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Microbiology 101 > Ch 6-12 TEST 2 > Flashcards

Ch 6-12 TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred temperature range for a Psychrophile?

A

Psychrophiles 10C - 20C

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2
Q

What is the preferred temperature range for Psychotroph?

A

Psychotroph 0 to 20-30 C

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3
Q

What is the preferred temperature range for a Mesophiles?

A

Mesophiles 25 to 40 C

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4
Q

What PH range do most bacteria grown in?

A

PH 6.5 & 7.5

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5
Q

What PH range do most molds grow in?

A

PH 5 & 6

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6
Q

Explain the importance of osmotic pressure to microbial growth.

A

Since cells are made up of 80-90% water, if placed in a solution that is hypertonic (high salt/sugar), the cell will go under plasmolysis, which is osmotic loss of water from the cell. This would stop the growth of the microbe & vice versa in a hypotonic solution which could cause lysis.

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7
Q

What is carbon used for in microbial growth?

A

Energy source - they are structural organic molecules.

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8
Q

What microorganisms use organic carbon sources, & what are they?

A

Chemoherterotrophs - use carbohydrates, proteins & lipids.

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9
Q

What microorganisms use Carbon Dioxide for energy?

A

Chemoautotrophs - use CO2

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10
Q

What temperature is ideal for human pathogenic bacteria to grow & is ideal for a mesophilic?

A

37 C

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11
Q

What type of bacteria grows in an acidic environment?

A

Acidophiles

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12
Q

What makes up a Hypertonic Environment & what is it used for?

A

High salt & sugar concentrated - causes plasmolysis. It’s ued to preserve foods (honey, jams, meat)

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13
Q

What is a good example of a hypotonic solution?

A

Distilled water, water enters the cell & may cause lysis (cell wall to rupture) if it is weak.

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14
Q

Where is nitrogen located in a microbe?

A

In amino acids, DNA & RNA.

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15
Q

Where is Sulfur located in a microbe?

A

In amino acids, thiain & biotin.

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16
Q

Where is Phosphorus located in a microbe?

A

In DNA, RNA, ATP & membranes (phospholipids).

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17
Q

What could be a trace element in a microbe?

A

Usually as an enzyme cofactor they are: potassium, calcium, magnesium, iron, copper & zinc.

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18
Q

What is an obligate aerobe?

A

Requires oxygen

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19
Q

What is an facultative aerobe?

A

Grows with or w/o oxygen, but grows better w/ the oxygen present

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20
Q

What is an obligate anaerobe?

A

Cannot grow in presence of oxygen.

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21
Q

How do aerobes avoid damage by toxic forms of oxygen?

A

By using enzymes to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen. Superoxide free radical - dismutase. Peroxide anion - catalyse & peroxidase.

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22
Q

What is the formation of biofilms?

A
  1. Microbial Communities 2. Form slime/hydrogels 3. Attached to a surface 3.Share Nutrients
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23
Q

Why are biofilms potential causes for infection?

A

Because they work as a small community, they are shelted from harmful factors due to their slime layer. They are more resistant to microbes & they are prone to forming on indwelling medical devices.

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24
Q

What is chemically defined media?

A

Exact chemical composition is known

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25
Q

What is complex media?

A

Composition of nutrient varies: Composed of extracts of yeasts, meat or plants. *nutrient broth *nutrient agar

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26
Q

What is a culture medium?

A

Nutrient material prepared for microbial growth. Contains all nutrients required for microbial growth. Must be sterile (no living microbes)

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27
Q

Describe the characteristics of Agar.

A
  1. Complex polysaccharide from algea 2. used as solidifying agent for culture media in Petri Plates & Slants 3. Generally not metabolized by microbes. 4. Liquefies @ 100 C 5. Solidifies at -40C
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28
Q

Why do you use anaerobic technique?

A

to grow anaerobes

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29
Q

Why do you use Selective Media?

