5 Appendicular Skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

another name for shoulder girdle

A

pectoral girdle

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2
Q

what does the pectoral girdle consist of?

A

two bones: a clavicle and a scapula

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3
Q

another name for pectoral girdle

A

shoulder girdle

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4
Q

what consists of a clavicle and a scapula

A

the pectoral girdle

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5
Q

clavicle

A

collarbone; attaches to the manubrium of the sternum medially and to the scapula laterally

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6
Q

collarbone

A

clavicle

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7
Q

attaches to the manubrium of the sternum medially and to the scapula laterally

A

clavicle

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8
Q

what is the purpose of the clavicle?

A

acts as a brace to hold the arm away from the top of the thorax and helps prevent shoulder dislocation

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9
Q

acts as a brace to hold the arm away from the top of the thorax and helps prevent shoulder dislocation

A

clavicle

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10
Q

when this is broken, the whole shoulder region caves in medially

A

clavicle

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11
Q

scapulae

A

shoulder blades;

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12
Q

triangular bone commonly called “wings” because they flare when we move our arms posteriorly

A

scapulae

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13
Q

shoulder blades

A

scapulae

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14
Q

description of scapulae

A

triangular; each has a flattened body and two important processes: the acromion and the beaklike corocoid

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15
Q

triangular; each has a flattened body and two important processes: the acromion and the beaklike corocoid

A

scapulae (the two scapula)

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16
Q

where does the scapulae attach to the clavicle?

A

at the acromioclavicular joint; the acromion process of the scapula connects with the clavicle laterally at this joint

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17
Q

acromioclavicular joint

A

where the acromion process of the scapula connects with the clavicle laterally

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18
Q

acromion process

A

the enlarged end of the spine of the scapula; part of the scapula that connects with the clavicle laterally

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19
Q

the enlarged end of the spine of the scapula

A

acromion process

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20
Q

part of the scapula that connects with the clavicle laterally

A

acromion process

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21
Q

coracoid process

A

is a small hook-like structure on the lateral edge of the superior anterior portion of the scapula; anchors some muscles of the arm; Pointing laterally forward, it, together with the acromion, serves to stabilize the shoulder joint

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22
Q

a small hook-like structure on the lateral edge of the superior anterior portion of the scapula

A

coracoid process

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23
Q

together with the acromion, it serves to stabilize the shoulder joint

A

coracoid process

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24
Q

suprascapular notch

A

medial to the coracoid process of the scapula; large indentation which serves as a nerve passageway

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25
Q

indentation medial to the coracoid process of the scapula

A

suprascapular notch

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26
Q

large indentation on the superior edge of the scapula which serves as a nerve passageway

A

suprascapular notch

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27
Q

how is the scapula attached to the axial skeleton?

A

it is not directly attached; it is loosely held in place by trunk muscles

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28
Q

it is not directly attached to the axial skeleton; it is loosely held in place by trunk muscles

A

scapula

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29
Q

what are the three borders of the scapula?

A

superior
medial (vertebral)
lateral (axillary)

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30
Q

the three angles (corners) of the scapula

A

superior
inferior
lateral

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31
Q

glenoid cavity

A

shallow socket on the scapula that receives the head of the arm bone; is in the lateral angle

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32
Q

shallow socket on the scapula that receives the head of the arm bone; is in the lateral angle

A

glenoid cavity

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33
Q

part of the scapula that connects with the humerus

A

glenoid cavity

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34
Q

drawback to the lightness of the pectoral girdle that allows exceptional free movement and flexibility tot he upper limb

A

pectoral girdle is very easily dislocated

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35
Q

factors that cause the pectoral girdle to be very light and allow extremely free movement of the upper limbs

A
  • -pectoral girdle only attaches to the axial skeleton at one point: the sternoclavicular joint
  • -loose attachment of the scapula allows it to slide back and forth against the thorax as muscles act
  • -glenoid cavity is shallow and shoulder joint poorly reinforced by ligaments
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36
Q

what is the arm formed by?

