Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RTC Questions > RTC 3 > Flashcards

RTC 3 Flashcards

1
Q

After landing in freezing conditions what additional step should be taken during the Shutdown Procedure?

Select one:

a. WING ANTI-ICE switch……ON (after both engines are shutdown)

b. Stabilizer trim….set 5 units

c. ENGINE START switches….GRD

d. Flap lever ……..40

A

b. Stabilizer trim….set 5 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Airport elevation is 500 feet, MDA 1200 feet, temperature -20ºC what is your temperature correction to the MDA

A

100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At which temperature are NO cold temperature altitude corrections required?

A

+1ºC or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Before takeoff, engine anti-ice is required and OAT is 3 degrees C or below, which statement is correct?

Select one:

A flaps 1 departure is mandatory

Ensure that all aircraft surfaces are covered with Type II or Type IV fluid during all ground operations with OAT <10ºC

Reduce RTOW by 2700kgs to correct for the low temperature in your RTOW calculation

Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 and confirm stable engine operation before the start of the Takeoff roll

A

Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 and confirm stable engine operation before the start of the Takeoff roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clear ice:

Select one:

a. Is easily detected provided a torch is used when dark

b. Will never form on the wings

c. Is relatively transparent. A tactile check may be required to detect its presence

d. Will never form on the tail

A

c. Is relatively transparent. A tactile check may be required to detect its presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cold temperature altitude adjustments are NOT required for which of these altitudes?

Select one:

a. Temperature correction is required for ALL altitudes and levels.

b. MDA

c. ATC assigned Flight Levels

d. DA for a CAT 1 ILS

A

c. ATC assigned Flight Levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

De-icing the aircraft requires an entry in the Technical Log

Select one:

a. Only when the de-icing procedure is requested by the Captain

b. Never

c. Always, unless de-iced to remove CSFF/NEI and there is no requirement to anti-ice.

d. Only when de-icing on turnarounds

A

c. Always, unless de-iced to remove CSFF/NEI and there is no requirement to anti-ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do not use engine or wing anti–ice when:

Select one:

a. Operating Bleeds Off

b. The OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is above 10°C

c. In single engine configuration

d. The OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10°C or above

A

b. The OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is above 10°C

(Answer not verified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During cold weather operations taxi-out,

Select one:

a. Using normal taxi procedures and limitations

b. Use higher thrust settings than normal to avoid ice build-up on the cowl lips, and use brakes to keep the speed low

c. If an engine run up is required and you start up on stand it is advisable that you do the run up on stand before taxi out

d. Taxi at a reduced speed, use smaller nose wheel steering and rudder inputs and apply minimum thrust evenly and smoothly

A

Taxi at a reduced speed, use smaller nose wheel steering and rudder inputs and apply minimum thrust evenly and smoothly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During FREEZING CONDITIONS which additional action should be taken by the pilot flying as part of the normal Preflight Procedure?

A

PROBE HEAT switches……………..ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to the Winter Ops handy Dandy, when should the flaps be checked for full travel?

A

When the aircraft has been exposed to freezing precipitation (snow, slush, ice, FZDZ, FZRA or rain on a cold soaked airframe following a prolonged stop (Greater than 45 minutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During taxi out you notice that the wing anti-ice VALVE OPEN lights cycle bright/dim. What actions would be appropriate?

A

It is normal to see the VALVE OPEN lights cycle bright/dim due to the control valves cycling closed/open in response to thrust setting and duct temperature logic, there is no crew action required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Flaps should be in the UP position during taxi out, when?

A

For taxing in freezing conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long should we wait after de-icing is complete before we turn the engine BLEED switches on?

A

Wait for at lest one minute before turning the BLEED air switches on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Icing conditions exist on the ground if:

A

The OAT is +10ºC or less, and there is visible moisture present (clouds, fog with visibility less than one statute mile (1600m), rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals, and so on), or ice, snow, slush or standing water is present on the ramps, taxiways, or runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If told to plan a flaps 15 landing, in which of the following conditions would you set VREF ICE?

Select one:

a. All the other answers are correct

b. Icing conditions were encountered during the flight and the landing temperature is below 10ºC

c. Engine anti-ice will be used during landing

d. Wing anti-ice has been used any time during the flight

A

All the other answers are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a re-treatment is necessary what must be done before the new de-icing/anti-icing treatment is applied?

A

Any residue of the previous treatment should be removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If de-icing with the engines running which checklist should be used?

A

The winter operation “handy dandy” dedicated checklist should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If the OAT is 2 degrees C and landing on a runway contaminated with ice, snow or slush, which modification should be made to the normal after landing procedure?

A

Do not retract the flaps to less than 15 until the flap areas have been checked to be free of contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If the service providers insist on using their own documentation instead of the Ryanair DAR form, what should you do?

A

This is acceptable and a picture shall be taken and attached to the EFL at the end of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One-step de-icing/anti-icing means that?

A

De-icing and anti-icing is carried out at the same time using a mixture of heated de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Removal of contaminants from the airframe may be performed with?

Select one:

a. Hot air only

b. Soft brushes only

c. Fluids, mechanical tools and infra-red heat only

d. Fluids, mechanical tools and forced air

A

d. Fluids, mechanical tools and forced air

(Answer not verified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following conditions are correct with regards to deciding on whether take off with CSFF is allowed?

Select one:

a. Ambient air temperature is at or above +4c

b. Ambient air temperature is at or above -4c

c. Ambient air temperature is at or above +0c

d. Ambient air temperature is at or above -10c

A

a. Ambient air temperature is at or above +4c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Severe icing can usually be avoided by

Select one:

a. It is not necessary to avoid severe icing since the aircraft is certified for flight in severe icing conditions

b. Using the weather radar to avoid flight in IMC when the temperature is below 10ºC

c. A change in altitude and/or airspeed

d. Programming the FMC correctly

A

c. A change in altitude and/or airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SNOWTAM RWYCC’s are?

Select one:

a. Listed for each third of the runway sequentially from the threshold nearest the number 01

b. RWYCC’s are not listed on SNOWTAMS

c. Listed for each third of the runway sequentially from the threshold of the runway in use

d. Listed as percentages from 0 to 100% as the braking coefficient improves

A

(Answer not verified) c. Listed for each third of the runway sequentially from the threshold of the runway in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Take-off and landing is not permitted when the braking action is reported as?

A

Poor / Nil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Provided all leading edge devices, control surfaces, tab surfaces, winglet surfaces and control surface balance panel cavities are clear of snow, ice and frost, takeoff is permitted with:

Select one:

a. A light coating of frost, 7 mm in thickness on the wing surface due to cold fuel

b. A light coating of frost, up to 3 mm in thickness on the lower wing surface due to cold fuel

c. A light coating of frost, 6 mm in thickness on the wing surfaces due to cold fuel

d. A light coating of frost, up to 5 mm in thickness on the lower wing surface due to cold fuel

A

b. A light coating of frost, up to 3 mm in thickness on the lower wing surface due to cold fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The colour of Type I fluid is?

A

Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The colour of Type II fluid is?

A

Translucent Water like appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The colour of Type IV fluid is?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The conditions giving rise to ice accretion on the ground include, but are not limited to

Select one:

a. All the other answers are correct

b. Operation on ramps, taxiways, and runways containing moisture, slush, or snow

c. Blown snow from snow drifts, other aircraft, buildings, or other ground structures

d. Freezing fog

A

a. All the other answers are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The contamination check is?

A

A check of the aircraft to establish the need for de-icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The de-icing/anti-icing procedure is?

Select one:

a. The procedure by which frost, ice, snow and slush is removed from an aircraft to provide uncontaminated surfaces

b. Not necessary if freezing rain is falling onto the aircraft wings

c. Performed by ground personnel to clear the air stairs from snow, and if necessary also the rear steps

d. Always performed by an engineer

A

a. The procedure by which frost, ice, snow and slush is removed from an aircraft to provide uncontaminated surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The de-icing/anti-icing process is broken down into which of the following steps the following steps?

