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RTC 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A Stabilised Approach is defined as:

A

An approach which is flown in a controlled and appropriate manner in terms of configuration, energy and control of the flight path from a pre-determined point or altitude to landing

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2
Q

After being intercepted during the day, the intercepting aircraft circles an aerodrome, lowering its landing gear and over flies the runway in the direction of landing. This means:

A

Land at this aerodrome

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3
Q

After being intercepted, the intercepting aircraft abruptly breaks away by climbing turning 90 degrees or more away from the path of your aircraft. This means:

A

You may proceed

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4
Q

Aircraft is traveling at 150kts GS and with a rate of descent of 775 fpm. What is the aircraft descent gradient?

A

5.1%

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5
Q

An aircraft losing two-way communication with ATC shall squawk?

A

7600

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6
Q

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall:

Select one:

a. Squawk 7600 and attempt contact on 121.50MHz

b. Not change Squawk but shall attempt contact on the current assigned frequency

c. Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 MHz

A

c. Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 MHz

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7
Q

An IFR flight shall not be flown below the minimum flight altitude established by the State concerned, or where no such minimum is established, over high terrain or in mountainous areas the level will be?

A

2000ft where the obstacle is within 5m(8km) and elsewhere 1000ft within the same radius

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8
Q

An intercepting aircraft shall normally position itself relative to the intercepted aircraft:

A

Slightly above, ahead and to the left

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9
Q

Communication Failure. The following is true when “Transmitting Blind”:

A

Transmit all messages twice with the prefix “Transmitting Blind” and include the addressee for which the message is intended

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10
Q

Which of the following is true regarding communication failure?

Select one:

a. All countries have different procedures.

b. Different countries may have a different procedure.

c. All countries have the same procedure.

A

b. Different countries may have a different procedure.

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11
Q

Communication Failure: On take-off from Dublin you experience a radio failure. You do maintain…

A

…the last assigned level for 3 mins then continue with the flight plan

(Special Dublin procedure on chart)

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12
Q

Communication Failure: What is the ICAO/EUR procedure if you experience a radio failure under radar controlled airspace?

A

Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher for a period of 7 minutes

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13
Q

Emergency procedure: The pilot of an aircraft encountering a state of emergency shall squawk

A

7700

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14
Q

GPS/GNSS approaches are:

Select one:

a. Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance

b. Not currently approved for our aircraft

c. Are permitted provided the aircraft has a single FMC

A

a. Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance

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15
Q

Hijack: An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference shall squawk?

A

7500

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16
Q

ICAO Runway Markings: The ‘Aiming Point Markings’ are located at:

Select one:

a. 1,000 feet from the threshold when the runway is >= 2200m and 700 feet for a runway < 2200m but >=1000m

b. 400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m

c. 311 metres from the threshold in all cases

A

b. 400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m

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17
Q

If asked by ATC to hold at FL80 at a present position hold, what is the maximum speed and time you can hold at in non-turbulent conditions?

A

1 min legs / 230kts

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18
Q

Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) provides:

A

1000 ft obstacle / terrain clearance within 25nm radius of the navigation facility

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19
Q

Navtech SID clearance reads: ‘At or Above FL080; Climb 6000ft, at CALTA cleared FL080’. What altitude is set in the MCP window?

A

6000

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20
Q

On a NPA approach, within how many degrees of the inbound track should you be to start descent?

A

5 degrees

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21
Q

On a racetrack procedure turn joining from sector 2 (offset) the time spent on the 30 degree offset leg for a racetrack procedure turn will be:

A

no more than 1min 30 seconds

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22
Q

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ALSF-II stands for:

A

Approach Light System with sequenced Flashing Lights CAT 2

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23
Q

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘CLL’ stands for:

A

Centreline Lights

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24
Q

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘HRCLL’ stands for:

A

High Intensity Runway Centre Line Lights

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25
Q

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘REIL’ stands for:

A

Runway Approach End Identifier Lights (threshold)

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26
Q

The effect on a CATIII A approach (DH50’) of unserviceable ‘Approach Lights’ is:

A

No effect on a CAT IIIA, however a CATII is not allowed

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27
Q

The effect on a CATIII A approach of one RVR reading (mid point or stop end) being uavailable due to failed equipment is:

A

No effect

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28
Q

The Final Approach Fix (FAF) is defined as:

A

A Maltese Cross for NPA’s

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29
Q

The maximum Circle to Land speeds and dimensions for the B737-800 are:

A

180kts/4.20nm

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30
Q

What does the abbreviation RAIM stand for in relation to GPS/GNSS approaches?

