to the sternum

A

floating ribs

355
Q

intercostal spaces

A

space between the ribs

356
Q

space between the ribs

A

intercostal spaces

357
Q

what are the intercostal spaces filled with?

A

intercostal muscle, which aid in breathing

358
Q

costal

A

pertaining to the ribs

359
Q

pertaining to the ribs

A

costal

Anatomy & Physiology (13 decks)

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