A

a single bone, the humerus

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37
Q

humerus

A

single long bone that forms the arm

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38
Q

at the proximal end of this bone is a rounded head that fits into the shallow glenoid cavity of the scapula

A

humerus

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39
Q

what is at the proximal end of the humerus

A

a rounded head that fits into the shallow glenoid cavity of the scapula

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40
Q

anatomical neck

A

immediately inferior to the head of the humerus; obliquely directed; its upper half represented by a narrow groove that separates the head of the humerus from the two tubercles

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41
Q

immediately inferior to the head of the humerus; obliquely directed; its upper half represented by a narrow groove that separates the head of the humerus from the two tubercles

A

anatomical neck

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42
Q

greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus

A

two bony projections anterolateral to the head; sites of muscle attachment; separated from each other by the deep groove of the intertubercular sulcus and from the head by the anatomical neck

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43
Q

two bony projections anterolateral to the head of the humerus and sites of muscle attachment

A

greater and lesser tubercles

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44
Q

intertubercular sulcus

A

deep groove separating the greater and lesser tubercles at the proximal end of the humerus

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45
Q

deep groove separating the greater and lesser tubercles at the proximal end of the humerus

A

intertubercular sulcus

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46
Q

surgical neck of the humerus

A

just distal to the tubercles at the proximal end; where the humerus thins from the head

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47
Q

just distal to the tubercles at the proximal end; where the humerus thins from the head

A

surgical neck

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48
Q

deltoid tuberosity

A

roughened area midpoint of the shaft of the humerus; where the large deltoid muscle of the shoulder attaches

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49
Q

roughened area midpoint of the shaft of the humerus

A

deltoid tuberosity

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50
Q

where the large deltoid muscle of the shoulder attaches to the humerus

A

deltoid tuberosity

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51
Q

radial groove

A

runs obliquely down the posterior aspect of the humerus shaft; marks the course of the radial nerve (important nerve of upper limb)

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52
Q

runs obliquely down the posterior aspect of the humerus shaft

A

radial groove

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53
Q

marks the course of the radial nerve (important nerve of upper limb) along the posterior of the humerus

A

radial groove

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54
Q

trochlea

A

spool-like medial portion of the articular surface of the elbow joint on the humerus; articulates with the trochlear notch on the ulna

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55
Q

spool-like medial portion of the articular surface of the elbow joint on the humerus

A

trochlea

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56
Q

portion of humerus that articulates with the trochlear notch on the ulna

A

trochlea

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57
Q

capitulum

A

lateral ball-like portion of the distal humerus that articulates in the elbow joint with the head of the radius

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58
Q

lateral ball-like portion of the distal humerus that articulates in the elbow joint with the head of the radius

A

capitulum

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59
Q

elbow joint

A

medial trochlea of humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of ulna
lateral capitulum of the humerus articulates with the head of the radius

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60
Q

coronoid fossa

A

anterior depression above the trochlea on the humerus; receives the coronoid process of the ulna during flexion of the forearm

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61
Q

anterior depression above the trochlea on the humerus

A

coronoid fossa

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62
Q

part of humerus that receives the coronoid process of the ulna during flexion of the forearm

A

coronoid fossa

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63
Q

olecranon fossa

A

posterior depression above the trochlea on the humerus; receives the olecranon of the ulna during extension of the forearm

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64
Q

posterior depression above the trochlea on the humerus

A

olecranon fossa

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65
Q

part of humerus that receives the olecranon of the ulna during extension of the forearm

A

olecranon fossa

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66
Q

flexion of the forearm

A

flexion: coronoid fossa of the humerus receives coronoid process of the ulna

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67
Q

coronoid fossa of the humerus receives coronoid process of the ulna

A

flexion of the forearm

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68
Q

extension of the forearm

A

extension: olecranon fossa of the humerus receives the olecranon of the ulna

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69
Q

olecranon fossa of the humerus receives the olecranon of the ulna

A

extension of the forearm

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70
Q

medial epicondyle

A

raised area medial to the trochlea on the distal end of the humerus; larger, more prominent and slightly more posterior in anatomical position than lateral epicondyle