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

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31
Q
A

The CAT II/III holding position where a closer NPA or CAT I taxi holding point is provided

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32
Q
A

Intermediate taxi-holding position at an intersection of two paved taxiways.

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33
Q
A

Grooved Runway

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34
Q

What is an ‘Obstacle Clearance Height’ defined as?

A

Is the lowest height above the relevant runway threshold or aerodrome elevation, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria?

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35
Q

What is the definition of a Fail Passive flight control system?

A

In the event of failure there is no significant out of trim condition but the landing cannot be completed automatically

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36
Q

What is the missed approach point (MaPt) defined as?

A

The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before, which the prescribed missed approach must be initiated in order to ensure the minimum obstacle is not infringed

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37
Q

What is the range of Final Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft?

A

115/160 kts

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38
Q

What is the range of Initial Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft?

A

160/240

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39
Q

What is the wake turbulence category for the B737-800?

A

Medium (M), 7,000kg – 136,000kg

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40
Q

What will ATC do in the event of severe turbulence, that is forecasted, in relation to RVSM airspace:

A

ATC shall determine whether RVSM should be suspended or not

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41
Q

When an aircraft is unable to communicate due to receiver failure it shall use the prefix

A

“Transmitting Blind due to Receiver Failure”

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42
Q
A

Minimum Eye Height over threshold

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43
Q

When on a precision approach, when is it allowable to descend with the glide path in relation to the localiser?

A

Half scale deflection

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44
Q

When you are in a procedure turn and a descent is required after the inbound turn, how close must you be established in order to descend:

A

Plus or minus 5 degrees of the inbound track

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45
Q

Whilst completing a procedure turn (45degrees/180 degrees) in a B737-800, when shall the timing begin and for how long?

A

At the start of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec

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46
Q

You are asked to hold at FL160, how long would your outbound timing be and what speed would you maintain in normal conditions?

A

90 seconds and 240 kts

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47
Q

‘Standard’ (STD) altimeter setting is

A

1013.2hPa (29.92 in)

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48
Q

A Captains Special Report (CSR) should be submitted for:

A

OFP does not agree with the ATC flight plan, SAFA inspections findings.

(Answer not verified)

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49
Q

A flight plan will automatically deactivate at STD plus:

A

15mins

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50
Q

After departing an airport and currently below MSA, ATC give radar vectors that deviates from the SID/PLOG. Can you accept it?

A

Yes, provided obstacle clearance criteria and operating conditions are observed

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51
Q

After using the “Controlled Rest” procedure how long should you leave between the rest and recovery period to overcome the effects of sleep inertia?

A

20 mins

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52
Q

At what distance must you be at least in order to use a mobile phone whilst refuelling the aircraft?

A

3.5m of the refuelling point

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53
Q

At what height off the ground is the tower reported wind?

A

10 m AGL

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54
Q

At what N2% indication should the anti-collision beacon be switched off after engine shutdown?

A

Below 20% N2

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55
Q

Can reported meteorological visibility be converted to RVR for calculation of take-off minima?

A

No, the conversion may not be used for calculating take off minima

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56
Q

Can the aircraft be refuelled with the engines running?

A

Refuelling or defueling is not authorised with engine(s) running

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57
Q

Can the Captain self-position onto stand where electronic guidance or marshalling is required?

A

No, it is not permitted to self-position onto stands for which electronic guidance or marshalling is required

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58
Q

Contingency fuel shall be:

A

The higher of: Either 5% or 3% (En-route alternate) of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, 5% or 3% (ERA) of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight OR an amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions

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59
Q

Does RYR use dedicated CAT IIIA approach plates?

A

No. Airports with CAT III approaches are included on the applicable ILS chart

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60
Q

For brake cooling on a turnaround the parking brake shall be released, only after complying with company procedure, for:

A

The brakes must be released for brake cooling, and the brakes shall be set when brake cooling times are satisfied

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61
Q

Fuel: What is the definition of Final Reserve Fuel (Reserve/Hold fuel)

A

Fuel to allow 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500ft AAL in standard conditions

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62
Q

Fuel: Which of the following would lead you to declare a Fuel Mayday?

A

When the calculated usable fuel on landing is less than final reserve fuel

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63
Q

How are FIR boundaries highlighted during the cruise?

A

Highlight FIR boundaries on the OFP. Identify FIR point and insert fix into the FMC

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64
Q

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an A380:

A

4 minutes

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65
Q

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an B757 which departed from the full length:

A

No minimum wake turbulence gap

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66
Q

How much fuel over Flight Plan fuel may be carried without explanation on the voyage report?