A

Contamination check, de-icing/anti-icing procedure, post treatment check, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The flaps should be up during de-icing/anti-icing to:

A

Prevent ice and slush from accumulating in flap cavities during de-icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The holdover protection runs out at?

Select one:

a. The holding point for the active runway

b. Both the commencement of the takeoff run and when frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aeroplane surfaces

c. Only when frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aeroplane surfaces

d. Only at the commencement of the takeoff run

A

b. Both the commencement of the takeoff run and when frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aeroplane surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The ICAO definition of notification of ‘light icing’ is?

A

No change of heading or altitude necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The ICAO definition of notification of ‘moderate icing’ is?

A

Change of heading and/or altitude may be considered desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The ICAO definition of notification of ‘severe icing’ is?

A

Immediate change of heading and/or altitude is considered essential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The indications of structural icing in order to turn on wing anti-ice are?

A

Ice accumulation on the flight deck window frames, windshield centre post, or on the windshield wiper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The lowest fuel tank temperature permitted is:

A

-43ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The minimum cleared width allowed for takeoff and landing is?

A

30 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The normal or preferred way to remove ice from the fan blades is?

A

With hot air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The post treatment check is:

A

An external check of the aircraft after a de-icing/anti-icing treatment to ensure that the aircraft is free from any frost, ice, snow or slush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The pre takeoff check is?

A

An assessment normally made from within the flight deck, to validate the applied holdover time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The pre takeoff contamination check is?

A

A check of the treated surfaces for contamination, performed when the holdover time has been exceeded or if any doubt exists regarding the continued effectiveness of the applied anti-icing treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The primary method to use the wing anti-ice is?

A

By allowing ice to accumulate before turning wing anti-ice on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Thin hoar frost is acceptable on the upper surface of the fuselage

A

Provided that the layer is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath, such as paint lines, markings or lettering and all vents and ports are clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

To get a longer hold over time you should?

A

Use less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

To indicate to the service provider which areas of the aircraft he/she wishes to have treated the commander should use?

A

The DAR 01 form or the de-icing providers form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Two-step de-icing/anti-icing means that?

A

De-icing and anti-icing is carried out in two separate steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Type I fluid is mostly used for?

A

Removal of adhering ice and snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Use of wing anti-ice above FL350 should be avoided because

A

It may cause a bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

We are allowed to take off with frost on the upper surface, once other conditions are meet. This frost is due to;

A

NEI/CSFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the considerations during engine start in cold weather operations?

Select one:

a. Several minutes maybe required for oil pressure to reach normal pressure

b. There are no specific restrictions to consider

c. If the temperature is below -20c, idle the engine for 2mins before change thrust lever position

d. Allow a minimum of 5 minutes for oil pressure to reach normal range

A

a. Several minutes maybe required for oil pressure to reach normal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What can be an indication of Fan Blade ice accumulation?

Select one:

a. Engine vibration

b. SAT less than 10ºC

c. COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminated

d. TAT less than 10ºC

A

a. Engine vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What factors must be considered when determining whether a one-step or a two-step procedure is necessary?

Select one:

a. Available equipment and the time that the aircraft has spent on the ground prior to fluid application

b. Snow, or other frozen precipitation is not present or forecasted

c. Contamination on the aircraft, weather conditions, available equipment, available fluids and the holdover time to be achieved

d. Freezing fog

A

c. Contamination on the aircraft, weather conditions, available equipment, available fluids and the holdover time to be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What happens to the lower copy of the DAR (De/Anti-icing Request) form after De/anti-icing is completed?

A

It is returned to the handling agent/service provider and then to the Ryanair quality department where it is checked and paid if correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is correct in reference to airframe icing on the ground?

Select one:

a. Type 3 fluid is the most effective to remove airframe icing on the ground

b. Cold soaked wings may cause airframe icing in temperatures above freezing

c. For airframe icing to occur OAT must be below freezing

d. If you have rain on a cold soaked wing Type 1 fluids will give you a suitable hold over time if de-icing the aircraft on stand prior to start up

A

b. Cold soaked wings may cause airframe icing in temperatures above freezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the effect of ISA deviation on true altitude?

Select one:

a. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude with a positive ISA deviation

b. True altitude is higher than indicated altitude with a negative ISA deviation

c. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude with a negative ISA deviation

d. There is never any effect.

A

c. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude with a negative ISA deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the greatest depth of dry snow, above which a takeoff is not recommended?

A

100 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? KILFROST ABC-K Plus Type II 50/50, OAT-1º, Freezing Fog

A

0:35-1:05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? KILFROST ABC-K Plus Type II 75/25, OAT-5º, Snow or Snow Grains

A

0:35 - 1:05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions?

OAT -2ºC, DAY, Snow, Visibility 800m, SAE Type I fluid applied.

A

0:06-0:11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? OAT -3ºC, Light Freezing Rain, SAE Type I fluid applied.

A

0:02-0:05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? OAT -5ºC, snow/snow grains, SAE Type II fluid 100% applied

A

0:20-0:40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? SAE Type II 75/25, OAT -2ºC Freezing fog.

A

0:40 – 1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? SAE TYPE IV 100% -15ºC, Moderate Snow

A

0:02 - 0:09

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? SAE Type IV 100/0, OAT -2ºC Light Freezing Rain

A

0:20-0:35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the holdover time under the following conditions? SAE Type IV 50/50, OAT-3ºC Freezing Fog

A

0:30-0:55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the main advantage of Type II and IV fluids over Type I fluid?

A

They provide a longer hold over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed on a slippery taxiway?

A

The maximum recommended taxi speed on a slippery surface is 5ks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the planning minimum for destinations and take off alternates with an operational precision approach?

the required minimum ceiling and RVR

A

Add +200ft on ceiling and +800m on visibility required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the procedure for removing ice from the Fan Blades (OFI) ?

A

Hot Air or de-icing fluid. In the latter case it must be accomplished by an Engineering service provider (licensed aircraft engineer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the proper position of the stab trim if de/anti-icing is planned?

A

Set the STAB TRIM to calculated Takeoff setting or 5 units if not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is true about rehydrated fluids?

Select one:

a. Dried fluid residue could occur when repetitive application to thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the build-up of a dried residue in aerodynamically quite areas

b. Rehydrated fluids are known to cause problems with the electrical system

c. Rehydrated fluids are an issue if the temperature at destination is above 00C

d. Rehydrated fluids are not a problem as they can only cause problems on aircraft with a low rotation speed, typically below 80 knots

A

a. Dried fluid residue could occur when repetitive application to thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the build-up of a dried residue in aerodynamically quite areas

(Answer is not verified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should be done with the yellow (bottom) copy of the DAR (De/Anti-icing Request) form after De/Anti-icing is completed?

A

It should be handed to the dispatcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When a two-step de-icing procedure is necessary the second step should be applied

Select one:

a. Less than three minutes after the first step was started and if necessary done area by area

b. Less than five minutes after the first step was started and if necessary done area by area

c. Less than two minutes after the first step was started and if necessary done area by area

d. Less than five minutes after the first step was started, but never done area by area

A

a. Less than three minutes after the first step was started and if necessary done area by area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When completing the technical log after satisfactory completion of the de-icing/anti-icing procedure and of the post treatment check the following information should be supplied by the handling agent and filled in the technical log

A

Fluid type, fluid mixture and the time of commencement of application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When correcting MDA/DA for cold temperatures

Select one:

a. MDA/DA should not be corrected for cold temperature

b. Ensure that you enter the Altitude Correction Table with your altitude (QNH) and not your height

c. Only MDA should be corrected for cold temperature as DA is always based on the radio altimeter

d. Ensure that you enter the Altitude Correction Table with your height and not your altitude (QNH)

A

d. Ensure that you enter the Altitude Correction Table with your height and not your altitude (QNH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When landing on a contaminated runway, which runway condition codes reported on the RCR prohibit landing?