A

to suppress unwanted microbes

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30
Q

Why do you use Differential Media?

A

to distinguish between different microbes

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31
Q

Why do you use enrichment media?

A

to encourage growth of a microbe.

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32
Q

What is a pure culture?

A

contains only one species or strain

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33
Q

What is a colony?

A

Is a population of cells arising from a single cell, spore, or from a group of attached cells.

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34
Q

Why is a streak plate method used?

A

To isolate pure cultures.

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35
Q

What is the temp range for deep freezing?

A

-50C to -95C - it restricts growth

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36
Q

What is the temp & purpose of Lyophilization?

A

(freeze drying) -54 C to -72C - & it dehydrates the cells in a vacuum to restrict growth.

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37
Q

What are methods of reproduction of Bacteria?

A
  1. Binary fission - normal method. 2. Budding 3. Conidiospores 4. Fragmentation of filaments
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38
Q

What are the 4 phases of microbial growth?

A
  1. Lag phase (preparing for growth, but not production) 2. Log phase (binary fission, exponential growth) 3. Stationary Phase (equal growth & dying) 4. Dying phase (dying exponentially)
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39
Q

What are 4 methods of measuring cell growth?

A
  1. Serial dilutions 2. Pour Plate Method 3. Spread plate method 4. Filtration
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40
Q

What are direct methods for measuring cell growth?

A
  1. Plate counts 2. filtration 3. direct microscope count
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41
Q

What are indirect methods of measuring cell growth?

A
  1. Turbidity 2. Metabolic activity 3. Dry Weight
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42
Q

Sterilization

A

Removal of all microbial life

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43
Q

Commercial sterilization

A

Klling C. Boulinum endospores

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44
Q

Disinfection

A

Removal of pathogens (vegetative)

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45
Q

Antisepsis

A

Removal of pathogens from living tissue

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46
Q

Degerming

A

Mechanical removal of microbes from a limited area ( alcohol swab )

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47
Q

Sanitization

A

Lower microbial counts to safe public health levels & minimize disease transmission (eg eating utensils)

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48
Q

Biocide/Germicide

A

Treatments that kill microbes

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49
Q

Bacteriostasis

A

Treatments that inhibit, not kill, microbes.

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50
Q

Sepsis

A

refers to microbial contamintation

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51
Q

Asepsis

A

absence of significant contamination

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52
Q

Aseptic

A

an object or area is free of pathogens

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53
Q

Aseptic techniques

A

Techniques to minimize contamination (eg surgical instruments, operating personnel, patient)

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54
Q

At what rate do microbes die?

A

90%/ min

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55
Q

What are factors that influence the effectiveness of anitmicrobial?

A
  1. The # of microbes 2. Environmental Influences 3. Time of exposure 4. Microbial characteristics
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56
Q

What determines how well an antimicrobial treatment works?

A

The # of microbes influences the effectiveness of the antimicrobial treatment. ** The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

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57
Q

How do agents kill or inhibit microbes?

A
  1. Alteration of membrane permeability (damage lipids or protein components) 2. Damage Proteins 3. Damage to Nucleic acids (DNA & RNA).
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58
Q

What are types of physical methods of microbial control?

A
  1. Heat - Moist, pasteurization & dry heat sterilization 2. Filtration 3. Low Temperature 4. High Pressure 5. Desiccation 6. Osmotic Pressure 7.Radiation
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59
Q

Thermal death point (TDP) (from heat)

A

Lowest temperature at which all cells in a culture are killed in 10 min

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60
Q

Thermal death time (TDT) (from heat)

A

Time during which all cells in a culture are killed

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61
Q

Decimal Reduction time (DRT)

A

Minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature

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62
Q

How does moist heat work?

