Missed Qs from Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

According to gate control theory, pain can be alleviated by:
A. taking a placebo.
B. taking an SSRI.
C. massaging the site of the pain.
D. reframing negative thoughts.

A

C. massaging the site of the pain.

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2
Q

Although ____________ personality disorder usually has a chronic course, its symptoms may become less severe as the person gets older, especially during the fourth decade of life.
A. schizoid
B. paranoid
C. obsessive-compulsive
D. antisocial

A

D. antisocial

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3
Q

Atkinson, Thompson, and Grant’s (1993) three-dimensional model of multicultural counseling provides guidelines for choosing the optimal role for therapists when working with clients from ethnic/racial minority groups. For example, it recommends that therapists adopt which of the following roles when a client’s level of acculturation is low, the client’s problem is external, and the primary goal is remediation?
A. consultant
B. adviser
C. advocate
D. change agent

A

C. advocate

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4
Q

As described by Erikson, the positive outcome (“virtue”) of the ego integrity versus despair stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?
A. wisdom
B. purpose
C. care
D. will

A

A. wisdom

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5
Q

Francis Galton was surprised when he found that a group of contestants at a country fair produced a more accurate estimate of an oxen’s weight when their individual estimates were averaged than the estimate made by any one cattle expert. Averaging the estimates provided by a group of contestants is an example of which of the following tasks?
A. disjunctive
B. conjunctive
C. discretionary
D. compensatory

A

D. compensatory

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6
Q

A supervisor consistently gives supervisees high ratings on a performance rating scale, even when they don’t deserve them. This supervisor is exhibiting which of the following?
A. positive skew
B. central tendency bias
C. positive halo
D. leniency bias

A

D. leniency bias

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7
Q

Which of the following is true about OCD?
A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
B. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females and females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
C. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males but females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
D. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females but males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.

A

A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.

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8
Q

Which of the following has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and different measures of job performance?
A. structured employment interviews
B. general mental ability tests
C. biographical information blanks
D. assessment centers

A

B general mental ability tests

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9
Q

Following a traumatic brain injury, a young woman is unable to form new long-term declarative memories. Most likely, the injury affected which of the following areas of her brain?
A. amygdala
B. hippocampus
C. hypothalamus
D. substantia nigra

A

B. hippocampus

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10
Q

To estimate the effect of shortening or lengthening a test on the test’s reliability coefficient, you would use which of the following?
A. coefficient of determination
B. coefficient alpha
C. Spearman-Brown formula
D. Kuder-Richardson formula 20

A

C. Spearman-Brown formula

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11
Q

The research has found that, in adulthood, __________ memory is most negatively affected by increasing age.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. implicit
D. sensory

A

B. secondary

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12
Q

Mayo (1933) found that, no matter what changes were made to lighting and other physical work conditions, factory workers’ productivity increased. They attributed this to the special attention the workers received as research participants and referred to it as the:
A. placebo effect.
B. confirmation effect.
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Barnum effect.

A

C. Hawthorne effect.

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13
Q

Re. leadership style, which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn?
A. A high level of consideration is more important than a high level of initiating structure for both satisfaction and performance.
B. A high level of initiating structure is more important than a high level of consideration for both satisfaction and performance.
C. A high level of consideration is more important for satisfaction, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for performance.
D. A high level of consideration is more important for performance, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for satisfaction.

A

C. A high level of consideration is more important for satisfaction, while a high level of initiating structure is more important for performance.

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14
Q

Based on the results of his research on learning, _____ concluded that deriving a solution to a problem can be the result of insight, which involves mentally restructuring the elements of the problem in order to see it in a new way.
A. Hermann Ebbinghaus
B. Wolfgang Kohler
C. Edward Thorndike
D. Edward Tolman

A

B. Wolfgang Kohler

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15
Q

The overjustification effect occurs when:
A. a person attributes the pos outcomes of his behavior to dispositional factors when they were actually due to situational factors.
B. a person attributes the neg outcomes of his behavior to situational factors when they were actually due to dispositional factors.
C. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior reduces intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.
D. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior increases intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

A

C. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior reduces intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

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16
Q

Studies investigating the impact of client-therapist match in terms of race and ethnicity suggest that:
A. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race/ethnicity and have significantly better therapy outcomes when their therapists the same race/ethnicity.
B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race/ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race/ethnicity has little effect on outcomes.
C. clients experience significantly better outcomes when therapists are of the same race/ethnicity only when they had a strong preference for a therapist of the same race/ethnicity.
D. clients experience worse therapy outcomes when therapists are not of the same race/ethnicity, regardless of preferences.