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71
Q

lateral epicondyle

A

raised area lateral to the trochlea on the distal end of the humerus; posterior to capitulum

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72
Q

epicondyles of the humerus

A

lateral and medial; flank the coronoid fossa and the olecranon fossa of the elbow joint

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73
Q

flank the coronoid fossa and the olecranon fossa of the elbow joint

A

lateral and medial epicondyles

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74
Q

bones that form the forearm

A

radius

ulna

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75
Q

radius and ulna in anatomical position

A

radius is the lateral bone (thumb)

ulna is the medial bone (pinkie)

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76
Q

lateral bone of the forearm

A

radius

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77
Q

medial bone of the forearm

A

ulna

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78
Q

thumb-side bone of the forearm

A

radius

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79
Q

pinkie-side bone of the forearm

A

ulna

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80
Q

what happens to the bones of the forearm when the hand is rotated so the palm faces posteriorly?

A

the distal end of the radius crosses over and ends up medial to the ulna

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81
Q

when is the radius medial to the ulna?

A

when the palm is rotated so it faces posterior

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82
Q

where do the radius and ulna articulate?

A

articulate both proximally and distally at small radioulnar joints

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83
Q

radioulnar joints

A

proximal radioulnar joint and distal radioulnar joint; where the radius and ulna articulate

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84
Q

how are the radius and ulna connected?

A

at both ends at the radioulnar joints and along entire length by the interosseous membrane

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85
Q

interosseous membrane

A

flexible membrane that connects the radius and ulna along entire length

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86
Q

flexible membrane that connects the radius and ulna along entire length

A

interosseous membrane

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87
Q

what do both the radius and the ulna have at their distal ends?

A

both have a styloid process

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88
Q

what does the disc-shaped head of the radius forms a joint with?

A

the capitulum of the humerus

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89
Q

radial tuberosity

A

where the tendon of the biceps muscle attaches; just below the head of the radius

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90
Q

where the tendon of the biceps muscle attaches to the radius

A

radial tuberosity

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91
Q

process just below the head of the radius

A

radial tuberosity

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92
Q

these two processes of the ulna grip the trochlea of the humerus in a pliers-like joint

A

coronoid process and olecranon; they are separated by the trochlear notch

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93
Q

what parts of the ulna are separated by the trochlear notch?

A

coronoid process on the anterior and olecranon on the posterior

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94
Q

anterior process on the proximal end of the ulna; part of joint that grips the trochlea of the humerus

A

coronoid process

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95
Q

posterior process on the proximal end of the ulna; part of joint that grips the trochlea of the humerus

A

olecranon

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96
Q

coronoid process

A

anterior process on the proximal end of the ulna; part of joint that grips the trochlea of the humerus

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97
Q

olecranon

A

posterior process on the proximal end of the ulna; part of joint that grips the trochlea of the humerus

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98
Q

trochlear notch

A

large depression of the ulna, formed by the olecranon and the coronoid process; articulates with the trochlea of the humerus

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99
Q

large depression of the ulna, formed by the olecranon and the coronoid process; articulates with the trochlea of the humerus

A

trochlear notch

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100
Q

what does the skeleton of the hand consist of?

A

carpals
metacarpals
phalanges

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101
Q

carpal bones

A

bones of the wrist; eight bones arranged in two irregular rows of four bones each; form the carpus (wrist)

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102
Q

carpus

A

wrist

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103
Q

form the carpus

A

carpal bones

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104
Q

how are the carpals bound together?