A

Block fuel rounded up to the nearest 100kg plus 100kgs

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67
Q

How should details of a delayed departure be officially recorded?

A

Using the EFL delay menu and supported with CP remarks

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68
Q

If no Outer Marker/4NM position exists, above what altitude must the Captain decide to continue or go-around if the reported RVR is less than landing minima?

A

1000ft AAL

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69
Q

If the NOTAM’s or ATC give a report of failed or downgraded lighting or approach equipment at your destination, where can you obtain information on how this affects your approach and landing minima regarding a CAT II approach?

A

c. Operations Manual Part A 8.4.1.5

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70
Q

If the surface wind at destination exceeds 20kts the Captain will make the following PA when releasing Cabin Crew:

A

Cabin Crew, doors to manual and crosscheck, caution due to high winds

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71
Q

If you were unable to shut an engine down using the normal means, what should the Captain do at the end of the duty day?

A

File an ASR

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72
Q

In the cruise, for operations other than LNAV

A

Fly at least 10 kts above the minimum manoeuvring speed (lower amber band)

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73
Q

In the event that two weather related missed approaches have been carried out, can a third approach be made?

A

Yes, but only if weather information shows an improvement to double the visibility and cloud base of previous reported weather

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74
Q

Is it acceptable to practice a CAT II/III A approach to a CAT I runway?

A

Yes, if visibility is 1500m or greater and ceiling 500ft or higher

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75
Q

Is it allowed to fuel and board with Persons of Reduced Mobility (PRM) on board?

A

Yes, subject to local airport byelaws & restrictions

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76
Q

Is it necessary to file an ASR for all Go-arounds?

A

Only for those initiated below 1000ft AAL or above if there are additional reportable circumstances

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77
Q

Is the sight of only Sequenced Flashing Lights at CAT I minima considered sufficient visual reference to continue the approach below DA?

Select one:

a. No, you need the all the lights from the last 300m of the approach lighting system

b. Yes, any lights will suffice.

c. No. They give no roll reference.

d. Yes, no lights are required as it is an Autoland.

A

a. No, you need the all the lights from the last 300m of the approach lighting system

(Answer nit verified)

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78
Q

It is considered best practice to request “standard speeds” from ATC when higher speeds are offered. These speeds are:

A

220kts at the IAF, 180kts on base and 180kts on final approach track

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79
Q

May the Cockpit Voice Recorder CB be pulled in flight?

A

NO

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80
Q

May you accept a line up clearance before receiving the “Cabin Secure” signal?

A

No

81
Q

Oil: What is the minimum dispatch oil quantity for Boeing 737-800 operations?

A

12 litres

82
Q

On the ground what should the MCP Altitude window be set to?

A

The expected altitude/FL +100ft or cleared altitude/FL when received

83
Q

Recording weather on the OFP/EFL

A

The weather for the aerodrome of departure and landing shall be recorded on the OFP/EFL. Best practice is to obtain what additional weather you need to complete the flight

84
Q

Should the take-off weight be increased to facilitate the tankering of fuel?

Select one:

a. Never tanker fuel such that the takeoff weight exceeds 66990 kg if at all possible

b. Never tanker fuel such that the takeoff weight exceeds 71990 kg if at all possible

c. Tankering is not limited by variable MTOWs of 66,990 and 69,990. Placard weights shall be increased to accommodate tankering requirements

d. No, ensure 66990kgs is the maximum T/O weight

A

c. Tankering is not limited by variable MTOWs of 66,990 and 69,990. Placard weights shall be increased to accommodate tankering requirements

85
Q

Spurious Windshear Warnings on approach…?

A

An approach may be continued at the discretion of the Captain if the warning has been briefed

86
Q

Tankering Limitations:

A

The commercial decision to tanker fuel will be made automatically by LIDO and Captains are required to tanker the fuel recommended by LIDO unless there are sound operational reasons for not doing so

87
Q

The emergency frequency 121.50 shall be selected on VHF 2 and the volume adjusted to hear transmissions when?