A

B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race and ethnicity has little effect on therapy outcomes.

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17
Q

Gaylen, age 19, is brought to therapy by her mother, who says she has been “acting weird” lately. She says that Gaylen is normally pretty sensible but that, for the past 2 mts, she’s been complaining about hearing voices telling her that she’s worthless and a burden on her family and should kill herself. Gaylen’s mother also says that, when she tries to have a conversation with Gaylen, it’s often impossible to understand what she’s saying. When you ask Gaylen about the voices she hears, her response is rambling and incoherent. Assuming that Gaylen’s sx are not due to mental dis/medical cond/drugs, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. delusional disorder.
B. brief psychotic disorder.
C. schizophreniform disorder.
D. schizophrenia.

A

C. schizophreniform disorder.

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18
Q

To evaluate the test-retest reliability of a newly developed measure of intelligence, a test developer administers the test to the same sample of examinees on 2 occasions. When he correlates the 2 sets of scores, he obtains a reliability coefficient of .60. To increase this reliability coefficient, the test developer should:
A. increase the # of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous re level/int.
B. increase the # of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous re level/int.
C. decrease the # of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous re level/int.
D. decrease the # of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous re level/int.

A

A. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

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19
Q

One of the Qs included in a survey asks employees to rate the fairness of the outcomes of a recent organizational decision regarding raises and bonuses. This Q assesses employees’ perceptions of which of:
A. distributive justice
B. procedural justice
C. normative justice
D. interactional justice

A

A. distributive justice

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20
Q

A meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that _______________ are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion.
A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

A

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

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21
Q

For most infants, separation anxiety begins when the infant is between __________ months of age.
A. 2 and 4
B. 4 and 6
C. 6 and 8
D. 8 and 10

A

C. 6 and 8

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22
Q

Which of the following has NOT been identified as an explanation for bystander apathy?
A. social loafing
B. pluralistic ignorance
C. evaluation apprehension
D. diffusion of responsibility

A

A. social loafing

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23
Q

As described by Vygotsky, “scaffolding” refers to which of the following?
A. existing cognitive schemas
B. assistance from adults and more experienced peers
C. rehearsing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. reinforcers that are used to shape a desired behavior

A

B. assistance from adults and more experienced peers

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes sensory memory?
A. large capacity and brief duration
B. large capacity and long duration
C. small capacity and brief duration
D. small capacity and long duration

A

A. large capacity and brief duration

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25
Q

The 22-year-old biological son of taller-than-average parents is shorter than average. Which of the following helps explain the son’s height?
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. gene expression
D. canalization

A

B. phenotype

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26
Q

Before using a newly developed 10-item screening test to identify people who are depressed, you administer the test to a sample of clinic patients along with an established (validated) 50-item measure of depression and correlate the two sets of scores. In this situation, you are evaluating the screening test’s:
A. content validity.
B. divergent validity.
C. differential validity.
D. concurrent validity.

A

D. concurrent validity.

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27
Q

When considering the optimal method of training, you would most likely choose vestibule training because:
A. it’s less costly than off-the-job training.
B. it’s useful for teaching higher-order cognitive skills.
C. it’s less dangerous than on-the-job training.
D. it allows training to be self-administered.

A

C. it’s less dangerous than on-the-job training.

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28
Q

An adolescent says, “I’m trying real hard to figure out what I want to do with my life and haven’t decided whether I want to get married/ have children or what college major or career I want to pursue.” These comments are most consistent with Marcia’s (1966) __________ status.
A. diffusion
B. foreclosure
C. moratorium
D. upheaval

A

C. moratorium

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29
Q

Violation of the psychological contract between employees and their employers has been identified as a contributor to:
A. work-family conflict.
B. job burnout.
C. low organization-based self-esteem.
D. downsizing survivor syndrome.