A

ligaments that restrict movements between them

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105
Q

metacarpals

A

the five bones that form the palm of the hand; when the fist is clenched, the head form “knuckles”

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106
Q

the bones of the palm of the hand

A

metacarpals

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107
Q

form the knuckles

A

the heads of the metacarpals when the fist is clenched

108
Q

the head of the metacarpals form these

A

knuckles

109
Q

phalanges

A

bones of the fingers; each hand contains fourteen; three in each finger (proximal, middle, distal), two in thumb (proximal, distal)

110
Q

how many phalanges in each hand?

A

fourteen; three in each finger (proximal, middle, distal), two in thumb (proximal, distal)

111
Q

bones of the fingers

A

phalanges

112
Q

how many phalanges in each finger?

A

three; two in thumb

113
Q

what is the pelvic girdle composed of

A

two coxal bones (ossa coxae; hip bones) and the sacrum

114
Q

together with the coccyx forms the pelvis

A

pelvic girdle

115
Q

difference between pelvic girdle and bony pelvis

A

pelvic girdle = 2 coxal bones and sacrum

bony pelvis = 2 coxal bones, sacrum + coccyx

116
Q

how are the pelvic girdle and bony pelvis related?

A

the bony pelvis is the pelvic girdle plus the coccyx

117
Q

other names for coxal bones

A

ossa coxae

hip bones

118
Q

other names for ossa coxae

A

coxal bones

hip bones

119
Q

other names for hip bones

A

ossa coxae

coxal bones

120
Q

bones are large and heavy and attach securely to the axial skeleton via the sacral attachment to the lowermost lumbar vertebrae

A

pelvic girdle

121
Q

pelvic girdle

A

two hip bones and the sacrum; bones are large and heavy; attaches to the axial skeleton; sockets receive the thigh bones; function is bearing weight

122
Q

what are the bones of the pelvic girdle like

A

large and heavy

123
Q

how does the pelvic girdle attach securely to the axial skeleton?

A

via the sacral attachment to the lowermost vertebrae

124
Q

sockets of the pelvic girdle

A

receive the thigh bones; are deep and heavily reinforced by ligaments that attach the limbs firmly to the girdle

125
Q

most important function of the pelvic girdle

A

bearing weight; total weight of the upper body rests on the pelvis

126
Q

what organs lie within and are protected by the pelvis?

A

reproductive organs
urinary bladder
part of large intestine

127
Q

each hip bone is formed by what?

A

the fusion of three bones:
ilium
ischium
pubis

128
Q

is formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis

A

hip bone

129
Q

ilium

A

large, flaring bone that forms most of the hip bone; connects posteriorly to the sacrum

130
Q

large, flaring bone that forms most of the hip bone

A

ilium

131
Q

part of hip bone that connects posteriorly to the sacrum

A

ilium; connects at the sacroiliac joint

132
Q

where does the ilium connect to the sacrum?

A

sacroiliac joint

133
Q

sacroiliac joint

A

where the ilium of the hip bone connects posteriorly to the sacrum

134
Q

alae of the ilia

A

wing-like portions of the ilia of the hip bone; putting hands on hips = hands resting over alae (ala of an ilium, singular); upper edge is iliac crest

135
Q

wing-like portions of the ilia of the hip bone

A

alae (singular: ala)

136
Q

when you put your hands on your hips they are resting over this

A

the ala, the wing-like portion of the ilium of the hip bone

137
Q

iliac crest

A

upper edge of ala; runs from anterior superior iliac spine to posterior superior iliac spine; important landmark when giving intramuscular injections

138
Q

upper edge of ala

A

iliac crest

139
Q

runs between anterior superior iliac spine to posterior superior iliac spine

A

iliac crest

140
Q

what are below the anterior and posterior superior iliac spines?