A

Above FL100

88
Q

The following is true regarding fuelling supervisor in the UK:

Select one:

a. They must stay on the headset at all times during refuelling

b. They must call the flight by mobile phone should the headset be unavailable

c. This function is not applicable to disembarking of passengers

d. They must ensure that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and the slide deployment areas are kept clear while refuelling is taking place

A

d. They must ensure that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and the slide deployment areas are kept clear while refuelling is taking place

89
Q

The maximum speed in the climb is:

A

250kts, or faster if cleared by ATC and in Class A, B or C airspace only

90
Q

The Mode S feature of the transponder will only function if;
Select one:

a. It is selected to ATC1

b. The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1 during preflight (the prefix is always FR…)

c. It is in TA/RA only

d. The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1 during preflight (the prefix is always RYR…)

A

d. The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1 during preflight (the prefix is always RYR…)

91
Q

The PF must strictly follow a TCAS RA even if:

Select one:

a. The RA response capability is limited by aircraft performance

b. All of the other answers are correct

c. Conflicting instructions have been issued by ATC

d. There is visual contact to the other traffic

A

b. All of the other answers are correct

92
Q

There is a hijack/unlawful interference situation on board. What is the correct procedure in relation to the flight deck door?

A

Use the deadbolt “Locked key inoperative” position to ensure door is locked

93
Q

Wake Turbulence category on Approach: What is the minimum separation between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft on approach?

Select one:

a. 5NM, 3 minutes non radar

b. 7NM, 4 minutes non radar

c. 4NM, 3 minutes non radar

d. 3NM, 2 minutes non radar

A

a. 5NM, 3 minutes non radar

(Answer not verified)

94
Q

Wake Turbulence category on Take Off: What is the minimum interval between a medium and a preceding heavy aircraft, departing from same position on a runway?

A

2 minutes

95
Q

Weather Radar: Which of the following statements is correct

Select one:

a. The PF shall have the weather radar on for take off

b. The PM shall have the weather radar selected on for take-off, climb, cruise and descent, approach and landing in IMC and at night

c. The Commander shall have the weather radar selected on for take-off, climb, cruise and descent/approach in IMC and at night

d. Use of the weather is at Commanders discretion except it must be on when there is thunderstorm activity in the area

A

c. The Commander shall have the weather radar selected on for take-off, climb, cruise and descent/approach in IMC and at night

96
Q

What actions should be taken after vacating the runway following an RTO >80kts?

Select one:

a. All of the other answers are correct

b. Ask ATC for parking on taxiway/ return to stand, Call Maintrol and report a high speed RTO, do not T/O again until cleared by Maintrol

c. File an ASR on completion of duty

d. Calculate the required turn-around time from the brake cooling schedule

A

a. All of the other answers are correct

97
Q

What actions should the captain take if the aircraft is the subject of a SAFA Inspection?

Select one:

Ask for a copy of the report and email to fileareport@ryanair.com, file a ASR on return to base

Call DUB OPS if you disagree with the inspector. Inform Maintrol if there is a technical finding

All of the other answers are correct

Establish if it “Is this a SAFA inspection? The Inspectors Name/Number and ask “Are there any Level 1, 2 or 3 findings?”

A

All of the other answers are correct

98
Q

What are the individual components of the NITS drill?

A

Nature; Intentions; Time available; Special instructions (including whether an SOS demo is required)

99
Q

What are the limits associated with requesting an “orbit” in order to regain the vertical profile during approach?

Select one:

a. All of the other answers are correct

b. Max configuration of Flap10 and Speedbrake

c. At MSA or 3000’ whichever is higher

d. VMC conditions and not less than 10nm form touchdown

A

a. All of the other answers are correct

100
Q

What are the minimum RVR requirements for a CAT III A approach?

A

TDZ 200m, MID 125m, STOP 75m

101
Q

What are the visibility and cloud base criteria for Monitored Approaches?

A

ILS 1000m visibility and 300ft cloud base. NPA 3000m visibility and 1000ft cloud base

102
Q

What would you set on the BARO minima for a visual approach?

A

500ft AAL

103
Q

What flight level does the OFP represent?

Select one:

a. The OFP flight level is not linked to the LIDO flight planning optimization tool

b. The flight levels on the OFP are optimum flight levels as determined by the LIDO flight planning optimization tool

c. The OFP represents the OPTIMUM level; crews should, where possible, ask for flight levels up to the maximum

d. The flight levels on the OFP represent the MAXIMUM altitude

A

b. The flight levels on the OFP are optimum flight levels as determined by the LIDO flight planning optimization tool

104
Q

What information must be retained on the ground for each flight or series of flights?