A

1 and 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When using engine anti-ice you should
Select one:

a. On the ground, maximum taxi speed is 15kts

b. Have the ENGINE START switches in CONT

c. On the ground the ENGINE START switches may be OFF

d. In flight, increase thrust to 30%N1 minimum

A

b. Have the ENGINE START switches in CONT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following areas must be inspected by the captain, engineer or qualified person to determine if de-icing/anti-icing is required?

A

Wings, fuselage, control surfaces, Engine inlets, Pitot and static ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following factors may affect the ‘Hold Over’ time and must be taken into consideration when completing the Pre Takeoff check

Select one:

a. Changes to precipitation intensity or type

b. Flap configuration and/or late Flap selection

c. Thrust used during taxi

d. Use of Wing anti ice during taxi

A

a. Changes to precipitation intensity or type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following fluids are not normally used in Ryanair operations?

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

a. Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited

b. Use of wing anti-ice and engine anti-ice at the same time is not recommended

c. Use of wing anti-ice during holding is prohibited

d. Increase thrust above 40% when using wing anti-ice

A

a. Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of the following steps is the commander responsible for?

Select one:

a. Application of de-icing/anti-icing fluids, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check, calculation of the holdover time

b. Contamination check, application of de-icing/anti-icing fluids, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check, calculation of the holdover time

c. Contamination check, application of de-icing/anti-icing fluids, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check

d. Contamination check, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check, calculation of the holdover time

A

d. Contamination check, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check, calculation of the holdover time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which Statement is correct
Select one:

a. If there was no ice accretion on the cowl lips during the exterior inspection there is no need to use engine anti-ice after start up

b. You should always use engine anti-ice on the ground if there is visible moisture

c. You should use the temperature and visible moisture criteria to determine if engine anti-ice is required

d. You should rely on airframe visual icing cues before activating engine anti-ice on the ground

A

c. You should use the temperature and visible moisture criteria to determine if engine anti-ice is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which statement is correct if the aircraft has been de/anti-iced:

Select one:

a. Use the OPT Optimum Thrust setting

b. 22K Thrust should be used for maximum thrust reduction.

c. A Minimum of 26K Full thrust should be used

d. A Minimum of 24K Full thrust should be used

A

d. A Minimum of 24K Full thrust should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which statement is correct regarding engine anti-ice use in flight?

Select one:

a. No correct answer is listed

b. When operating in areas of actual or anticipated icing, do not activate engine anti-ice

c. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40ºC SAT

d. Wing anti-ice must be on before and during descent in all icing conditions, including temperatures below -40ºC SAT

A

c. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40ºC SAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which statement is correct when taking off from a contaminated runway?

Select one:

a. Both fixed de-rate and assumed temperature reduced thrust are acceptable methods

b. No reduced thrust is allowed on contaminated runways.

c. The assumed temperature method of reducing takeoff thrust is prohibited

d. Only assumed temperature reduced thrust is allowed

A

c. The assumed temperature method of reducing takeoff thrust is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which statement is correct with reference to a SNOWTAM?

Select one:

a. A SNOWTAM does not include a the condition of the runway before a displaced threshold

b. The Runway Condition Code for each runway is reported in the direction of the lowest runway designator, irrespective of the runway in use.

c. Depths greater than 13mm of wet snow will not be reported

d. A SNOWTAM will only report one type of contamination

A

b. The Runway Condition Code for each runway is reported in the direction of the lowest runway designator, irrespective of the runway in use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which statement is correct with reference to the use of engine anti-ice?

Select one:

a. Rely on airframe visual icing cues before activating engine anti-ice

b. Allow ice to build up on the cowl lips and periodically shed it. This technique provides the cleanest cowl lip therefore reducing the possibility of a compressor stall.

c. Using engine anti-ice on the ground will prevent the formation of NEI

d. Use the temperature and visible moisture criteria and activate engine anti-ice prior to entering icing conditions.

A

d. Use the temperature and visible moisture criteria and activate engine anti-ice prior to entering icing conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which statement is true regarding the post treatment check?

Select one:

a. The post treatment check is always done just prior to takeoff, preferably on the runway

b. This is a check done from the flight deck to validate the hold over time

c. This is a check normally done by the de-icing crew or engineer. In the case of clear ice as requested by the commander for a tactile check on the DAR 01 form

d. This step can be omitted if a two-step de-icing procedure has been completed

A

c. This is a check normally done by the de-icing crew or engineer. In the case of clear ice as requested by the commander for a tactile check on the DAR 01 form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Who accomplishes the procedure for the “Before taxi checklist – Freezing conditions” checklist?

A

PF

(Answer is not verified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Who accomplishes the procedure for the “Shutdown checklist – Freezing conditions” checklist?

A

PF

(Answer is not verified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Who completes (reads) the “Before taxi checklist – Freezing conditions” checklist?

A

First Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Who reads the challenge and response for de/anti icing prior to engine start?

A

FO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Who reads the challenge and response for de/anti icing with engines running?

A

First Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why should the APU/ENGINE BLEED air switches be selected OFF if de-icing with the APU running?

A

To prevent de-icing fluid from being ingested and fumes and odours entering the cabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Why should we limit thrust to the minimum required, when operating over significant amounts of standing de-icing or anti-icing fluid?

Select one:

a. Excessive ingestion of de or anti-ice fluids can cause fluids to build up on compressor blades resulting in compressor stalls and engine surges

b. High thrust settings may cause de-icing fluids to spread, with the jet blast, onto a large portion of the apron causing problems for the ramp personnel

c. To avoid excessive engine vibrations caused by the pseudo plastic properties of the fluid

d. We should not limit thrust if we are in icing conditions as we need more break away thrust initially to start taxiing in cold weather

A

a. Excessive ingestion of de or anti-ice fluids can cause fluids to build up on compressor blades resulting in compressor stalls and engine surges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

With a two-step procedure, the holdover time begins?

A

At the commencement of the second step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

You are on stand and freezing fog is reported on the ATIS. Which statement is correct?

Select one:

a. You may use wing anti-ice as an alternative for ground de-icing/anti-icing to save time

b. You are not allowed to use wing anti-ice as an alternative for ground de-icing/anti-icing Application of a suitable de-ice/anti-ice fluid is required

c. Select WING and ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON before start up to ensure that no ice is present on the engines or leading edges during engine start

d. As there is no holdover time published for this condition you do not have to do anything. Normal procedures will suffice

A

b. You are not allowed to use wing anti-ice as an alternative for ground de-icing/anti-icing Application of a suitable de-ice/anti-ice fluid is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

You should use wing anti-ice on the ground?

Select one:

a. Always when engine anti-ice is used

b. Between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the airplane is or will be protected by application of Type II or Type IV fluid

c. Between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, even if the airplane is protected by application of Type II or Type IV fluid as they only protect the upper surface and not the leading edges

d. Always if a SNOWTAM has been issued for the departure airport

A

b. Between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the airplane is or will be protected by application of Type II or Type IV fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A weather radar measures what?

A

Reflectivity of the moisture in the air

106
Q

Above FL290 with the RDR-4000 weather radar which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. There is no lower limit for displaying flightpath weather

b. The lower limit for displaying flightpath weather is always FL250

c. The lower limit for displaying flightpath weather is 4000ft below the current flight level

d. The lower limit for displaying flightpath weather is 10,000ft

A

b. The lower limit for displaying flightpath weather is always FL250

107
Q

Above FL310 with the RDR-4000 weather radar which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. The lower limit for displaying flight path weather is always 25,000ft

b. The lower limit for displaying flight path weather is 4000ft below the current flight level

c. There is no lower limit for displaying flight path weather

d. The lower limit for displaying flight path weather is 10,000ft

A

a. The lower limit for displaying flight path weather is always 25,000ft

108
Q

An aircraft should avoid making an approach if a thunderstorm is active over the airfield or there are cells on the final approach centre line within

A

3 nautical miles of the field

109
Q

Can Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) be detected on weather radar?

A

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) cannot be detected by radar

110
Q

Below which altitude does the RDR-4000 Weather Radar windshear detection mode operate?

A

1800ft

111
Q

During TO & LANDING, new Predictive Windshear warning alerts are inhibited when?