A

D. downsizing survivor syndrome

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30
Q

At a “big box” home improvement store, use of a newly developed selection procedure results in a hiring rate /male salespeople: 50%. In this situation, to be consistent with the 80% (four-fifths) rule, the min hiring rate for fem salespeople when using this procedure should be ___%.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80

A

B. 40

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31
Q

A T-score distribution has a mean of _____ and standard deviation of _____.
A. 100; 10
B. 100; 15
C. 50; 10
D. 50; 15

A

C. 50: 10

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32
Q

Research has found that, among LGBT individuals, being open about their sexual orientation to friends + family members is ass with:
A. lower levels of anxiety, higher levels of self-esteem, and greater social support.
B. lower levels of anxiety and higher levels of self-esteem but lower levels of social support.
C. higher levels of anxiety but no effect on self-esteem and social support.
D. higher levels of anxiety and lower levels of self-esteem and no effect on social support.

A

A. lower levels of anxiety, higher levels of self-esteem, and greater social support.

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33
Q

A White adult in Helms’s __________ stage of White identity development recognizes his/her own racist views and justifies them by adopting beliefs that support White superiority and minority inferiority.
A. reintegration
B. disintegration
C. pseudoindependence
D. immersion-emersion

A

A. reintegration

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34
Q

Research on the Fagan Test of Intelligence has confirmed that ______ in infancy is a good predictor of IQ in childhood, adolescence, + young A.
A. socio-emotional behavior
B. language production and comprehension
C. sensorimotor development
D. selective attention to novel stimuli

A

D. selective attention to novel stimuli

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35
Q

A criticism of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that:
A. they’re useful only for managerial-level jobs.
B. they’re time-consuming to develop.
C. they’re time-consuming to use when there are many employees to assess.
D. they focus on extreme (rather than typical) behaviors.

A

B. they’re time-consuming to develop

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36
Q

You’re conducting a research study that will involve interviewing and observing 50 6th G students. To fulfill ethical requirements, you should obtain:
A. an informed consent from each student.
B. assent from each student and permission from the school principal.
C. assent from each student and permission from the parent(s) of each student.
D. informed consent from the parent(s) of each student.

A

C. assent from each student and permission from the parent(s) of each student.

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37
Q

Thorndike’s research with ______ led to his development of the law of effect.
A. mice in a maze
B. chimpanzees in a cage
C. cats in a puzzle box
D. pigeons in an operant-conditioning chamber

A

C. cats in a puzzle box

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38
Q

According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, _____ appraisal involves considering whether an external event is relevant or irrelevant and, if relevant, whether it’s positive/benign or stressful.
A. central
B. peripheral
C. primary
D. secondary

A

C. primary

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39
Q

You have developed a battery of tests to determine which of 5 vocational training programs is most appropriate for unemployed YAs who dropped out of HS. Which of the following multivariate techniques will be useful?
A. multiple regression
B. multivariate analysis of variance
C. canonical correlation
D. discriminant function analysis

A

D. discriminant function analysis

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40
Q

When differentiating between conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder, the presence of which of the following suggests oppositional defiant disorder?
A. The child’s symptoms do not negatively affect his/her academic, social, or other area of functioning.
B. The child’s symptoms create conflicts between the child and his/her parents and other adults.
C. The child’s symptoms include problems related to emotional dysregulation.
D. The child’s defiant behavior is often performed to gain attention.

A

C. The child’s symptoms include problems related to emotional dysregulation.

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41
Q

During his 1st session/a family, a structural family therapist notices that, whenever the father tries to shed some light on the family’s problems, the mother and teenage son interrupt him and contradict what he’s saying. The therapist will describe this interaction as a:
A. detouring coalition.
B. stable coalition.
C. symmetrical interaction.
D. complementary interaction.

A

B. stable coalition.

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42
Q

The Solomon four-group design is used to control which of the following threats to a study’s internal validity?
A. history
B. statistical regression
C. pretest sensitization
D. differential selection

A

C. pretest sensitization

43
Q

The first step in Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training is:
A. conceptualization.
B. cognitive modeling.
C. problem identification.
D. orientation.