A

It denaturation (coagulation) of proteins

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63
Q

Boiling

A

Does not kill endospores or some viruses

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64
Q

Autoclaving

A

Steam under pressure, temp. above boiling water (121 C) *sterilizes

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65
Q

Steam Sterilization

A

Steam MUST contact item’s surface

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66
Q

Pasteurization

A

Reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens; used for dairy products. Uses high temps @ short time *72C for 15 secs *Thermoduric organisms survive (usually not pathogenic)

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67
Q

Ultra high Temperature

A

sterilizes *heat to 140 C for 4 secs

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68
Q

Dry Heat

A

Sterilization kills by oxidation *Flaming *Incineration *Hot-Air sterilization (oven) requires longer time

69
Q

Filtration

A

HEPA - Removes microbes >0.3 um 2.) Membrane Filtration- Removes microbes >0.22 um *used for heat sensitive materials (vaccines, antibiotics)

70
Q

Low temperature

A

inhibits microbial growth. *Refrigeration (0-7C) *Deep Freezing (<-2 C)

71
Q

High Pressure

A

Endospore Resistant

72
Q

Desiccation (removing water)

A

Prevents metabolism *microbes remain viable, endospores & viruses resistant

73
Q

What are 3 types of Radation?

A

Ionizing Radiation, Non-ionizing Radiation, Microwaves

74
Q

Ionizing Radiation

A

High Energy (X rays, gamma rays, electron beams) *Damages DNA; sterilizes

75
Q

Non-Ionizing Radiation (UV)

A

Lower Energy- That ionizing radiation *damages DNA

76
Q

Microwaves

A

Kill by moist heat, not very antimicrobial

77
Q

What are the principles of Effective Disinfection?

A
  1. Susceptibility of microbes 2. Concentration of disinfectant 3. Organic matter that may interfere with disinfectant 4. pH of medium 5. Contact with Microbes 6. Time
78
Q

What is the disk-diffusion method?

A

A disk is filled in a chemical agent, placed on inoculated plate, incubated and evaluated for a clear zone around disk.

79
Q

Type of Disinfectant: Phenol & it’s 2 derivatives

A

Phenol is a carbolic acid: antibacterial. 2 Derivatives: 1. Phenolics (cresols) - Lysol 2. Bisphenois - Hexacholorphene (pHisoHex) & Triclosan

80
Q

Type of Disinfectant: Biguanides

A

**Not sterilizing *not effective against endospores, mycobacteria, protozoan cysts, unenveloped viruses. 1. Surgical hand scrubs & pre-op skin preps in patients 2. Chlorhexidine, Avagard

81
Q

Type of Disinfectants: Halogens

A

Effective against bacteria, endospores, fungi & some viruses

82
Q

Iodine

A

halogen 1. Tinctures - Aqueous alcohol 2. Lodophor - Combined w/ organic molecules *do not stain & are less irritating

83
Q

Chlorine

A

Halogen Oxidizing Agents 1. Bleach - hypochlorous acid (HOCL) 2. Chloramine: Chlorine & Ammonia

84
Q

Alcohols

A

Ethanol, isopropanol (70%) 1. Require water 2. Denature Proteins, dissolve lipids 3. Not effective against endospores & nonenveloped viruses **non Sterilizing*

85
Q

Type of Disinfectants: Heavy Metals

A

Ag (silver) Hg (mercury) Cu (copper) & Zn (zinc) *inhibits growth of microbes (ex 1% silver nitrate drops in newborn eyes, silver-sulfadiazine - topical cream for burns

86
Q

Type of Disinfectants: Surface-active agents or surfactants

A

Disrupts plasma membrane 1. Soap (emulsifier) - degerming 2. Detergents- Sanitizing 3. Quaternary ammonium compounds (Quats) - Bactericidal (not all) 4. Zephiran- Cepacol

87
Q

Chemical Food Preservatives - Name 3

A
  1. Sulfur Dioxide - Used in Wine Making, dried Fruit 2. Organic Acids - Inhibit metabolism *potassium sorbate, sodium benzoate, calcium propionate 3. Nitrate - prevents endospore germination; used in meat products
88
Q