A

Above 100kts and below 50ft RA

112
Q

Flightpath weather on the RDR-4000 weather radar between 10,000ft and 29,000ft is based upon what altitudes?

A

+/- 4000ft of Flightpath

113
Q

Flightpath weather on the RDR-4000 weather radar is shown out to what distance?

A

320nm

114
Q

Flying at FL 360 and a red cell appears on the weather radar. You should avoid this area by

A

Flying on the upwind side and clear of the red area by at least 20nm’s

115
Q

How does the RDR-4000 weather radar help weather avoidance at higher levels?

Select one:

a. It allows detection of lightning activity

b. It automatically reduces gain at higher levels to help identify weather

c. It automatically increases gain at higher levels to help identify weather

d. It gives warnings for hail activity

A

c. It automatically increases gain at higher levels to help identify weather

116
Q

In the climb below 6000ft with the RDR-4000 weather radar which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. There is no upper limit for displaying flightpath weather

b. The upper limit for displaying flightpath weather is 25,000ft

c. The upper limit for displaying flightpath weather is always 10,000ft

d. The upper limit for displaying flightpath weather is 4000ft above the current flight level

A

c. The upper limit for displaying flightpath weather is always 10,000ft

117
Q

Is a serviceable weather radar required for dispatch in Day Operations?

A

No, provided the aircraft is operated during day VMC only

118
Q

On Approach, if you cannot get around a thundershower?

A

Avoid the approach if within 3nm of the field

119
Q

On the RDR 4000 weather radar panel, the gain control?

Select one:

a. CAL gives minimum gain which increases intensity of returns

b. MIN reduces gain, requiring greater intensity levels to display red

c. MAX increases gain by 16dBz over the CAL setting

d. MAX will decrease all ground returns

A

b. MIN reduces gain, requiring greater intensity levels to display red

120
Q

On the RDR-4000 weather radar the worldwide terrain database requires updating?

A

There is no need for an update to this database

121
Q

On the RDR-4000 weather radar which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. Both secondary and flightpath weather have equal priority

b. Secondary weather always take precedence over flightpath weather

c. Secondary weather is not shown on the display, only flightpath weather is visible

d. Flightpath weather always takes precedence over secondary weather

A

d. Flightpath weather always takes precedence over secondary weather

122
Q

On the RDR-4000 weather radar, secondary weather is displayed as?

A

A hatched area

123
Q

On the RDR-4000 weather radar, the 3D volumetric buffer?

Select one:

a. The 3D volumetric buffer memory does not include any terrain data information

b. Contains a worldwide terrain database and removes ground returns from the weather returns

c. Contains a worldwide terrain database which must be updated or the weather radar will fail to work.

d. Contains a worldwide terrain database but does not remove ground returns from ND

A

b. Contains a worldwide terrain database and removes ground returns from the weather returns

124
Q

On the RDR-4000 weather radar?

Select one:

a. Tilt control is limited from -5° to +15°

b. There is no tilt control feature on this weather radar

c. There is no upper or lower limit for tilt control

d. Tilt control is limited from -10° to +10°

A

b. There is no tilt control feature on this weather radar

125
Q

Predictive Windshear alerting is available?

A

Below 1200 ft RA and the scan sweep is limited to a 120 degree arc

126
Q

Predictive Windshear automatically operates?

Select one:

a. Below 1800ft agl with the RDR-4000 weather radar

b. On approach only below 2300ft RA

c. Approaching thundershowers at high altitudes

d. Once airborne only

A

a. Below 1800ft agl with the RDR-4000 weather radar

127
Q

Ryanair aircraft with registration EI-FEE onwards have which weather radar installed?

A

RDR-4000 Intuvue

128
Q

The densest precipitation is indicated by which colour?

A

Red

129
Q

The only selection modes where you will get a WX radar return on the ND inflight are:

Select one:

a. WX & WX/TURB

b. TEST only

c. WX only

d. WX, WX/TURB & MAP

A

a. WX & WX/TURB

130
Q

The returns from a weather radar?

Select one:

a. Give an indication of possible turbulence and hail depending on colour

b. Show the vertical updrafts in a storm cell

c. Show the presence of volcanic ash

d. Can show clear air turbulence

A

a. Give an indication of possible turbulence and hail depending on colour

131
Q

The weather radar can detect?

Select one:

a. Clear air turbulence

b. Sufficiently sized water drops

c. Volcanic ash

d. Clouds

A

b. Sufficiently sized water drops

132
Q

Weather radar annunciation ‘WXR ATT’ on the ND indicates?

A

Loss of attitude stabilisation for antenna

133
Q

What is the preferred tilt setting for T/O and landings?

A

4 to 5 degrees up - to prevent excessive ground returns and see and avoid bad weather on the climb path ahead

134
Q

What is the primary function of the weather radar?

Select one:

a. On the runway, to clear the take-off path ahead of birds

b. To avoid thunderstorms and not penetrate areas of storm activity

c. To detect coastal areas and islands whilst enroute

d. To determine areas of severe CAT

A

b. To avoid thunderstorms and not penetrate areas of storm activity

135
Q

What is the sweep arc of the radar antenna above 2300ft RA?

A

180 degrees

136
Q

What is the typical beam width of a jet air transport weather radar antenna?
Select one:

a. 90 degrees

b. 1 degree

c. 20 degrees

d. 3 degrees

A

d. 3 degrees

137
Q

What type of turbulence can the weather radar display?

Select one:

a. Only that associated with Clear Air Turbulence (CAT)

b. Only that associated with a horizontal flow of precipitation with velocities of 5 or more meters per second toward or away from the radar antenna

c. It depends on the tilt selection

d. Only that within an arc of 90 degree’s forward

A

b. Only that associated with a horizontal flow of precipitation with velocities of 5 or more meters per second toward or away from the radar antenna

138
Q

When deviating around a thunderstorm?

Select one:

a. Deviate to the upwind side

b. Deviate to the downwind side

c. Deviate left or right

d. Climb over the anvil, if possible

A

a. Deviate to the upwind side

139
Q

When looking above the freezing level in a radar return which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. The strength of returns is reduced and so gain can be increased to compensate

b. The strength of returns is not affected by the freezing level

c. The strength of returns is reduced and so gain should also be reduced to compensate

d. The strength of returns is increased by the freezing level

A

a. The strength of returns is reduced and so gain can be increased to compensate

140
Q

When max range is selected on the EFIS control panel, weather radar returns are limited to?

A

320 nm

141
Q

When ‘TEST’ function is selected on the radar control panel, this?

Select one:

a. Tests the predictive wind shear only if on the ground

b. Is an engineering function only

c. Tests the weather radar only if on the ground

d. Tests both weather radar and Predictive Windshear if on the ground and thrust levers not advanced for TO

A

d. Tests both weather radar and Predictive Windshear if on the ground and thrust levers not advanced for TO

142
Q

Which of the following are Predictive Windshear alerts?

Select one:

a. ‘GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD’

b. All of the other answers are correct

c. During T/O, ‘WINDSHEAR AHEAD’ - below 1200ft RA

d. ’MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY’

A

b. All of the other answers are correct

143
Q

Which of the following is true with the RDR-4000 weather radar?

Select one:

a. Manual mode with the weather radar is only available on the captain’s display

b. The captain and first officer can both display weather but must have same range

c. Both pilots can display returns and have different selections, e.g. Ranges & AUTO/MAN

d. Only the captain can display weather returns on his ND

A

c. Both pilots can display returns and have different selections, e.g. Ranges & AUTO/MAN

144
Q

Which of the following is true with the RDR-4000 weather radar?

Select one:

a. The radar does not adjust for the curvature of the earth in MAN mode

b. The radar adjusts for the curvature of the earth in all modes

c. The radar does not adjust for the curvature of the earth in any mode

d. The radar adjusts for the curvature of the earth in AUTO mode only

A

b. The radar adjusts for the curvature of the earth in all modes

145
Q

Which of the following is true with the RDR-4000 weather radar?