Select one:

a. Copy of the OFP, copies of the relevant parts of the tech log and route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair

b. Copies of the relevant parts of the tech log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special loads

c. Copy of the OFP, Copies of the relevant parts of the tech log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special loads notifications

d. Copy of the OFP, Route specific NOTAM documentation, Mass and Balance documentation if edited by Ryanair and special loads

A

c. Copy of the OFP, Copies of the relevant parts of the tech log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special loads notifications

105
Q

What is Ryanair policy regarding acceptance of a Traffic Service from ATC?

A

Not to accept a Traffic Service when a Deconfliction Service is available while operating in uncontrolled airspace

(Answer to be verified)

106
Q

What is Ryanair policy regarding intersection take-offs?

A

Crews should plan for an intersection take off if it shortens the taxi route

107
Q

What is the absolute minimum visibility for take-off in Ryanair Flight Operations?

A

125m

108
Q

What is the correct terminology for initiating a NITS drill?

A

“This is a NITS drill, please listen carefully”

109
Q

What is the crosswind landing limit for First Officers with 500 hours or less in Ryanair?

A

Crosswind component 15kts (MA excluded)

110
Q

What is the distance that the B737-800 aircraft covers at 1 ENG INOP cruising speed in still air?

A

427NM

111
Q

What is the formula to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors?

A

2.5% of additional fuel carried (in kg) x flight time (in hours)

112
Q

What is the limit is used to determine an altimeter error in RVSM airspace?

A

+/- 200ft, between the Captains altimeter and first officer’s altimeter

113
Q

What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) Approach?

A

+/- 0.1°

114
Q

What is the maximum surface wind speed for ground operations?

A

60kts

115
Q

What is the minimum altitude to commence a turn on departure?

A

400ft AAL, unless a lower altitude is specified in the SID

116
Q

What is the minimum Fire Category that can acceptable when planning for a take-off alternate or a destination alternate?

A

2 categories below aeroplane RFFS

117
Q

What is the minimum potable water level required for dispatch?

A

Potable water is not mandatory for flight; However, if bars are NOT loaded with potable then the aircraft should not depart with potable water less than 1/8 full

118
Q

What is the minimum wingtip clearance for self-manoeuvring taxiing without a marshaller guiding the wing tip?

A

6m / 20ft

(Answer not verified)

119
Q

What is the normal fire category for Ryanair destinations?

A

Cat 7

120
Q

What is the only approved command to initiate a line of communication with the cabin crew in an emergency/non normal situation?

A

Bing the cabin using the “Cabin attend” call button and over the PA handset “No.1 to the flight deck”

121
Q

What is the required number of cabin crew for boarding when the aircraft is refuelling?

A

Four at all times when refuelling

122
Q

What is the Ryanair FMC cruise speed policy?

A

Cost index or fixed SPEED/MACH indicated on OFP and accept ECON speeds by the FMC

123
Q

What is the Ryanair policy for pilots operating the refuelling panel?

A

Pilots are allowed to operate this panel however the refueller must know that the panel cannot be pressurised whilst the pilot operates the switches at the panel

124
Q

What is the Ryanair policy if a Flap 1 setting is required for take-offs?

A

Captain’s only T/O

125
Q

What is the Ryanair policy regarding Nav aid selection?

Select one:

a. There is no policy for selecting Nav aids for departure or arrival

b. Nav aids shall be selected to enable the SID/STAR and instrument approach to be flown in raw data

c. If using LNAV mode for approach the Nav aids shall be selected to allow reversion to raw data in the event of mode failure

d. Both Nav 1 and 2 must show the same frequency for approach

A

b. Nav aids shall be selected to enable the SID/STAR and instrument approach to be flown in raw data

126
Q

What is the Ryanair policy regarding thunderstorm activity during approach and landing?

A

Avoid making an approach if a thunderstorm is active over the airfield or there are cells on the final approach track within 3NM of the field

127
Q

What is the Ryanair sterile cockpit policy?

A

Flight Crew shall avoid conversation not directly related to the safe operation of the aircraft from commencement of pushback to TOC and from TOD to engine shutdown on stand

128
Q

What is the wake turbulence category of the Boeing 737-800?

A

Medium

129
Q

What lights should be switched on when crossing an active or non-active runway?

A

Strobe lights

130
Q

What parameters can ATC view via the Enhanced Mode S transponders?

A

Flight Number, current heading, altitude and speed selected on MCP plus the current V/S

131
Q

What shall the Captain do when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel?

A

Make a distress call to ATC (MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, call-sign)

132
Q

What should be done with sections of the Tech Log that are not applicable to the flight (i.e. de-icing?)