Antibiotics

A

Used in food preservation *nisin & natamycin prevent spoilage of cheese

89
Q

Aldehydes

A

Among the most effective antimicrobials - inactivate proteins, used for medical equipment, embalming…

  1. Formaldehyde (formalin) 2. Glutaraldehyde - sterilizing 3. Ortho-pthalaldehyde - sterilizing
90
Q

Gaseous Chemosterilizers

A

Ethylene Oxide - Use: sterilizing medical supplies

91
Q

Plasma

A

Sterilizes 1. Free radicals destroy microbes 2. Use: tubular medical instruments

92
Q

Super-critical Fluids

A

Sterilizes 1. CO2 w/ gaseous & liquid properties 2. Use: Medical Implants

93
Q

Peroxygens

A

Oxidizing Agents such as: 1.) O3 (ozone) - used in water treatment 2. )H2O2 (hydrogen Peroxide) - not an effective antiseptic on open wounds due to catalase in human cells; used for contaminated surfaces. 3.) Peracetic Acid - A sterilant; used in food-processing & medical equipment

94
Q

What is Taxonomy

A

The science of classifying organisms, provides universal names for organisms, provides a reference for identifying organisms

95
Q

What is Systematics or phylogeny

A

The study of the evolutionary history of organisms

96
Q

What type of microbes are found in the domain Archaea

A

Prokaryotes that do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. They live in extreme environments & carry unusual metabolic processes.

97
Q

What type of microbes are found in the domain Bacteria?

A

Pathogenic Prokaryotes & nonpathogenic prokaryotes found in soil & water, Photoautrophic prokaryotes

98
Q

What type of microbes are found in the domain Eukarya?

A

Animals, Plants & Fungi

99
Q

What are the characteristics of Archaea?

A

Cell Type: Prokaryotic
Cell Wall: Varies in composition; contains no peptidoglycan
Membrane Lipids: Branched carbon chains attached to glycerol by ether linkage
First Amino Acids in Protein Synthesis: Methionine
Antibiotic Sensitivity: No

100
Q

What are the characteristics of the Bacteria?

A

Cell Type: Prokaryotic
Cell Wall: Contains Peptidoglycan
Membrane Lipids: Straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage
First Amino Acids in Protein Synthesis: Formylmethionine
Antibiotic Sensitivity: Yes

101
Q

What are the characteristics of Eukarya?

A

Cell Type: Eukaryotic
Cell Wall: Varies in compositions; contains carbs
Membrane lipids: straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage
First amino acid present in protein synthesis: Methionine
Antibiotic sensitivity: no

102
Q

What is grouping organisms according to common properties implying that a group of organisms evolved from a common ancestor?

A

Phylogenetics

103
Q

In Phylogenetics, each species retains some characteristics of its ancestor such as:

A
  1. Anatomy 2. Fossils 3. rRNA; DNA
104
Q

Define Eukaryotic Species

A

A group of closely related organisms that breed among themselvs

105
Q

Define Prokaryotic Species

A

A population of cells with similar characteristics

106
Q

Define Viral Species

A

Population of viruses with similar characteristics that occupies a particular ecological niche

107
Q

What is Clone

A

Population of cells derived from a single cell

108
Q

What is Strain

A

Genetically different cells within a species

109
Q

In the domain Eukarya, what are the characteristics of Animalia?

A

Multicellular
No cell walls
Chemoheterotrophic

110
Q

In the domain Eukarya, what are the characteristics of Plantae?

A

Multicellular
Cellulose cell walls
Usually photoautotrophic

111
Q

In the domain Eukarya, what are the characteristics of Fungi?

A

Unicellular OR Multicellular
Cell walls of Chitin
Develop from spores or hyphal fragments

112
Q

Which of the following characteristics describe the domain bacteria?

A

Prokaryotic Cells

113
Q

To which kingdom do molds belong?

A

Fungi

114
Q

What is classification?