Select one:

a. AUTO mode uses composite reflectivity to build an image of returns

b. MAN mode is restricted to 2000ft increments

c. MAN mode is only available on the FO’s side

d. MAP mode is only available on the Captains ND

A

a. AUTO mode uses composite reflectivity to build an image of returns

(Answer not verified)

146
Q

Which of the following is true?

Select one:

a. The weather radar will detect the updrafts and display this on the ND

b. The strongest updrafts are found at the base of the storm cell

c. Heavy rain is always associated with the strongest updrafts

d. The strongest updrafts are found towards the top of a storm cell

A

d. The strongest updrafts are found towards the top of a storm cell

(Answer not verified)

147
Q

Which weather radar related system is susceptible to spurious warnings?

Select one:

a. Neither systems are susceptible

b. Reactive Windshear system

c. Both Reactive & Predictive Windshear systems

d. Predictive Windshear system

A

d. Predictive Windshear system

148
Q

With WX/TURB selected on the weather radar panel?

Select one:

a. Weather and turbulence ahead, the latter to 40 nm maximum

b. Weather and turbulence ahead, both displayed up to 640 nm

c. There is no way of detecting this on the ND with no weather

d. Weather and turbulence ahead, both displayed up to 320 nm

A

a. Weather and turbulence ahead, the latter to 40 nm maximum

149
Q

WXR WEAK indicates…?

Select one:

a. Total failure of weather radar system

b. Weather radar calibration error

c. Weak output signal

d. Weak return signal

A

b. Weather radar calibration error

150
Q

A blind passenger must be accompanied by a passenger at least how old?

A

16 year’s old

151
Q

A vacant cabin crew seat may be used at discretion of the commander

Select one:

a. For a fare paying passenger in case of overbooking

b. Ryanair staff member without a ticket

c. Ryanair staff family or friends travelling with a blue ticket

d. By non-airline persons, such as personnel from aviation agencies, provided they have been authorised by the Chief Pilot and are properly ticketed

A

d. By non-airline persons, such as personnel from aviation agencies, provided they have been authorised by the Chief Pilot and are properly ticketed

152
Q

A vacant cabin crew seat may be used at discretion of the commander:

Select one:

Ryanair staff family or friends travelling with a blue ticket

A fare paying passenger who works for another airline, but is qualified on type

A person travelling on Ryanair concession travel and has a concession ticket

For a fare paying passenger in case of overbooking

A

A person travelling on Ryanair concession travel and has a concession ticket

153
Q

After activation, for how long does the ELT transmit?

A

48 Hours

154
Q

All pregnant women travelling by air which limitations apply?

Select one:

a. 37 weeks and over - Not permitted

b. Up to 31 weeks – Doctors certificate required

c. 30 - 36 weeks – Limited to single pregnancy only

d. Up to 40 weeks - permitted

A

a. 37 weeks and over - Not permitted

155
Q

An NTSB study calculates that on average, hypoxia occurs in every?

Select one:

a. 50,000 flights worldwide

b. 10,000 flights worldwide

c. 20,000 flights worldwide

d. 40,000 flights worldwide

A

a. 50,000 flights worldwide

156
Q

At two (2) minutes to land on a short notice emergency, what does the No.2 do?

A

Switch on the ELT

157
Q

At what altitude does extreme Hypoxia commence?

A

20,000ft

158
Q

Below which cabin altitude is it considered safe from Hypoxia?

A

10000 feet

159
Q

Blind passengers travelling with a sighted companion:

Select one:

a. Should preferably occupy an aisle seat with the sighted companion beside them

b. Are limited to a maximum of 10% (18)

c. Are not limited in number, provided they are accompanied by a sighted companion over 16 years of age

d. Are limited to a maximum of 4 on board

A

c. Are not limited in number, provided they are accompanied by a sighted companion over 16 years of age

(Answer not verified)

160
Q

Bomb Warning Assessment: What best describes a Red category?

A

Specific warning or credible

161
Q

Cabin crew can initiate the evacuation without the command of the Captain

A

Both pilots incapacitated and when the situation is clearly catastrophic such as major fire inside or outside, ditching, dense smoke in cabin, breaking up of the aircraft.

162
Q

Commanders Discretion allows a maximum duty time extension of
Select one:

a. Two (2) hours in all cases

b. Maximum two hours with a reduction for WOCL infringement only

c. Maximum four hours with a reduction from the fifth sector and for WOCL infringement

d. Maximum two hours with a reduction from the third sector and for WOCL infringement

A

a. Two (2) hours in all cases

163
Q

Concerning the PDI of the Toilet automatic fire extinguisher, which is the correct answer?

Select one:

a. The Nozzle tips are black

b. The Nozzle tips are brown

c. Two Nozzles are directed towards the waste bin

d. One nozzle is directed towards the waste bin

A

c. Two Nozzles are directed towards the waste bin

164
Q

Dangerous goods:

Select one:

a. Ryanair only has an endorsement on its AOC to carry certain dangerous goods

b. Aircraft spare parts may be carried between bases without NOTOC

c. Ryanair only carries dangerous goods on board as aircraft spares

d. Ryanair has no endorsement on its AOC to carry dangerous goods

A

c. Ryanair only carries dangerous goods on board as aircraft spares

165
Q

Demo Kits are stowed in the vicinity of the Jump seats, list one item that they do not contain?

Select one:

a. An oxygen Mask

b. A demo infant/extension seat belt

c. First Aid Kit

d. A Safety instruction card

A

c. First Aid Kit

166
Q

Disciplinary actions will be taken against a cabin crewmember who:

Select one:

a. Consumes alcohol within 8 hours of a report time or standby duty

b. Has > 0.3% alcohol in his blood

c. Takes prescribed drugs during the flight

d. Consumes alcohol 12 hours before report time

A

a. Consumes alcohol within 8 hours of a report time or standby duty

167
Q

Disruptive Passengers: The most effective way of minimising the on board risk is to

Select one:

a. Warn, Inform, Action

b. Offload straight away

c. Inform, Warn, Action

d. Do not confront them when drunk or intoxicated

A

c. Inform, Warn, Action

168
Q

Ditching Evacuation Drill:

Select one:

a. Flight Crew must use the escape ropes to evacuate

b. The primary exits will be the over-wing exits plus the forward doors only

c. The main doors will be below the water line

d. The primary exits will be the over-wing exits

A

b. The primary exits will be the over-wing exits plus the forward doors only

169
Q

Expectant mothers:

Select one:

a. An expectant mother should have a “fit to fly” letter signed by her doctor from the 28th week of pregnancy

b. All of the other answers are correct

c. Not permitted travel beyond the 36th week for single uncomplicated pregnancies

d. Not permitted travel beyond the 32nd week for uncomplicated twin pregnancies

A

b. All of the other answers are correct

170
Q

Following an emergency descent when is it safe for cabin crew to get off oxygen?

A

After the Captain presses the cabin attend button and says “No.1 to the flight deck”

171
Q

For how long does the oxygen generator unit in the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) last?

A

12 mins

172
Q

Fuelling with passengers boarding or on board is allowed when:

Select one:

a. Minimum of 2 doors closed with slides disarmed

b. Main door normally used for passenger disembarkation open, clear of obstructions and manned

c. All open doors must have no steps or air bridge in position till finished refuelling

d. Flight deck is manned by both pilots

A

b. Main door normally used for passenger disembarkation open, clear of obstructions and manned

173
Q

Halon fire extinguisher:

Select one:

a. Should be used in one continuous motion

b. Has a duration of 15-30 seconds

c. A PBE must be used when operating the Halon in a confined space

d. Has a range of 15 feet

A

c. A PBE must be used when operating the Halon in a confined space

174
Q

Hijacking: Some of the DO’s during hijacking are?

Select one:

a. All of the other answers are correct

b. Obey hijacker’s orders

c. Wherever possible, close and lock bars

d. Negotiate patiently

A

a. All of the other answers are correct

175
Q

How long does the Halon discharge for?

A

12-14 seconds

176
Q

How many Halon extinguishers are on board the B737-800?

A

4

177
Q

How many Water Glycol extinguishers are on the 737-800?