A

B. cognitive modeling

44
Q

Individuals with Wernicke’s aphasia have:
A. impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning.
B. impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and nonfluent, labored speech.
C. relatively intact comprehension and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning.
D. relatively intact comprehension and nonfluent, labored speech.

A

A. impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning.

45
Q

According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment?
A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the persuasive message
B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the persuasive message
C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the persuasive message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message

A

D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message

46
Q

An organizational psych familiar with goal-setting theory is likely to tell a supervisor that having supervisees participate in setting their own performance goals will produce goals that are:
A. less realistic than the goals the supervisor would set alone.
B. the same in terms of difficulty as the goals the supervisor would set alone.
C. less difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.
D. more difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

A

D. more difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

47
Q

One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability is the presence of deficits in intellectual functioning. As described in the DSM-5, deficits are suggested by a score of about _____ or more standard deviations below the mean on an individualized, standardized intelligence test.
A. 1-1/2
B. 2
C. 2-1/2
D. 3

A

B. 2

48
Q

Parametric statistical tests are more “powerful” than nonparametric tests which means that, when using a parametric test, you’re more likely to:
A. retain a true null hypothesis.
B. reject a true null hypothesis.
C. retain a false null hypothesis.
D. reject a false null hypothesis.

A

D. reject a false null hypothesis

49
Q

According to some investigators, the acquisition of most aspects of hum dev have a ___ period. This means that these skills can be acquired most easily during a par period of time but can be acquired later -may be more difficult to do so.
A. sensitive
B. critical
C. relative refractory
D. absolute refractory

A

A. sensitive

50
Q

Your new client’s symptoms developed soon after the death of his wife, and you are trying to determine if they meet the criteria for MDD or uncomplicated bereavement. Which of the following sx is more consistent with uncomplicated bvmt?
A. The client’s feelings of emptiness and sadness have lasted for at least one month.
B. The client says he never experienced depressive symptoms before the death of his wife.
C. The client’s symptoms include an inability to anticipate happiness or pleasure.
D. The client’s depressive symptoms become worse whenever he thinks about his wife.

A

D. The client’s depressive symptoms become worse whenever he thinks about his wife.

51
Q

In a(n) ____________ interaction, one partner adopts a dominant “one-up” position while the other partner adopts a submissive “one-down” position.
A. closed
B. open
C. complementary
D. symmetrical

A

C. complementary

52
Q

You would use which of the following to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s predicted criterion score?
A. regression equation
B. multiple regression equation
C. standard error of measurement
D. standard error of estimate

A

D. standard error of estimate

53
Q

Members of quality circles (QCs):
A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products.
B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified.
C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.
D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and generate ideas about how to build on them.

A

B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified.

54
Q

Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesioning of which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys caused visual agnosia, reduced fear, increased docility, dietary changes, and abnormal sexual behavior.
A. medulla, hippocampus, and frontal lobes
B. medulla, hypothalamus, and frontal lobes
C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes
D. amygdala, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes

A

C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes

55
Q

The dopamine hypothesis attributes __________ to elevated levels of or oversensitivity to dopamine in certain areas of the brain.
A. depression
B. schizophrenia
C. ADHD
D. anorexia nervosa

A

B. schizophrenia

56
Q

A progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells in the __________ has been linked to Parkinson’s disease.
A. substantia nigra
B. reticular formation
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. amygdala

A

A. substantia nigra

57
Q

Electrical stimulation of a person’s ascending reticular activating system will have which of the following effects?
A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.
B. A sleeping person will have lucid dreams.
C. An awake person will engage in unconscious repetitive motor tics.
D. An awake person will experience a sense of deja vu.

A

A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.

58
Q

Sue + Sue (2015) propose that a White therapist with an internal locus of control + internal locus of responsibility is likely to encounter the most difficulties when working with clients from an ethnic/racial min grp who have an:
A. internal l of control + internal l of resp.
B. internal l of control + external l of resp.
C. external l of control + internal l of resp.
D. external l of control + external l of resp.