A

Placing organisms in groups of related species. Lists of characteristics of known organisms.

115
Q

What is Identification?

A

Matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms. *Clinical Lab Identification

116
Q

What are the 3 Identification methods?

A
  1. Morphological characteristic: useful for identifying eukarytoes
  2. Differential staining: Gram OR acid-fast staining 3. Biochemical tests: Determines presence of bacterial enzymes
117
Q

What is Serology & what are 4 ways of testing?

A

Def: combines known antiserum plus unknown bacterium

  1. Slide Agglutination Test
  2. ELISA
  3. Western Blot
  4. Flow Cytometry
118
Q

Describe the serological test ELISA

A
  1. use known antibodies & unknown bacterium or virus
  2. If antibodies bind to bacterium/virus, a colored reaction occures
  3. Examples - HIV test
119
Q

Describe the serological test Western Blot

A
  1. Identifies antibodies in a patient’s serum
  2. Proteins of a known bacterium or virus separated by electrophoresis (electric current)
  3. Patient’s serum added. if patients has antibodies, they will combine with the bacterial/virus protiens.
  4. Ex: HIV infection; Lyme Disease
120
Q

What is Phage Typing

A

A test for determining bacterial susceptibility to phages (bacterial viruses)

  1. Areas of clearing (plaques) indicate bacterial lysis due to infecting phage
  2. Used to trace source of infection
121
Q

What of Flow Cytometry and why is it useful?

A

Def: Identifies bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria

  1. Cells are selectively stained with antibody plus fluorescent dye
  2. Useful for gaining quick knowledge to see if something is contaminated/carrying a microbe that may be undesirable, such as Listeria in Milk.
122
Q

What is DNA Fingerprinting

A

Compares DNA sequences between organisms.

123
Q

What is Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

Increase amount of DNA, then run on elctrophoresis gel.

124
Q

Identify bacteria that or obligate intracellular parasites

A
  1. Rickettsia & Ehrlichia (gram -)
    Can be transferred by tick bites
    Reproduce only in a mammalian cell
125
Q

What is bartonella?

A

a cat-scratch disease

126
Q

What is Brucella

A
  1. obligate parasites of mammals

2. Survives phagocytosis

127
Q

What Bacteria have an extraordinary nutritional spectrum and are common hospital contaminants?

A
  1. Burkholderia cepacia (G-)
    - contaminates hospital equipment, disinfectants, drugs
    - causes infections in CF patients
  2. Bordetella pertussis (G-): whooping cough
128
Q

What are the characteristics of Neisseria?

A
  1. Aerobic cocci
  2. Usually inhabits mucous membranes of mammals
    a. Neisseria Meningitidis or N. Gonorrhoeae
    (all G-)
129
Q

What are the characteristics of Francisella?

A

Grow only on complex media w/ blood or tissue extracts (G-)

130
Q

What are the characteristics of Pseudomonadales?

A
  1. Pseudomonas:
    a. metabolically diverse
    b. Can grow on soap & antiseptics (Quats)
    c. Resistant to most antibiotics due to porins & efflux pumps
    d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: an opportunistic pathogen
    (G-)
131
Q

What are the characteristics of Legionellales?

A
  1. Legionella - found in streams, warm water pipes, cooling towers *can be difficult to eradicate
  2. Coxiella - intracellular parasite - produce a spore like body
    G-
132
Q

What are the characteristics of Vibrionales?

A
  1. Vibrio: comma shapped rod; found in aquatic habitats, anaerobic
    a. Vibrio cholerae: cholera (watery diarrhea)
    b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus: gastroenteritis
    *in raw or under-cooked shellfish
    (G-)
133
Q

What are the characteristics of Enterobacteriales and the bacteria classified under it (called enterics)?

A

(enterics) : inhabit intestines of humans & other animals; peritrichous flagella; facultative anaerobic rods; sex pili
- Escherichia
- Salmonella
- Shigella
- Klebsiella
- Serratia
- Proteus
- Yersinia
- Enterobacter (all G-)

134
Q

What are the characteristics of Pasteurellales?

