Learning Flashcards

1
Q

Pavlov found that a CS elicits:

A. a similar amount of salivation as the US regardless of the conditioning procedure used.

B. a slightly greater amount of salivation than the US when delay conditioning was used.

C. a smaller amount of salivation than the US regardless of the conditioning procedure used.

D. a smaller or larger amount of salivation than the US, depending on which conditioning procedure used.

A

C. a smaller amount of salivation than the US regardless of the conditioning procedure used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pavlov found that requiring dogs to make difficult discriminations between similar stimuli caused which of the following?

A. superstitious behavior

B. overshadowing

C. latent inhibition

D. experimental neurosis

A

D. experimental neurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

One explanation for __________ is that the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.

A. stimulus discrimination

B. blocking

C. latent inhibition

D. higher-order conditioning

A

B. blocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When using second-order conditioning:

A. the CS acts as a US.

B. the US acts as a CS.

C. the CS is presented with more than one US.

D. stimuli similar to the original CS are paired with the US.

A

A. the CS acts as a US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The most effective conditioning procedure is __________ conditioning.

A. simultaneous

B. backward

C. delay

D. trace

A

C. delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To eliminate a client’s nail-biting, a therapist instructs her to paint her nails with a foul-tasting substance. The therapist is using which of the following interventions?

A. aversion therapy

B. implosive therapy

C. reciprocal inhibition

D. covert sensitization

A

A. aversion therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Davidson and Parker’s (2001) meta-analysis of the research suggests that the effectiveness of EMDR is due to:

A. replacement of dysfunctional thoughts with more adaptive ones.

B. the acquisition of adequate coping skills.

C. replacement of the fear response with an incompatible response.

D. repeated exposure in imagination to the feared object or event.

A

D. repeated exposure in imagination to the feared object or event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Research using the dismantling strategy has found that __________ is responsible for the beneficial effects of systematic desensitization.

A. reciprocal inhibition

B. response prevention

C. extinction

D. higher-order conditioning

A

C. extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When using covert sensitization, the client’s image of:

A. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a scene that naturally elicits relaxation.

B. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible and undesirable response.

C. a feared stimulus is embellished by the therapist with psychodynamic themes.

D. a feared stimulus is embellished with a “relief scene.”

A

B. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible and undesirable response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When using implosive therapy, the client’s image of:

A. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a scene that naturally elicits relaxation.

B. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible and undesirable response.

C. a feared stimulus is embellished by the therapist with psychodynamic themes.

D. a feared stimulus is embellished with a “relief scene.”

A

C. a feared stimulus is embellished by the therapist with psychodynamic themes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

As described by Albert Bandura (1986), observational learning involves four processes, which include all of the following except:

A. motivation.

B. attention.

C. retention.

D. preparation.

A

D. preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Thomas just started his new job as a neuropsych. During his internship, he was told to say “good job” whenever a patient performed well on a section or item of a neuropsychological test. However, during the orientation for his new position, the head clinical neuropsych told him to give patients FB only at the end of the testing session. During his first neuropsych eval at his new job, Thomas says “good job” whenever the pt gives the correct or preferred answer. This illustrates which of the following?

A. retroactive interference

B. proactive interference

C. the primacy effect

D. the recency effect

A

B. proactive interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Miller (1956) proposed that the capacity of short-term memory is fixed at __________ bits of information.

A. 7 +/- 2

B. 9 +/- 2

C. 7 +/- 3

D. 9 +/- 3

A

A. 7 +/- 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When using an acronym to memorize a list of words, you create:

A. a sentence using words that each start with the first letter of a different word in the list.

B. a word or pronounceable non-word from the first letter of each word in the list.

C. a visual image that links each word to a different object in a familiar location.

D. a visual image that links each word to another word in the word list.

A

B. a word or pronounceable non-word from the first letter of each word in the list.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

As described by Baddeley (2000), the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad are components of __________ memory.

A. procedural

B. prospective

C. working

D. sensory

A

C. working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The distinction between which of the following has been used to explain the serial position effect?

A. retrospective and prospective memory

B. iconic and echoic memory

C. short- and long-term memory

D. secondary and tertiary memory

A

C. short- and long-term memory

17
Q

The Deese-Roediger-McDermott (DRM) procedure is used to study:

A. priming.

B. forgetting.

C. working memory.

D. false memory.

A

D. false memory

18
Q

Which of the following reinforcement schedules is likely to produce the fastest rate of acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction?

A. fixed ratio

B. variable ratio

C. fixed interval

D. variable interval

A

B. variable ratio

19
Q

Whenever Charlie, a chronic user of an opioid drug, stops taking the drug, he quickly develops withdrawal symptoms and starts taking the drug again. In this situation, Charlie’s drug use is being maintained by which of the following?

A. positive punishment

B. negative punishment

C. positive reinforcement

D. negative reinforcement

A

D. negative reinforcement

20
Q

A behavior that’s acquired as the result of avoidance conditioning is not likely to extinguish because it’s being:

A. maintained by positive reinforcement.

B. maintained by negative reinforcement.

C. reinforced on a variable ratio schedule.

D. reinforced on a variable interval schedule.

A

B. maintained by negative reinforcement.

21
Q

With regard to stimulus control, a negative discriminative stimulus:

A. is a secondary reinforcer.

B. is a backup reinforcer.

C. signals that a behavior will not be reinforced.

D. signals that a behavior will be followed by negative (but not positive) punishment.

A

C. signals that a behavior will not be reinforced.

22
Q

The matching law is useful for understanding the effects of rate of reinforcement on:

A. rate of responding.

B. susceptibility to extinction.

C. stimulus discrimination.

D. stimulus generalization.

A

A. rate of responding.

23
Q

Differential reinforcement combines:

A. stimulus control and positive reinforcement.

B. stimulus control and negative reinforcement.

C. extinction and positive reinforcement.

D. extinction and negative reinforcement.

A

C. extinction and positive reinforcement.

24
Q

Access to a preferred activity is contingent on performance of a less preferred activity when using which of the following?

A. response cost

B. differential reinforcement

C. Premack principle

D. chaining

A

C. Premack principle

25
Q

The two forms of overcorrection are:

A. restitution and positive practice.

B. restitution and graded practice.

C. shaping and positive practice.

D. shaping and graded practice.

A

A. restitution and positive practice.

26
Q

In a facility for adults with schizophrenia, patients earn tokens when they engage in desirable behaviors and lose tokens when they engage in undesirable behaviors. Losing tokens is an example of which of the following?

A. differential reinforcement

B. Premack principle

C. secondary reinforcement

D. response cost

A

D. response cost

27
Q

A rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food by first providing food when it’s facing the lever, then only when it’s facing the lever and is close to it, then only when it’s facing the lever and is next to it, then only when it touches the lever with its paw, and then only when it presses the lever. The technique being used to train the rat to press the lever is which of the following?

A. chaining

B. shaping

C. discrimination training

D. differential reinforcement

A

B. shaping