A

small inferior spines:
anterior inferior iliac spine
posterior inferior iliac spine

141
Q

ischium

A

“sit-down bone”; forms the inferior part of the coxal (hip) bone

142
Q

“sit-down bone”

A

ischium

143
Q

forms the inferior part of the coxal bone

A

ischium

144
Q

ischial tuberosity

A

roughened area of the ischium that receives body weight when you are sitting

145
Q

roughened area of the hip bone that receives body weight when you are sitting

A

ischial tuberosity

146
Q

ischial spine

A

superior to ischial tuberosity on coxal bone; important landmark in pregnant women because narrows the outlet of the pelvis

147
Q

process superior to ischial tuberosity on coxal bone

A

ischial spine

148
Q

important landmark in pregnant women because narrows the outlet of the pelvis

A

ischial spine

149
Q

greater sciatic notch

A

located posteriorly on superior part of ischium; allows blood vessels and the large sciatic nerve to pass from the pelvis posteriorly into the thigh

150
Q

important bone marking located posteriorly on superior part of ischium

A

greater sciatic notch

151
Q

allows blood vessels and the large sciatic nerve to pass from the pelvis posteriorly into the thigh

A

greater sciatic notch

152
Q

pubis

A

most anterior part of the coxal bone; pubic bones fuse anteriorly to form pubic symphysis; fuses with the ischium to enclose obturator foramen

153
Q

most anterior part of the coxal bone

A

pubis

154
Q

oburator foramen

A

opening on the inferior coxal bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass to the anterior part of the thigh; formed by the fusion of the rami of the pubis anteriorly to the ischium posteriorly, creating the bar of bone that forms the enclosure

155
Q

opening on the inferior coxal bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass to the anterior part of the thigh

A

oburator foramen

156
Q

the fusion of the rami of the pubis anteriorly to the ischium posteriorly, creates the bar of bone that forms this enclosure

A

oburator foramen

157
Q

pubic symphysis

A

cartilaginous joint formed by the pubic bones of each hip fusing anteriorly; midpoint of pubic arch

158
Q

cartilaginous joint formed by the pubic bones of each hip fusing anteriorly

A

pubic symphysis

159
Q

midpoint of pubic arch

A

pubic symphysis

160
Q

pubic arch

A

anterior inferior arch formed by joining of the two pubic bones at the pubic symphysis

161
Q

anterior inferior arch formed by joining of the two pubic bones at the pubic symphysis

A

pubic arch

162
Q

acetabulum

A

the deep socket where the ilium, ischium and pubis fuse; receives the head of the thigh bone

163
Q

the deep socket where the ilium, ischium and pubis fuse

A

acetabulum

164
Q

socket of hip bone that receives the head of the thigh bone

A

acetabulum

165
Q

the deep socket where the three bones of the coxal bone fuse

A

acetabulum

166
Q

the two regions of the bony pelvis

A

false pelvis

true pelvis

167
Q

false pelvis

A

the area medial the flaring portions of the ilia; superior to the true pelvis

168
Q

the area medial the flaring portions of the ilia

A

false pelvis

169
Q

true pelvis

A

area lying inferior to the flaring parts of the ilia and the pelvic brim; surrounded by bone; dimensions important in women b/c must be large enough to allow infants head to pass

170
Q

area lying inferior to the flaring parts of the ilia and the pelvic brim

A

true pelvis

171
Q

dimensions important in women b/c must be large enough to allow infants head to pass

A

true pelvis; particularly the outlet and inlet

172
Q

pelvic brim

A

edge of the superior medial sides of the ilium and pubis

173
Q

edge of the superior medial sides of the ilium and pubis

A

pelvic brim

174
Q

outlet of true pelvis

A

inferior opening of the pelvis measured between the two ischial spines

175
Q

inferior opening of the pelvis measured between the two ischial spines

A

outlet of true pelvis

176
Q

inlet of true pelvis

A

superior opening between the right and left sides of the pelvic brim

177
Q

superior opening between the right and left sides of the pelvic brim

A

inlet of the true pelvis

178
Q

thigh bone

A

femur

179
Q

femur

A

thigh bone; only bone in the thigh; heaviest, strongest bone in the body

180
Q

only bone in the thigh

A

femur

181
Q

heaviest, strongest bone in the body

A

femur

182
Q

head of the femur

A

articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone in a deep, secure socket