A

nonmotile,
Pastuerella multocida- causes pneumonia & septicemia; transmitted to humans by dog & cat bites
Haemophilus - inhabts the mucous membranes; requires X (heme) & V (NAD+, NADP+) factors
(G-)

135
Q

What are the characteristics of Camplyobacter?

A

Microaerophilic vibrios (curved rods)
1. Campylobacter jejuni causes gastroenteritis
(G-)

136
Q

What are the characteristics of Helicobacter?

A

Microaerophilic vibrios (curved rods)
1. Helicobacter pylori causes peptic ulcers & stomach cancer
(G-)

137
Q

Describe the endospore forming bacteria.

A 
Clostridium
1. has endospore producing rods
2. Obligate anaerobes
3. Very resistant - includes diseases like tetanus
Bacillus: Endospore producing rods
(G+)
138
Q

Describe staphylococcus

A

Grape like clusters of cocci, facultative anaerobes (G+)

139
Q

Describe the characteristics of Streptococcus

A
  1. forms chains of cocci
    a. responsible for largest variety of dz’s
    b. Beta-hemolytic streptococci: produces hemolysin (clear zone on blood agar plates)
    c. S. pygenes & S. agalactiae
  2. Alpha-Hemolytic streptococci: greenin on blood agar
    a. S. pneumonia
140
Q

Describe the characteristics of lactobacillus

A

Found in vagina, intestinal tracts & oral cavity

141
Q

Describe the characteristics of enterococcus

A

Reside ins GI Tract, vagina, & oral cavity.

1. E. faecalis & E. faecium: surgical wounds & UTIS

142
Q

Describe the characteristics of Listeria

A
  1. L. monocytogenes: dairy food contaminant
    a. survives in phagocytes; can grow at fridge temps
    b. Can harm fetuses
143
Q

Describe the characteristics of Mycoplasmatales (mycoplasma)

A
  1. Wall-less, pleomorphic, produce filaments
  2. 0.1 - 0.25 um (smellest cells), able to pass through filters
  3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
144
Q

Mycobacterium

A

Acid fast due to waxy, water resistant outer layer; M. tuberculosis
(Actinobacteria: produces filaments, G+)

145
Q

Streptomyces

A

produces antibiotics

146
Q

Nocardia

A

acid fast (actinobacteria: produces filaments, G+)

147
Q

What are the characteristics of Chlamydiae?

A
  1. No peptidoglycan in cell wall
  2. Grow intracellularly
  3. Unique developmental cycle, produce infective agent; elementary body (which speaks to other cells)
    a. Chlamydia; Chlamydophila
148
Q

What are the characteristics of Spirochetes?

A
  1. Helical; axial filaments (endoflagella) used for motility (corkscrew)
    a. Teponema, Borrelia, Leptospira
149
Q

What are bacteroidetes?

A

Bacteroides: found in mouth & large intestine of humans

a. peritonities

150
Q

List factors that contribute to the limits of our knowledge of microbial diversity.

A
  1. PCR indicates up to 10,000 bacterial types/gm of soil
  2. 5,000 bacterial species described, may be millions
  3. Many bacteria have not been identified or characterized because they:
    a. haven’t been cultured
    b. need special nutrients
    c. Are a part of complex food chains requiring the products of other bacteria
    c. need to be cultured to understand their metabolism & ecological role
151
Q

What are the defining characteristics of Fungi?

A

Kingdom: Fungi
Nutritional type: chemoheterotroph
Cellularity: Multicellular, except yeasts
Food Acquisition method: Absorptive
Characteristic features: Sexual & asexual spores

152
Q

What is hyphea & thallus?