A

B. internal l of control + external l of resp.

59
Q

As described by Piaget, children in the heteronomous stage of moral reasoning base their judgments about a person’s behavior on which of the following?
A. the consequences of the behavior
B. the person’s intentions
C. what they would have done in the same situation
D. their familiarity with the behavior or situation

A

A. the consequences of the behavior

60
Q

Donna has a hx of taking a drug just before going for lab tests in order to produce abnormal lab results even though doing so does not result in an obvious external reward. The most likely dx is:
A. conversion disorder.
B. factitious disorder.
C. malingering.
D. somatic symptom disorder.

A

B. factitious disorder.

61
Q

On the MMPI-2, which of the following is suggested by a combination of elevated scores on scales 1 (Hs) and 3 (Hy) and a low score on scale 2 (D)?
A. passive-aggressive tendencies
B. immaturity and self-centeredness
C. somatization of psychological problems
D. exaggeration or faking of psychological problems

A

C. somatization of psychological problems

62
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the tendency of children and adolescents to seek experiences that reinforce their genetic predispositions?
A. range of reaction
B. canalization
C. adaptation
D. niche-picking

A

D. niche-picking

63
Q

Dr. M overhears Al, one of the interns she’s supervising, making disparaging remarks about people with addictions to a grp of frds on 2 sep occasions. However, Dr. M has never observed Al acting in an inappropriate way w/ clients who have any type of addiction and she hasn’t discussed what she overheard w/Al. When Al receives her performance eval, Dr. M has noted that one of the low ratings she assigned was due to her concern that Al is likely to have trouble working with clients who have an addiction. With regard to eth glines:
A. Dr. M’s evaluation is acceptable because of the unacceptability of the disparaging remarks Al made.
B. Dr. M’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it includes an explanation for her concerns about Al’s ability to work with clients who have an addiction.
C. Dr. M’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it was provided to Al in a timely manner and she’s willing to discuss her concerns with Al.
D. Dr. M’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Al’s actual performance as an intern.

A

D. Dr. M’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Al’s actual performance as an intern.

64
Q

Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy is based on the premise that ____________ leads to the development of a failure identity.
A. a boundary disturbance
B. irresponsible behavior
C. an unresolved intrapsychic conflict
D. incongruence between self and experience

A

B. irresponsible behavior

65
Q

Research evaluating the effectiveness of single-session psych debriefing as a tx for PTSD has found that it:
A. is a research-supported intervention for PTSD.
B. has beneficial effects only when it’s provided immediately after the individual has been exposed to a traumatic event.
C. is effective only when it’s provided by psychologists or other mental health professionals who have received adequate training in its use.
D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD sx.

A

D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD sx.

66
Q

The course of _____ varies and may involve an acute onset of sx or a stepwise or progressive decline in functioning with fluctuations in sx or plateaus of varying length.
A. vascular neurocognitive disorder
B. alcohol-induced neurocognitive disorder
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
D. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease

A

A. vascular neurocognitive disorder

67
Q

Krumboltz’s (1979) social learning theory of career decision-making identifies four factors that influence decision-making. Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors?
A. genetic endowment
B. environmental conditions and events
C. task approach skills
D. self-efficacy beliefs

A

D. self-efficacy beliefs

68
Q

The ______ helps maintain the body’s homeostasis by regulating body temp, fluid and electrolyte balance, BP, and other important functions.
A. thalamus
B. medulla
C. hypothalamus
D. caudate nucleus

A

C. hypothalamus

69
Q

The item discrimination index (D) provides info on how well a test item discriminates btn examinees who obtain a high/low score on the entire test. It ranges in value from:
A. 0 to +1.0
B. -1.0 to +1.0.
C. 0 to 100
D. -.50 to +.50

A

B. -1.0 to +1.0.

70
Q

Dr. F, an organizational psych, is hired by a company to develop new performance appraisal measures for maintenance technicians. Dr. F’s initial step in dev these measures will be to conduct a:
A. person analysis.
B. needs analysis.
C. job analysis.
D. job evaluation.