Select one:

a. There are never any sections of the Tech Log that are not applicable to the flight

b. You must fill in and sign all elements of the Tech Log

c. They must be struck through to ensure all entries are contemporaneous unless the area is non shaded, then it can be left blank

d. They can be ignored as they do not affect the flight

A

c. They must be struck through to ensure all entries are contemporaneous unless the area is non shaded, then it can be left blank

133
Q

What should the Captain do when informed by the CSS that an entry has been made in the Cabin Defect Log?

A

Check it for defects that might affect the airworthiness of the aircraft and if found transfer to the Tech Log

134
Q

What should the commander do if a thunderstorm comes overhead the airfield during fuelling?

A

Consider suspending the fuelling operation

135
Q

What should you do if your aircraft registration does not match that of your LIDO flight plan?

A

In the case of an unscheduled aircraft change the flight may not be commenced until a new OFP has been generated

136
Q

What weather criteria must a Takeoff alternate fulfil?

A

The forecast 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA must be above the required landing minima (CAT II/IIIA approaches not permitted)

(Answer not verified)

137
Q

When can the Captain derive an equivalent RVR value by converting the reported met visibility as outlined in Table 8 OPS PART A 8.1.3.4.9:

A

Only when the approach minima is published solely as an RVR and RVR reports are not available at the time of the approach

138
Q

When is it considered necessary to record en-route weather on the PLOG?

A

Only recommended during periods of generally poor weather. Preference is to obtain weather for enroute Ryanair bases

139
Q

When is it necessary to nominate a Takeoff alternate?

A

If the weather at the departure airfield is at or below the applicable aerodrome minima or it would not be possible to return to the departure airport for other reasons

140
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required to be carried on board?

A

On all flights where the aircraft is pressurised and operates above 10,000ft

141
Q

When must the commander select at least two destination alternates?

A

Destination forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA is below minima or no weather information available for destination

142
Q

When obtaining enroute weather:

Select one:

a. Do not pick up enroute weather

b. Never try and get the weather when monitoring the ATC frequency. Always hand over the radio

c. Ensure the airfield is within 30 minutes flight time on a single engine

d. Maintain a listening watch on the active frequency

A

b. Never try and get the weather when monitoring the ATC frequency. Always hand over the radio

143
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace, what is the tolerance for an Assigned Altitude Deviation (AAD)?

A

+/- 300ft

144
Q

When should the Captain call “CONTINUE” during a Monitored Approach?

A

At or before the minima when he/she has the required visual references for landing

145
Q

Where should the Tech Log be stored on board the aircraft?

A

In the bracket provided behind the Captain’s seat

146
Q

Where would you normally ascertain if Ryanair can use a particular runway for CAT III A operations?

A

Ryanair CAT III Approved Runway List

147
Q

Whose responsibility is it to pull the yellow collared circuit breaker (behind the Captain’s seat) at the earliest opportunity following a serious incident?

A

The Captain’s

148
Q

With regards to DALTA: The statement “Standard Calls and Procedures” shall;

Select one:

a. This can be used in any circumstance if either pilot is familiar with the approach

b. Not be used in any circumstances

c. Only be used when both flight crew members are flying into their home base and a NPA or visual approach is not required

d. Only be used when both flight crew members are familiar with the procedures for the airfield concerned and when further elaboration is not required

A
149
Q

With the stuck mike modification after how long will the VHF transceiver revert to the receive mode if the PTT becomes stuck?

A

35secs

150
Q

Within what distance must a T/O alternate be located?

A

A distance equivalent to 1-hour flight time in still air (427nm for the B738), at the one engine inoperative cruise speed

151
Q

You are flying in the cruise at FL 360 and encounter turbulence. The speed (IAS) deviates by 5-15kts with slight changes in both altitude and attitude. How would you define this to ATC?

A

Light turbulence

152
Q

You divert to an airport other than your scheduled destination but are then able to depart for your original destination airport. Are passengers allowed to disembark at the intermediate airport?

A

No this is prohibited due to security issues

153
Q

You have completed your flight and the commander has secured the aircraft at an unmanned base. The wind however is currently 45kts and it is forecasted to remain for the rest of the night. You should:

Select one:

a. Your duty has finished therefore its somebody else’s problem

b. Fuel up and take off to an airport with less windy conditions

c. Contact Maintrol for guidance on the protection of aircraft on the ground

d. Stay with the aircraft till the next crew is ready to take it

A

c. Contact Maintrol for guidance on the protection of aircraft on the ground

154
Q

“Land After” clearances authorised for Ryanair flight operations?

A

Yes, in which requires the completion of ‘Landing Lights’ after the “Minimums” call

155
Q

Are crew members responsible for managing their own levels of fatigue?