A

The thallus is the body, which can consist of haphae. Haphae are long filaments of cells joined together. They can be a septale hypha (filaments with septums), coencytic hypha (one filament not separated) or growht of a hypha from a spore.
A mass of hyphae is a mycelium

153
Q

Yeasts are

A

Unicellular fungi

154
Q

What is dimorphic fungi?

A

Fungus that can grow as mold or yeast (can do both).

  1. Yeastlike @ 37 C
  2. Moldlike @ 25 C
155
Q

What are spores?

A

They are formed for both sexual and asexual reproduction - therefore they are unlike bacterial endospores.
- most spores do not exhibit extreme tolerance and longevity of bacterial endospores.

156
Q

What are the nutritional adaptations of fungi?

A
  1. Grow at pH 5, too acidic for most bacteria
  2. Almost all molds are aerobic. Most yeast are anaerobic.
  3. Most resistant to osmotic pressure than bacteria - can grow in high sugar/salt concent.
  4. Can grow on substances with very low moisture content
  5. Can metabolize complex carbs
157
Q

List medically important phyla of fungi

A
  1. Rhizpous
  2. Mucor
  3. Aspergillus
  4. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  5. Histoplasma capsulatum
  6. Microsporum
  7. Trichophyton
  8. Epidermophyton
  9. Penicillim
  10. Sporothrix
  11. Stachybotrys
  12. Coccidioides
  13. Pneumocystis
  14. Candida albican
  15. cryptococcus neoformans
158
Q

What are the characteristics of michrosporidia?

A

No mitochondira
Intracellular parasites
Nonmotile
- Nosema

159
Q

What are some fungal diseases (mycoses)

A
  1. Systemic mycoses: deep within body
  2. Subcutaneous mycoses: beneath the skin
  3. Cutaneous mycoses: affect hair, skin & nails
  4. Superficial mycoses: localized (hair shafts)
  5. Opportunistic mycoses: caused by normal microbiota or environmental fungi
  6. Yeast infection (candidiasis) - Candia albicans
160
Q

What are the economic effects of fungi?

A
  1. Helps create bread, wine, HBV Vaccine through Saccharomyces cerevisiae (looks like cervesa/beer in spanish)
  2. Taxomyces: Taxol
161
Q

All of the following are fungi except? A. molds B. mushrooms C. toxoplasma D. penicillium

A

C. Toxoplasma

162
Q

What are the characteristics of algea?

A

Kingdom: Protist
Nutritional Type: Photoautogroph
Cellularity: Unicellular, some multicellular

163
Q

Describe the characteristics of Diatoms

A
  1. Pectin & silica cell walls
  2. Unicellular
  3. Produce domoic acid
    a. toxin that concentrates in mussels
    b. ingestion causes diarrhea & memory loss
164
Q

What are some fungal diseases (mycoses)

A
  1. Systemic mycoses: deep within body
  2. Subcutaneous mycoses: beneath the skin
  3. Cutaneous mycoses: affect hair, skin & nails
  4. Superficial mycoses: localized (hair shafts)
  5. Opportunistic mycoses: caused by normal microbiota or environmental fungi
  6. Yeast infection (candidiasis) - Candia albicans
165
Q

What are the economic effects of fungi?

A
  1. Helps create bread, wine, HBV Vaccine through Saccharomyces cerevisiae (looks like cervesa/beer in spanish)
  2. Taxomyces: Taxol
166
Q

All of the following are fungi except? A. molds B. mushrooms C. toxoplasma D. penicillium

A

C. Toxoplasma

167
Q

What are the characteristics of algea?

A

Kingdom: Protist
Nutritional Type: Photoautogroph
Cellularity: Unicellular, some multicellular

168
Q

Describe the characteristics of Diatoms

A
  1. Pectin & silica cell walls
  2. Unicellular
    3.
169
Q

Describe dinoflagellates

A
  1. Unicellular
  2. Alexandrium products neurotoxins (saxitoxins)
    • cause paralytic shellfish poisoning
      Looks like a diamond shield, almost beetle like

Microbiology 101 (6 decks)

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