A

C. job analysis.

71
Q

Which of the following provides global scores that correspond to 2 theoretical models – the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and the Luria neuropsychological processing model?
A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition
B. Slosson Intelligence Test, Revised Third Edition
C. Cognitive Assessment System, Second Edition
D. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fourth Edition

A

A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition

72
Q

When two variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale and their relationship is nonlinear, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients to assess their degree of association?
A. Spearman rho
B. contingency
C. eta
D. biserial

A

C. eta

73
Q

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding debriefing research participants about the nature and results of a research study?
A. Participants must always be debriefed “as early as is feasible” after participation in a research study.
B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may not be necessary.
C. Participants must be debriefed only when there’s a chance they were psychologically or physically harmed by the research.
D. Participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when they were deceived about important aspects of the study.

A

B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may not be necessary.

74
Q

B. F. Skinner (1948) delivered food pellets to pigeons every 15 seconds regardless of their behavior. After a brief period of time, the pigeons began performing unusual behaviors such as bowing, turning, and hopping on one foot. Skinner referred to the pigeons’ unusual behaviors as:
A. experimental neurosis.
B. superstitious behaviors.
C. the result of one-trial learning.
D. the result of two-factor learning.

A

B. superstitious behaviors.

75
Q

Berscheid’s (1991) emotion-in-relationships model identifies which of the following as a cause of strong emotions in close relationships?
A. unexpected behaviors that interrupt usual behavioral routines
B. coercive interactions that gradually escalate over time
C. behaviors that fulfill each partner’s most prepotent needs
D. internal working models of acceptable and unacceptable behaviors

A

A. unexpected behaviors that interrupt usual behavioral routines

76
Q

Chronic __________ excitotoxicity has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, and several other neurodegenerative disorders.
A. acetylcholine
B. serotonin
C. glutamate
D. GABA

A

C. glutamate

77
Q

Following removal of his medial temporal lobes to treat severe epilepsy, the patient known as H. M. experienced which of the following?
A. an inability to recall recent and remote long-term memories
B. an inability to recall remote (but not recent) long-term memories
C. an inability to form new long-term declarative memories
D. an inability to form new procedural memories

A

C. an inability to form new long-term declarative memories

78
Q

Which of the following is true about the side effects of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and the tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce serious cardiovascular effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction.
B. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce serious cardiovascular effects.
C. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce cardiovascular effects and sexual dysfunction.
D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.

A

D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.

79
Q

According to Donald Super, the primary determinant of a person’s occupational choice is which of the following?
A. self-concept
B. dominant interest(s)
C. life experience
D. prepotent needs

A

A. self-concept

80
Q

Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression proposes that hopelessness is a proximal cause of depression and that a sense of hopelessness is the result of:
A. a lack of response contingent reinforcement.
B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.
C. depressogenic cognitive schemata.
D. deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

A

B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.

81
Q

Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?
A. basal ganglia
B. hypothalamus
C. amygdala
D. medulla

A

A. basal ganglia

82
Q

A(n) __________ therapist is most likely to agree that helping a client achieve awareness of his/her thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the here-and-now is a primary goal of therapy.
A. reality
B. Rogerian
C. interpersonal
D. Gestalt

A

D. Gestalt

83
Q

The self-serving bias is the tendency to:
A. attribute our successes to controllable factors and our failures to uncontrollable factors.
B. attribute our successes to dispositional factors and our failures to situational factors.
C. seek out information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that contradicts them.
D. bolster our self-esteem by focusing on our successes and minimizing or denying our failures.

A

B. attribute our successes to dispositional factors and our failures to situational factors.

84
Q

As described by Janis (1982), groupthink is most likely to occur in:
A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader.
B. heterogeneous groups that have a transformational leader.
C. highly cohesive groups that have a laissez faire leader.
D. autonomous groups that don’t have a designated leader.

A

A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader.

85
Q

Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model of working memory identifies which of the following as responsible for integrating new verbal and visual information?
A. sensory register
B. phonological loop
C. visuospatial sketchpad
D. episodic buffer

A

D. episodic buffer

86
Q

A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery that affects a patient’s dominant hemisphere is most likely to produce which of the following symptoms?
A. contralateral hemiparesis, mutism, apathy, confusion, and impaired judgment
B. contralateral homonymous hemianopia, unilateral cortical blindness, visual agnosia, and memory loss
C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia
D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect

A

C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia

87
Q

Researchers using the mirror task have found that most infants begin to recognize themselves in a mirror by about ____ months of age.
A. nine
B. twelve
C. fifteen
D. eighteen