A

All crew members are responsible for managing their fatigue and must comply with IAA and EASA FCL requirements. Ops A CH 6

156
Q

For a crew in an Unknown State of Acclimatisation, the maximum daily FDP for them conducting a 4 sector day is?

A

10:00

157
Q

The maximum daily FDP may be extended by up to 1 hour, under certain conditions, but not more than?

A

Twice in any 7 consecutive days

158
Q

The maximum duty period, including Commander’s Discretion, one can operate four (4) sectors from a home base with a report time for the first sector of 0515 local (first departure 0600) is

A

13 hours 15 minutes

159
Q

The minimum rest which must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting at home base is?

A

12 Hrs or the length of the preceding duty period whichever is greater

160
Q

The minimum rest which must be provided before undertaking a flight duty period starting away from HOME base is?

A

10 Hrs or the length of the preceding duty period whichever is greater

161
Q

The Ryanair Flight and Duty Time Limitations?

Select one:

a. Are a company stipulation but not a regulatory requirement

b. Compiles with National requirements only

c. Apply to Flight Crew only and not Cabin Crew. They comply with IAA and EASA Ops regulatory requirements

d. Apply to both Flight Crew and Cabin Crew. They comply with IAA and EASA FCL regulatory requirements

A

d. Apply to both Flight Crew and Cabin Crew. They comply with IAA and EASA FCL regulatory requirements

162
Q

The use of Commander’s Discretion requires;

Select one:

a. The permission of Flight Operations

b. A written letter outlining the circumstances to the Base Captain

c. Crew Control to be notified prior to the event

d. The commander to file an ASR (Fatigue and ECDR)

A

d. The commander to file an ASR (Fatigue and ECDR)

163
Q

The ‘Window of Circadian Low’ is defined as the period between?

A

Time 02:00 and 05:59

164
Q

Total duty periods to which a crew member is assigned must not exceed?
Select one:

a. 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days

b. 5 days on and 4 days off in any 9 consecutive days

c. 6 duty days in any 7 consecutive days

d. 48 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days

A

a. 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days

165
Q

What are the absolute limits for cabin crew flying hours?

A

900 Hrs annually or 100 Hrs in any consecutive 28 days

166
Q

What is maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) (excluding Commanders Discretion) dependant on?

A

Start time and number of sectors

167
Q

What is the definition of a “Flight Duty Period”?

A

Is the period which commences when a crewmember reports for duty and finishes when the aircraft comes to rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the last sector on which the crew member acts as part of the operating crew

168
Q

What is the definition of a “Rest Period”?

A

A continuous, uninterrupted and defined period of time during which a crew member is free from all duties and reserve

169
Q

What is the definition of “Duty Period”?

A

A period which starts when a crew member is required by Ryanair to report for or commence a duty and ends when the crewmember is free from all duties, including post-flight duties

170
Q

What is the maximum Cabin Crew Flight Duty Period, (excluding Commanders Discretion) dependant on?

A

Start time and number of sectors

171
Q

What is the maximum total flight time for a flight crew member?

A

900 Hrs annually or 100 Hrs in any consecutive 28 days

172
Q

What is the normal approved period of time for pre-flight and post-flight duties?

Select one:

a. 45 mins for pre-flight and 30 mins for post-flight duties

b. The period of time that a crew member believes is appropriate but not less than 45 mins for pre-flight and 30 mins for post-flight duties

c. 30 mins for pre-flight and 30 mins for post-flight duties

d. The actual period of time that a crew member checks in for pre-flight duties and checks out after post flight duties. It should never be less than “a” above

A

a. 45 mins for pre-flight and 30 mins for post-flight duties

(Answer not verified)

173
Q

What shall the “Single Day Free of Duty”?

Select one:

a. A 30-hour period starting at 2359 hrs. UTC

b. Shall include 2 old local nights

c. A period including 2 local nights

d. Once your roster shows it as a day off

A

c. A period including 2 local nights

174
Q

When undertaking duties for more than one operator crew members shall:

A

Have the written permission from Ryanair

175
Q

Which is true regarding Commander’s Discretion to Extend Flight Duty Periods?