183
Q

articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone in a deep, secure socket

A

head of the femur

184
Q

proximal end of the femur

A

has a ball-like head, a neck, and greater and lesser trochanters

185
Q

greater and lesser trochanters

A

large, blunt, irregularly-shaped processes of the proximal end of the femur; located laterally of the head and neck with the greater trochanter superior and lateral to the lesser; separated anteriorly by the intertrochanteric line and posteriorly by the intertrochanteric crest

186
Q

large, blunt, irregularly-shaped processes of the proximal end of the femur

A

greater trochanter and lesser trochanter

187
Q

processes located laterally to the head and neck of the femur

A

greater trochanter and lesser trochanter

188
Q

position of the greater and lesser trochanter to each other

A

greater trochanter is superior and lateral to the lesser trochanter

189
Q

separated anteriorly by the intertrochanteric line and posteriorly by the intertrochanteric crest

A

greater trochanter and lesser trochanter

190
Q

what separates the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter anteriorly?

A

intertrochanteric line

191
Q

what separates the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter posteriorly?

A

intertrochanteric crest

192
Q

what serve as sites for muscle attachment at the proximal end of the femur?

A

greater trochanter
lesser trochanter
gluteal tuberosity

193
Q

bone marking on the femur that serves as an attachment site for the gluteus maximus

A

gluteal tuberosity

194
Q

common fracture site on the femur

A

neck

195
Q

why does the femur slant medially as it runs downward to join with the leg bones?

A

brings the knees in line with the body’s center of gravity

196
Q

articular surfaces on the distal end of femur

A

lateral condyle
medial condyle
intercondylar fossa
patellar surface

197
Q

lateral and medial condyles of the femur

A

rounded projections of the distal femur that articulate with the tibia; posteriorly separated by the deep intercondylar fossa

198
Q

rounded projections of the distal femur that articulate with the tibia

A

lateral and medial condyles

199
Q

intercondylar fossa

A

the deep notch on the posterior of the distal femur separating the lateral and medial condyles

200
Q

the deep notch on the posterior of the distal femur separating the lateral and medial condyles

A

intercondylar fossa

201
Q

patellar surface

A

smooth surface on the anterior distal femur which forms the joint with the patella

202
Q

smooth surface on the anterior distal femur which forms the joint with the patella

A

patellar surface

203
Q

the bones that form the skeleton of the leg

A

tibia and fibula

204
Q

interosseous membrane

A

membrane that connects the tibia and fibula along their length

205
Q

membrane that connects the tibia and fibula along their length

A

interosseous membrane

206
Q

tibia

A

shinbone; the larger, medial leg bone

207
Q

the larger legbone

A

tibia

208
Q

the more-medial leg bone

A

tibia

209
Q

shinbone

A

tibia

210
Q

proximal end of the tibia

A

the medial and lateral condyles, separated by the intercondylar eminence, articulate with the distal end of the femur to form the knee joint

211
Q

medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

A

articular projections of the proximal tibia; separated by the intercondylar eminence

212
Q

articular projections of the proximal tibia

A

medial and lateral condyles

213
Q

intercondylar eminence

A

spine at the superior proximal end of the tibia; separates the medial and lateral condyles

214
Q

spine at the superior proximal end of the tibia

A

intercondylar eminence

215
Q

separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

A

intercondylar eminence

216
Q

patellar ligament

A

encloses the patella and attaches to the tibial tuberosity on the anterior tibial surface

217
Q

encloses the patella and attaches to the tibial tuberosity on the anterior tibial surface

A

patellar ligament

218
Q

tibial tuberosity

A

roughened area on the anterior tibial surface where the patellar ligament attaches

219
Q

roughened area on the anterior tibial surface where the patellar ligament attaches

A

tibial tuberosity

220
Q

medial malleolus

A

process on the distal end of the tibia; forms the inner bulge of the ankle

221
Q

forms the inner bulge of the ankle

A

medial malleolus

222
Q

anterior border of the tibia

A

sharp ridge along the anterior surface of the tibia; unprotected by muscles and easily felt through skin