A

1

178
Q

How many passengers are allowed in the aircraft if there are only 3 cabin crew on board?

A

150

179
Q

How many water glycol extinguishers are on board the B737-800?

A

1

180
Q

How often should the Cabin Crew check the toilets?

A

20 minutes

181
Q

IAA inspectors may board Ryanair aircraft in Ireland and in other countries to carry out official duties:

Select one:

a. The inspectors can be from the National Civil Aviation Authorities of any state Ryanair operates

b. They may travel in the jump-seat in the flight deck to observe the flight crew, with the captain’s approval

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. They will be in the possession of a valid ID

A

c. All of the other answers are correct

182
Q

If a Cabin Crew member becomes incapacitated in flight, the following may apply?

Select one:

a. Safety demo conducted at rows 7, 16 and 22

b. A positioning, qualified Cabin Crew may be used if wearing a ‘Hi Vis’ jacket. There must be a No.1

c. The load must be limited to 130 passengers

d. The load must be limited to 100 passengers

A

b. A positioning, qualified Cabin Crew may be used if wearing a ‘Hi Vis’ jacket. There must be a No.1

183
Q

If a cabin crew member recognises the symptoms of hypoxia in a passenger or crew member, they must immediately?

A

Inform the Captain

184
Q

If a passenger fails to comply with crew instructions

A

The crew should follow the “Inform, Warn, Action” procedure

185
Q

If smoke occurs on the Flight Deck?

Select one:

a. The No.1 should be called to fight the fire

b. Passenger Oxygen must be deployed

c. The Flight Crew should immediately don oxygen masks and call for the No.1

d. The Flight Crew should immediately don oxygen masks and ensure the flight deck door is kept closed

A

d. The Flight Crew should immediately don oxygen masks and ensure the flight deck door is kept closed

186
Q

In a ‘No Time Available’ situation: If there is NO evacuation call from the flight deck, the CSS must?

Select one:

a. Standby for an evacuation call

b. Gain entry to the flight deck to check for incapacitation

c. Start the evacuation

d. Use the flight deck call chime

A

b. Gain entry to the flight deck to check for incapacitation

187
Q

In case of a bomb threat:

Select one:

a. On stand: Continue boarding the aircraft and inform ATC after boarding is complete that you will require taxi to a designated secure area

b. During taxi: You will taxi to a designated area as instructed by ATC and aim to disembark passengers using steps

c. On stand: Get towed to the designated area as instructed by ATC and disembark the passengers, preferably using the steps

d. During taxi: You will taxi to a designated area as instructed by ATC and keep the passengers on board until you can return to the gate

A

b. During taxi: You will taxi to a designated area as instructed by ATC and aim to disembark passengers using steps

188
Q

In case of a fire in the cabin:

Select one:

a. The second communicator will press 222 on the cabin interphone and inform the captain

b. The person discovering the fire will run to the front and bang 3 times on the cockpit door

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. The first communicator will give information about the fire to Captain and remind him/her of ELECTRICS

A

d. The first communicator will give information about the fire to Captain and remind him/her of ELECTRICS

189
Q

In case of pilot incapacitation:

Select one:

a. A cabin crew member will take the seat of the incapacitated pilot to assist the remaining pilot by reading the checklist

b. A MAYDAY call is not required

c. The incapacitated pilot must be secured in his/her seat and may not be removed

d. A deadheading pilot may be asked to occupy the vacated seat

A

d. A deadheading pilot may be asked to occupy the vacated seat

190
Q

In Ryanair we categorize emergencies with reference to the time available. How many categories are there?

A

5

(Answer not verified)

191
Q

In the event of a Passenger Evacuation with cargo on board?

Select one:

a. The NOTOC should be taken by the Captain when evacuating

b. The NOTOC should be taken by the F/O when evacuating

c. The NOTOC should be taken by the No.1 when evacuating

d. The NOTOC should not be taken when evacuating

A

b. The NOTOC should be taken by the F/O when evacuating

192
Q

Infants:

Select one:

a. Are not limited in number on board, provided they are allocated a seat next to their parent

b. Are limited to a maximum of 10% (18) of passenger seats

c. Are allowed to travel on the lap of the parent or on the seat next to them

d. Are children under the age of 24 months

A

d. Are children under the age of 24 months

193
Q

Land or Ditching Emergency: At approximately what height should the “Brace, Brace” command be given?

A

50ft

194
Q

Minimum for dispatch of potable water:

Select one:

a. When potable water is 1/8 full and no bars on aircraft it is permissible to depart, but on board service should be managed to conserve remaining water for unexpected SEP issues

b. All of the other answers are correct

c. When potable water is empty and bars have not been loaded the aircraft should not depart until one of these is replenished

d. When potable water is >1/8 full and bars are on board, normal service resumes until water reduces to 1/8 and then the restrictions above apply

A

b. All of the other answers are correct

195
Q

Persons with reduced mobility, unaccompanied blind people or blind people travelling with a guide dog:

Select one:

a. Are not limited when they are travelling with a carer

b. Are not allowed on board

c. Shall sit in 1A, 2F, 33A and 33F on board

d. Are limited to a maximum of 4 on board

A

d. Are limited to a maximum of 4 on board

196
Q

Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE):

Select one:

a. Should have a pink indicator

b. Can only be found in the cockpit under the jump-seat

c. Has a duration of 15 minutes

d. Should not be used when you use Halon to extinguish a fire

A

c. Has a duration of 15 minutes

197
Q

Refuelling with wheelchair passengers (PRM) on board:

Select one:

a. Is only allowed when the wheelchair passenger is embarking the aircraft

b. This is prohibited in all cases

c. It is always allowed at all airports.

d. Is allowed when the wheelchair passenger is awaiting disembarkation and no local bylaw prevents this and no financial penalty

A

d. Is allowed when the wheelchair passenger is awaiting disembarkation and no local bylaw prevents this and no financial penalty

(Answer is not verified)

198
Q

Should PAX Oxygen masks be deployed if there is smoke or fire in the cabin?

A

Do NOT deploy passenger oxygen masks

199
Q

The captain has the final responsibility for the operation and safety of the aircraft and:

Select one:

a. May not suspend another crewmember as it is each crew members own responsibility to determine whether they are fit to fly or not

b. May suspend a crew member from duty on grounds of being unfit to fulfil their duties

c. Is responsible for passengers and cargo but not for other crewmembers

d. Is responsible for passengers and crew, but not for cargo

A

b. May suspend a crew member from duty on grounds of being unfit to fulfil their duties

200
Q

The effects of Hypoxia will vary with different factors including?

Select one:

a. All of the other answers are correct

b. Rate of Ascent

c. Physical fitness

d. Drinking and Smoking

A

a. All of the other answers are correct

201
Q

The fire extinguisher located in the toilets

Select one:

a. Contain Freon and work automatically

b. Contain Halon and are activated manually

c. Contain Freon and are activated manually

d. Contain Halon and work automatically

A

a. Contain Freon and work automatically

202
Q

The Halon Fire extinguisher:
Select one:

a. Contains Water Glycol

b. Blue in colour

c. Green in colour

d. Red in colour

A

d. Red in colour

203
Q

The maximum total Duty period to which a crew member is assigned must not exceed?

Select one:

a. 190 duty hours in any consecutive 30 days

b. 60 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

c. 180 duty hours in any consecutive 28 days

d. 42 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

A

b. 60 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

204
Q

The maximum total Duty period to which a crew member is assigned must not exceed?

Select one:

a. 180 duty hours in any consecutive 30 days

b. 40 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

c. 52 duty hours in any consecutive 7 days

d. 190 duty hours in any consecutive 28 days

A

d. 190 duty hours in any consecutive 28 days

205
Q

The normal Cabin crew seating positions are as follows?

Select one:

a. Double rear facing at L1 (No.1 sits outboard; No.2 sits inboard)

b. Double rear facing at R2 (No.3 sits outboard)

c. Double rear facing at L2 (N.4 sits inboard)

d. Double rear facing at L1 (No.1 sits outboard; No.4 sits inboard)

A

d. Double rear facing at L1 (No.1 sits outboard; No.4 sits inboard)

206
Q

The sequence of general fire drill is?