Select one:

a. Discretion refers to the first sector that you are operating during that FDP

b. The maximum amount of time that can be added is 4 hours

c. The maximum amount of time that can be added is 2 hours

d. If the flight crew has not been augmented the maximum flight duty period may be increased by more than three hours

A

c. The maximum amount of time that can be added is 2 hours

176
Q

With regards to Commander’s Discretion: In the case of unforeseen circumstances which could lead to severe fatigue, the commander shall;

Select one:

a. Increase Commander’s Discretion by 15 minutes maximum if unforeseen circumstances after take off (e.g. Holding) delay the landing time

b. Increase the actual flight duty time and/or reduce the rest time

c. Reduce the actual flight duty period and/or increase the rest time

d. Increase Commander’s Discretion by 1-hour maximum if all flights operate between the hours of 06:00 and 23:59 local time

A

c. Reduce the actual flight duty period and/or increase the rest time

177
Q

Your report time is 0530 local for a 0615 local departure flying 6 sectors. What is the latest finish time for that flight duty period including Captain’s Discretion?

A

18:00

178
Q

Your report time is 0530 local for a 0615 local departure flying 6 sectors. What is the maximum flight duty period without using Captain’s Discretion?

A

10 hours 30 mins

179
Q

Your report time is 1545 local for a 1630 local departure flying 4 sectors. What is the latest finish time for that flight duty period including Captain’s Discretion?

A

04:30

180
Q

Your report time is 1545 local for a 1630 local departure flying 4 sectors. What is the maximum flight duty period without using Captain’s Discretion?

A

10 hours 45 minutes

181
Q

A co-pilot is considered experienced in Ryanair when they have:

A

Completed 500 hours in total in Ryanair

182
Q

As a newly qualified captain your co-pilot must have:

A

The co-pilot must have 100 hours since their first line check with Ryanair

183
Q

For which of the following would you file a ASR:

Select one:

a. Landing on a contaminated runway

b. RTO above 80kts

c. Backtrack of a runway required due works in progress on taxiway

A

b. RTO above 80kts

184
Q

How long is an initial command upgrade line check valid for:

A

The end of the month plus 3 months

185
Q

How long is the fire and smoke training valid for?

A

The end of the month plus 36 months

186
Q

How long is your CAT II/IIIA training valid for:

A

The end of the month plus 6 months

(Answer not verified)

187
Q

How would you respond to the intercepting aircraft?

A

Make contact with the aircraft on 121.5 or rock your wings and follow the aircraft

188
Q

If a sober, non-disruptive passenger tells a cabin crew member in flight that there is a bomb on board and there is evidence that there could have been a breakdown at security at the point of departure:

Select one:

a. The threat assessment is green and you must file a report on landing

b. The threat assessment is amber and ATC do not need to know

c. The threat assessment is red and advise ATC

A

c. The threat assessment is red and advise ATC

189
Q

If operating with 3 cabin crew what restriction applies:

A

Pax number must not exceed 150 and the IAA must be informed by operations after the event

190
Q

What document do you use if there is a security threat made against the aircraft?

A

Security Threat Checklist located in Docunet

191
Q

If you have been intercepted by another aircraft, they will position themselves:

A

At a position slightly above and ahead, normally to the left side

192
Q

If you have not flown a Ryanair aircraft in 46 days what must you do:

A

Complete a line flight with a TRI or line training captain

193
Q

What are the operating restrictions for a new Captain?

Select one:

a. The other answers are correct

b. Can only operate to Cat A and B destinations for the first 100 hours

c. Shall not operate into Cat B Restricted or Cat C airfields

A

a. The other answers are correct (beides stimmt)

194
Q

When 2 captains are rostered to fly together, what is the minimum RVR for take-off

A

125m or as restricted by runway lighting

195
Q

When performing a security search what additional areas should be examined by the flight crew:

A

Flight deck if left unattended, external hatches if tampered with and the wheel wells

196
Q

When recording TOW within the EFL app:

Select one:

a. Enter the certificated MTOW for the fleet (e.g. 66,990, 69,990, 71990, 74,990, 77990)

b. The actual take-off weight must be entered as is

c. Enter the certificated MTOW for the sector (e.g. 66,990, 69,990, 71990, 74,990, 77990)

A

c. Enter the certificated MTOW for the sector (e.g. 66,990, 69,990, 71990, 74,990, 77990)

197
Q

Who has priority for being accepted on the aircraft when travelling on staff travel:

Select one:

a. Duty travel standby has priority over duty travel confirmed

b. There is no priority system for duty standby versus confirmed

c. Duty travel confirmed has priority over duty travel standby

A

Duty travel confirmed has priority over duty travel standby

198
Q

Who is allowed to occupy a flight deck jumpseat?

A

A Ryanair staff member on concession travel ticket with valid company ID

RTC Questions (3 decks)

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