223
Q

sharp ridge along the anterior surface of the tibia

A

anterior border

224
Q

process on the distal end of the tibia

A

medial malleolus

225
Q

fibula

A

thin and stick-like lateral bone of leg; has no part of forming the knee joint

226
Q

position of leg bones

A

medial - tibia

lateral - fibula

227
Q

lateral malleolus

A

process on distal end of fibula; forms outer part of ankle

228
Q

process on distal end of fibula

A

lateral malleolus

229
Q

forms outer part of ankle

A

lateral malleolus on fibula

230
Q

what is the foot composed of

A

tarsals
metatarsals
phalanges

231
Q

what are the functions of the foot?

A

supports body weight

serves as a lever to propel the body

232
Q

tarsus

A

posterior half of foot; composed of seven tarsal bones

233
Q

posterior half of foot

A

tarsus

234
Q

what is body weight carried mostly by

A

the two largest tarsals; the calcaneus and the talus

235
Q

calcaneus

A

heelbone; one of the two largest tarsal bones that support weight

236
Q

heelbone

A

calcaneus

237
Q

talus

A

ankle; lies between the tibia and the calcaneus

238
Q

ankle bone

A

talus

239
Q

lies between the tibia and the calcaneus

A

talus

240
Q

metatarsals

A

the five bones that form the sole of the foot

241
Q

the bones that form the sole of the foot

A

metatarsals

242
Q

phalanges of the foot

A

like the fingers, 14 form the toes, each toe has three except great toe with two

243
Q

like the fingers, 14 form the toes, each toe has three except great toe with two

A

phalanges of the foot.

244
Q

how are the bones of the foot arranged?

A

to form three strong arches; two longitudinal (medial and lateral) and one transverse

245
Q

what hold the feet in their arches?

A

ligaments bind the foot bones together

tendons of the foot muscles help to hold the bones in the arched position

246
Q

difference between bone and cartilage

A

both connective tissue;
matrix: bone - hard & calcified matrix, cartilage firm & pliable
blood vessels: bone - lots, cartilage - none

247
Q

what is bone

A

bone is connective tissue with calcified matrix and a lot of blood vessels

248
Q

what is cartilage

A

cartilage is connective tissue with firm pliable matrix and no blood vessels

249
Q

connective tissue with calcified matrix and a lot of blood vessels

A

bone

250
Q

connective tissue with firm pliable matrix with no blood vessels

A

cartilage

251
Q

what is the matrix of cartilage made of

A

glycoaminoglycans (sugar/protein/sugar)

252
Q

describe cartilage fibers

A

collagen fibers, protein, stronger than steel; is elastic, stretches and recoils (ear lobe)

253
Q

kinds of cartilage

A

hyaline
elastic
fibrous
costal

254
Q

hyaline cartilage - kind and location

A

glassy, shiny; articulating surfaces of joints and embryonic skeleton

255
Q

costal cartilage

A

connects the ribs to the sternum

256
Q

elastic cartilage - kind and location

A

maintains shape and support but can bend; Eustachian tube in ear; ear lobes; keeps respiratory system open

257
Q

fibrous cartilage - location

A

intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

258
Q

type of cartilage that is glassy and shiny

A

hyaline cartilage

259
Q

type of cartilage that connects the ribs to the sternum

A

costal cartilage

260
Q

type of cartilage on articulating surfaces of joints

A

hyaline cartilage

261
Q

type of cartilage in embryonic skeleton

A

hyaline cartilage

262
Q

type of cartilage that maintains shape and support but can bend

A

elastic cartilage

263
Q

type of cartilage that keeps the respiratory system open

A

elastic cartilage

264
Q

type of cartilage that makes the intervertebral discs

A

fibrous cartilage

265
Q

type of cartilage that the pubic symphysis is composed of

A

fibrous cartilage