Select one:

Attack, Inform, Identify, Electrics

Prepare, Identify, Attack, Inform, Electrics

Inform, Identify, Prepare, Attack, Control

Prepare, Attack, Inform, Electrics

A

Inform, Identify, Prepare, Attack, Control

207
Q

The term ‘NOTOC’ stands for?

A

Notification to the Captain

208
Q

The Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) at 35,000ft is?

A

30 – 50 seconds

209
Q

The Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) at 40,000ft is?

A

18 seconds

210
Q

The ‘Toilet Temperature Indicator’

Select one:

a. Turn from black to silver/white, if exposed to high temperatures (above 180F)

b. Turn from silver/white to black, if exposed to a temperature of 62c

c. Trigger a warning in the forward galley when exposed to high temperatures

d. Turn from silver/white to black, if exposed to high temperatures (above 180F)

A

d. Turn from silver/white to black, if exposed to high temperatures (above 180F)

211
Q

Unaccompanied blind passengers or a blind passenger with a guide dog are limited to a maximum of:

A

4 per flight on B737-800 aircraft

212
Q

Until the authorities verify you are a crewmember:

Select one:

a. You will be treated as a possible hijacker

b. Must not cooperate with them

c. Must not leave the scene

d. Kept separate from the passengers

A

a. You will be treated as a possible hijacker

213
Q

Water Glycol fire extinguisher:

Select one:

a. Should be used with short and sharp burst at the base of the fire

b. Have a duration of 15 seconds

c. Should never be used on electrical fires

d. Have a range of 6-10 feet

A

c. Should never be used on electrical fires

214
Q

What does NITS stand for?

A

Nature, Intentions, Time, Special Instructions

215
Q

What does the No.2 do when they hear “No.1 to the flight deck” during Boarding/Disembarking?

Select one:

a. Remains in the aft galley

b. Stop passengers entering the aircraft, pick up the interphone, listens, repeats back and then briefs the No.3 (if not at over-wing)

c. Stop passengers entering the aircraft, pick up the interphone, listens, repeats back and then calls the No.3 from the over-wing and briefs

d. Proceeds to the forward galley and waits

A

b. Stop passengers entering the aircraft, pick up the interphone, listens, repeats back and then briefs the No.3 (if not at over-wing)

216
Q

What is correct for a ‘Toilet Fire Drill’?

Select one:

a. Use the back of your hand on the door to assess the severity of the fire

b. Do not discharge a fire extinguisher as there may be a passenger in the toilet

c. Discharge a fire extinguisher immediately

d. Use the front of your hand on the door to assess the severity of the fire

A

a. Use the back of your hand on the door to assess the severity of the fire

(Answer not verified)

217
Q

What is the evacuation command?

A

“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits”. Repeated once

218
Q

What is the maximum number of guide dogs permitted on board?

A

4

219
Q

What is the sequence of the SOS demo?

Select one:

a. Survive impact, look outside, start evacuation (catastrophic incident)

b. Sustain impact, get out, survive outside

c. Survive impact, get out, survive outside

d. Survive impact, get out, stay outside

A

c. Survive impact, get out, survive outside

220
Q

When can cabin crew initiate the evacuation?

Select one:

a. Both flight crew are incapacitated

b. Sounds which would indicate the breaking up of the aircraft

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. Ditching

A

c. All of the other answers are correct

221
Q

When on the ground and “Cabin crew standby” is announced from the flight deck, the cabin crew will:

Select one:

a. Will immediately stop what they are doing

b. Move quickly to their assigned exit door and be checking the conditions inside and outside the aircraft

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. Be ready to evacuate if necessary

A

c. All of the other answers are correct

222
Q

When should the crew stop CPR?

Select one:

a. When paramedics take over

b. When the casualty recovers

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. You become exhausted

A

c. All of the other answers are correct

223
Q

When the Captain presses the cabin attend button and says ‘Number 1 to the flight deck’ during flight:

Select one:

a. Cabin crew nearest to the cabin interphone will pick it up and ask the captain for NITS

b. Number 1 will pick up cabin interphone to get NITS, No. 2 and No. 3 remain in aft galley and No. 2 picks up interphone, listens and then briefs NITS to No.3

c. Number 4 needs to pick up immediately cabin interphone to get NITS

d. Number 1 will pick up cabin interphone to get NITS; other cabin crew will stow the trolleys and come to the forward galley and await instructions from number 1

A

d. Number 1 will pick up cabin interphone to get NITS; other cabin crew will stow the trolleys and come to the forward galley and await instructions from number 1

(Answer not verified)

224
Q

Where can the SEP Manual be found?

A

Docunet for Flight Crew and VPOS for the Cabin Crew

225
Q

Where is the Emergency Response Guidance (ERG) located in the aircraft?

Select one:

a. OM (A) SEP Manual

b. With the folder containing the C of A etc.

c. Forward galley library

d. Aft galley

A

a. OM (A) SEP Manual

(Answer not verified)

226
Q

Where is the lowest risk bomb location on board an aircraft?

A

R2 door

227
Q

Where is the Type A/B ELT located?

A

b. Stowed near the L2 door

228
Q

Which class of fire are combustible metals?

A

Class D

229
Q

Which information need NOT be included in a NOTOC?

Select one:

a. UN number

b. The number of packages and the weight

c. The proper shipping name

d. The final land destination/address and recipient for the goods

A

d. The final land destination/address and recipient for the goods

(Answer not verified)

230
Q

Which of the following evacuation commands should be avoided?

Select one:

a. Don’t Wait

b. Come this way

c. Keep moving

d. Move faster

A

a. Don’t Wait

231
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct following a Rejected Take off?

Select one:

a. CSS calls Captain and says “Cabin to flight deck, No.1 standing by”

b. CSS ‘stands by’ for instructions. If after one minute, there is no instruction from the Captain enter the flight deck

c. All cabin crew must remain at their assigned stations

d. No.2 picks up aft interphone and says “Cabin to flight deck, No.2 standing by”

A

a. CSS calls Captain and says “Cabin to flight deck, No.1 standing by”

232
Q

Which of the following precautions must always be carried out anytime the A/C is being fuelled with passengers on board or during boarding?

Select one:

a. The airport fire service is in attendance

b. Fasten seatbelts signs are on

c. CSS is informed when fuelling starts and finishes

d. All main doors are open with steps

A

c. CSS is informed when fuelling starts and finishes

233
Q

Which of the following reports must be filed when a Commander uses discretion?

Select one:

a. ASR

b. CSR

c. Flight Duty and Rest Time Discretion report

d. The remarks section of the EFL

A

c. Flight Duty and Rest Time Discretion report

(Answer not verified)

234
Q

Which phrase should be used between the flight deck and the cabin during hijacking?

A

Use the phrase “A passenger demands to see the Captain”

235
Q

Who could be a good candidate for ABP?

Select one:

a. Fire crew

b. Positioning air crew

c. All of the other answers are correct

d. Ambulance crew

A

c. All of the other answers are correct

236
Q

Who informs the Captain in case of fire in the cabin?

A

First Communicator

237
Q

Who makes the PA to Passengers on short notice emergency?

A

CSS only

238
Q

With regards to battery powered wheelchairs:

Select one:

a. Dry cell batteries may be accepted if the battery terminals are protected from short circuits, the battery is secure and electrical circuits have been inhibited

b. Dry cell batteries are allowed and must stay connected to the device

c. No batteries are allowed on board

d. Wet-cell (spillable) batteries may be accepted for carriage

A

a. Dry cell batteries may be accepted if the battery terminals are protected from short circuits, the battery is secure and electrical circuits have been inhibited

239
Q

“Time Available”- Short Notice emergencies can be up to?

X minutes

A

5 minutes

240
Q

A fuel filter bypass light illuminates in flight. When you land it is confirmed by engineering that the fuel filter requires replacing, if there are no spare fuel filters available, which MEL restrictions apply?