A

D. eighteen

88
Q

According to Alfred Adler, which of the following is the major determinant of whether a person has a healthy or mistaken style of life?
A. social interest
B. self-efficacy
C. object relations
D. personal constructs

A

A. social interest

89
Q

When Asch (56) had subjects write estimates of the lgth of lines privately imm after doing so publicly in a grp, he found that their conformity dramatically decreased. This is evidence that the conformity the subjects exhibited making estimates publicly in the grp setting was the result of:
A. informational influence.
B. normative influence.
C. social inhibition.
D. social facilitation.

A

B. normative influence

90
Q

In a negatively skewed distribution of scores, the ______ is the lowest score and the ______ is the highest score.
A. mode; mean
B. mean; mode
C. median; mean
D. mean; median

A

B. mean; mode

91
Q

The symptoms of ____________ are sometimes mistaken for a bad case of influenza.
A. opioid withdrawal
B. stimulant withdrawal
C. phencyclidine intoxication
D. inhalant intoxication

A

A. opioid withdrawal

92
Q

The core components of transformational leadership include all of the following except:
A. individualized consideration.
B. idealized influence.
C. intellectual stimulation.
D. group consensus.

A

D. group consensus.

93
Q

To assign the DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder, the individual must be at least _____ years of age or at an equivalent developmental level.
A. three
B. six
C. nine
D. twelve

A

B. six

94
Q

Dr. O conducts a study to compare the effects of 3 tx’s (drug, relaxation, and drug plus relaxation) on the systolic BP of pts who have secondary hypertension as the result of 3 dif conditions (tobacco use, chronic alcohol use, or obesity). To analyze the main and interaction effects of tx and condition on systolic BP, use which of the following statistical tests?
A. chi-square test for multiple samples
B. t-test for independent samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. MANOVA

A

C. two-way ANOVA

95
Q

To compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean, you would use which of the following?
A. ANCOVA
B. one-way ANOVA
C. t-test for a single sample
D. single sample chi-square test

A

C. t-test for a single sample

96
Q

A newly promoted manager tells you that most of the employees he manages have high levels of motivation but lim skills, and he asks your advice abt the best mgmt style in this situation. As an advocate of ________, you recommend that he adopt a selling leadership style.
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

A

B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory

97
Q

Which of the following is considered the most effective way to control extraneous variables?
A. random selection of subjects from the population
B. random assignment of subjects to the different treatment groups
C. statistically removing their effects from the independent variable
D. statistically removing their effects from the dependent variable

A

B. random assignment of subjects to the different treatment groups

98
Q

The concordance rate for schizophrenia for non-twin siblings is:
A. 41%.
B. 23%.
C. 18%.
D. 9%.

A

D. 9%.

99
Q

To evaluate the inter-rater reliability of a test when scores or ratings on the test represent a nominal scale of measurement, you would use which of the following?
A. coefficient alpha
B. kappa coefficient
C. KR-20
D. Spearman-Brown

A

B. kappa coefficient

100
Q

The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of:
A. general mental ability.
B. work-related motivation.
C. occupational interests.
D. work-related integrity.

A

A. general mental ability.

101
Q

The job characteristics model (Hackman & Oldham, 1980) identifies 5 core job dimensions that affect worker motivation, satisfaction, and performance. Which of the following is NOT one of these dimensions?
A. feedback
B. task identity
C. autonomy
D. work engagement

A

D. work engagement

102
Q

The development of which of the following tests was based on Murray’s personality theory?
A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. Thematic Apperception Test
C. Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire
D. NEO Personality Inventory

A

B. Thematic Apperception Test

103
Q

A child with dyslexia whose reading problems significantly interfere with his academic performance and have not substantially improved with appropriate intervention would receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of:
A. learning disability.
B. language disorder.
C. reading disorder.
D. specific learning disorder.

A

D. specific learning disorder.

104
Q

The DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and one’s assigned gender for at least:
A. 12 months for children and six months for adolescents and adults.
B. 18 months for children and 12 months for adolescents and adults.
C. 12 months for children, adolescents, and adults.
D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

A

D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.