Select one:

a. The filter bypass defect is listed in the MEL and the dispatch requirements are listed in the CDL

b. The filter bypass defect is not listed in the MEL which means no dispatch relief is available

c. You may depart as it’s only a bypass of the filter and fuel is still being fed into the engine

d. You may depart and you should increase the trip fuel by 5%

A

b. The filter bypass defect is not listed in the MEL which means no dispatch relief is available

241
Q

A Ramp 1 inspection should be completed by the engineers at intervals not exceeding?

Select one:

a. 72 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 48 hours

d. 96 hours

A

c. 48 hours

242
Q

Are you allowed to dispatch with an Anti-Collision Beacons inoperative at night?

Select one:

a. No as all lights must be operating

b. Yes, one may be inoperative with operating wing tip and tail strobe lights provided captain informs ground crew that the light is inoperative and inform them verbally when ready to start the engines

c. Yes, and there is a performance penalty in the CDL

d. Yes, provided that you leave fixed landing lights on at all times

A

b. Yes, one may be inoperative with operating wing tip and tail strobe lights provided captain informs ground crew that the light is inoperative and inform them verbally when ready to start the engines

243
Q

Are you allowed to dispatch with TCAS INOP?

Select one:

a. NO as all aircraft having more than 19 seats or a certified take-off mass of more than 5,700kgs must have a functioning TCAS system to operate in all classes of airspace

b. YES, the MEL provides maintenance actions for a qualified engineer to secure and deactivate the system. Repairs must be made within for 3 days and the aircraft must not be operated in uncontrolled airspace or require the system for enroute or approach procedures

c. YES, provided the aircraft is not operated within uncontrolled airspace. There is a limit of 5 days before the system must be repaired by

d. YES, the MEL provides crew actions to pull the TCAS circuit breaker and leave the TCAS deactivated for 3 Days

A

b. YES, the MEL provides maintenance actions for a qualified engineer to secure and deactivate the system. Repairs must be made within for 3 days and the aircraft must not be operated in uncontrolled airspace or require the system for enroute or approach procedures

244
Q

How many defects are you allowed to enter on the flight log page?

A

1 defect per page

245
Q

If a crew member interphone affecting flight deck to cabin communications is unserviceable, what mandatory requirement must be met in the DDG?

Select one:

a. Dispatch not approved as the CSS (No. 1) has no way to talk to the flight deck in an emergency

b. Dispatch approved provided flight deck to cabin and cabin to flight deck interphone functions operate normally on at least 50% of cabin handsets

c. Dispatch approved if the flight deck door is left unlocked

d. The CSS (No. 1) must be given a key to access the flight deck

A

b. Dispatch approved provided flight deck to cabin and cabin to flight deck interphone functions operate normally on at least 50% of cabin handsets

246
Q

If a Flap Track Fairing Tail Cone of the outboard flaps is missing what performance penalty must be applied?

A

Takeoff and landing limited weights must be reduced by 68kgs

247
Q

If the APU INLET DOOR is inoperative with the door open, are you allowed to depart?

Select one:

a. Yes, the inlet deflector may be inoperative with the door open with an 0.5% increase in trip fuel

b. Yes, the inlet deflector may be inoperative with a fuel burn increase listed in the MEL

c. Yes, the inlet deflector may be inoperative, however there is no fuel burn penalty.

d. No, the APU inlet door is required to be serviceable

A

b. Yes, the inlet deflector may be inoperative with a fuel burn increase listed in the MEL

248
Q

If the ram air system is inoperative with the door failed in the open position, what performance penalty from the CDL must be applied before dispatch?

A

Enroute climb weight reduced by 64kgs and the fuel mileage is 0.4%

249
Q

If you have to Anti-ice using Type II 75/25 fluid mixture, how do you record the fluid mixture on the flight log page in the tech log?

A

75

250
Q

If you noticed a scrape in the paint on the outside of the aircraft near the rear door, would you:

Select one:

a. Make an entry in the tech log grounding the aircraft and call an engineer

b. No action is required if you think there is no internal damage

c. Make reference to the aircraft damage record in the tech log and if damage is recorded continue normal operations

d. Say nothing and make an entry in the tech log on return to base

A

c. Make reference to the aircraft damage record in the tech log and if damage is recorded continue normal operations

251
Q

In flight the master caution alerts AIR COND and on the overhead panel the PACK light illuminates. When you reset the master caution system the PACK light extinguishes. When you land at your destination, what MEL restrictions apply and where would you find the information on the extra procedures you must adhere to in order to depart with the defective air conditioning pack?

Select one:

a. Either primary or standby controller may be inoperative provided the remaining controller is checked to operate normally. The procedure to check normal operation is in the FCOM VOL 1 manual

b. Either primary or standby controller may be inoperative provided the remaining controller is checked to operate normally. The procedure to check normal operation is in the CDL manual

c. Either primary or standby controller may be inoperative provided the remaining controller is checked to operate normally. The procedure to check normal operation is in the DDG manual

d. Either primary or standby controller may be inoperative provided the remaining controller is checked to operate normally. The procedure to check normal operation is in the FCOM VOL 2 manual

A

c. Either primary or standby controller may be inoperative provided the remaining controller is checked to operate normally. The procedure to check normal operation is in the DDG manual Correct

252
Q

In flight, the master caution alerts AIR COND and on the overhead panel the PACK light illuminates. When you reset the master caution system the PACK light extinguishes. What does this mean?

A

The primary or standby pack controller has failed

253
Q

On landing the “Anti-Skid Inop” light illuminates. The MEL has an (M), (O) symbol beside the remarks. What does this mean?

Select one:

a. The aircraft can only depart once a qualified engineer performs the (M) maintenance actions as described in the DDG. Once the engineer has completed those actions, the operating crew must also perform further tasks as described in the DDG in order to dispatch with the defective item

b. The aircraft can depart as the (O) means the operating crew perform a procedure from the DDG to depart with the defective item

c. The aircraft can depart as the (O) means the operating crew can perform the maintenance actions and the operating actions as described in the FCOM 1

d. The aircraft can depart as the (M)(O) means the operating crew can perform the maintenance actions and the operating actions as described in the DDG

A

a. The aircraft can only depart once a qualified engineer performs the (M) maintenance actions as described in the DDG. Once the engineer has completed those actions, the operating crew must also perform further tasks as described in the DDG in order to dispatch with the defective item

254
Q

One of the retractable landing light motors is unserviceable. What performance restrictions apply from the MEL/DDPG?

Select one:

a. Can be in the extended position and takeoff, enroute and landing climb weights must be adjusted and fuel burn increased by 5%

b. Can be in the extended position and takeoff, enroute and landing climb weights must be adjusted and fuel burn increased by 8%

c. Must be locked in the stowed position and there is no performance penalty

d. Must be locked in the extended position and takeoff, enroute and landing climb weights must be adjusted and fuel burn increased by 1%

A

Must be locked in the extended position and takeoff, enroute and landing climb weights must be adjusted and fuel burn increased by 1%

255
Q

What does Category C mean beside a defect in the MEL?

A

Means the defect relief has an expiry time of 10 days

256
Q

What does the (O) symbol mean beside a defect mean in the MEL?

A

Operating procedure which can be carried out by the operating crew

257
Q

What is the radio ahead code for a bleed trip off that is resettable?

A

48B

258
Q

Which of the following is NOT true if you have a single Radio Altimeter inoperative?

Select one:

a. Associated flight director is not used for approach and landing

b. The autothrottle can still be used for approach and landing

c. You can not perform a CAT II/III approach

d. Associated autopilot must not be used for approach and landing

A

b. The autothrottle can still be used for approach and landing

259
Q

When using the MEL, which other manual should you always reference?

Select one:

a. DDG for the procedures associated with the dispatch relief for the defective item

b. FCOM VOL 1 for supplementary procedures

c. The CDL for more information about the defective item

d. FCOM VOL 2 for system descriptions

A

a. DDG for the procedures associated with the dispatch relief for the defective item

260
Q

Where is the CRS (certificate of release to service) located?

A

A certificate located in the Techlog

RTC Questions (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions