Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Basic Haematology > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lifespan for red blood cells?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

This is the production of red blood cells (erythrocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the nature of vitamin B-12?

A

Solely ANIMAL BASED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hormone is the process of Erythropoiesis regulated by?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the primitive mother cells known as?

A

Pluripotent Stem Cells
They give rise to Myeloid cells and Lymphoid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the order of growth for Erythropoiesis?

A

1.Stem Cell
2.Proerythroblast
3. Early erythroblast
4.Late Erythroblast
5.Normoblast
6.Reticulocyte
7.Erythrocytes

As cells mature the size decreases and their is a loss of nucleus. Nucleus function is replaced by certain enzymes in a fully mature cell. Haemoglobin is now present as cells mature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the necessary requirements for Erythropoiesis?

A

Iron man - IRON
Fought - FOLATE
Captain - COBALT SALT
America - ANDROGENS
Villans - VITAMIN B 12

” Iron man Fought Captain America Villans”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is Erythropoietin produced?

A

90% - Kidney (Peritubular Interstitial cells)
10%- Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What substances stimulate Erythropoietin production?

A

1.Oxygen Tension in tissues Kidneys
2. Hypoxia Inducible factors ( HIF -1 alpha and beta) under hypoxic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of Erythrocytes?

A

Transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the characteristics of Erythrocytes?

A
  • Biconcave, Anucleate
  • Contains Haemoglobin
  • Contains Lipids, ATP, Carbonic Anhydrase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does Erythropoiesis last for?

A

4-8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the size of a regular RBC

A

7-8 microns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can Plasma Erythropoietin be used to diagnose?

A

Anaemia- They are high in anaemic persons
Renal disease or Polycythaemia Vera - They are low in persons with this disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the transcription factor GATA -2 ?

A

These are involved in initiating erythroid differentiation from Pluripotent cells.

” Gata is too(2) different”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of transcription factors GATA- 1 and FOG-1 ?

A

They are important in enhancing the expression of erythroid-specific genes ex globin , haem biosynthetic and red cell membrane proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False?
The levels of Erythropoietin are high in persons with Polycythaemia vera and renal diseases?

A

FALSE!! Levels of Erythropoietin are LOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False?
The levels of Erythropoietin are High in persons with Anaemia or a person with a erythropoietin secreting tumour?

A

TRUE!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the dominant haemoglobin present in the blood after ages 3-6 months?

A

Haemoglobin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Characteristics of Haemoglobin A

A

Two alpha and two beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where does Haem synthesis occurs?

A

In the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long does Leucopoeisis lasts?

A

10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the functions of Phagocytes?

A

The function of phagocytes and lymphocytes in protecting the body against infection is closely connected with two soluble protein systems of the body: immunoglobulins and complement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the lifecycle of granulocytes?

A

4-8 hrs in blood
4-5 days in the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the lifespan of monocytes?

A

10- 20 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Aplastic Anaemia?

A

Aplastic Anaemia is the condition where the body stops producing stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Characteristics of Neutrophils

A
  1. 5-6 lobed nucleus
  2. Specific granules contain leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, hydrolyses,lactoferrin,lysozyme,
  3. Lifespan in blood is 6-10 hrs
    4.First responders cells/ ,most frequent cells
  4. Azurophilic granules (pink-blue in colour) contain proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and ~-glucuronidase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the precursors of Neutrophils?

A

1.Myeoblast
2. Promyelocytes
3.Myelocytes
4.Metamyelocytes
5. Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the different types of Neutrophils?

A

Non- Segmented - Immature neutrophils that can be seen in acute infections or inflammation. The bone marrow is sending out everything it has to fight an infection, even if the cells are not fully mature.

Segmented- mature or morphologically appropriate neutrophils with three to five nuclear lobes.

Hypersegmented- neutrophils usually have more than five lobes and are associated with vitamin
B12 or folate deficiencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Ferrous state?

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Ferric state?

A

Fe 3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

By what pathway can Red blood cells generate ATP?

A

By Anaerobic Glycolytic pathway ( Embden-Meyerhof) pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

By what pathway can RBC’s produce Glutathione?

A

By the Hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate) HMP shunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the overall process of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway ?

A

Converts glucose to lactate producing a net production of 2 ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the main purpose of Gluthatione produced from the HMP shunt ?

A

It protects the red blood cells from oxidative stress - eliminating heamolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where does Haem synthesis occurs?

A

In the mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where do further Haem synthesis reactions take place?

A

In the cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Overview of Haem synthesis

A
  1. Condensation of glycine and succinyl co-enzyme A under the KEY RATE- LIMITING enzyme δ‐aminolaevulinic acid (ALA) synthase .
    2.Further reactions take place in the cytoplasm leading to the formation of protoporphyrin IX
  2. The enzyme ferrochelatase catalyse the insertion of ferrous iron into protoporphyrin IX to form heme
    4.This combines with globin chain to form haemoglobin molecule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the components of Adult Haemoglobin

A

2α chains
2β chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the components of foetal haemoglobin?

A

2α chains
2 gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the clinical uses of erythropoietin?

A

Anaemia of chronic renal disease
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Anaemia associated with malignancy and chemotherapy
Anaemia of chronic diseases, e.g. rheumatoid arthritis
Anaemia of prematurity
Preoperative uses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens when the oxygen molecules are unloaded in a haemoglobin molecules?

A

When O2 is unloaded the β chains are pulled apart, permitting entry of the metabolite 2,3‐diphosphoglycerate (2,3‐DPG) resulting in a lower affinity of the molecule for O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or false? When there is increased affinity to oxygen , the dissociation curve shifts to the right.

A

FALSE!! With increased affinity the curve shifts to the LEFT. With a decreased affinity the curve shifts to the RIGHT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or False? Faetal haemoglobin doesn’t bind to 2,3 -DPG meaning they give up Oxygen less readily than normal.

A

TRUE!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Methaemoglobinaemia ( Hb Ms)?

A

This is a clinical state in which circulating haemoglobin is present with iron in the oxidized (Fe3+) instead of the usual Fe2+ state.

( Fe2+ is the normal state haemoglobin is transferred in)

  • It is present in intravascular haemolysis but NOT extravascular haemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What disease has a symptom of cyanosis? ( blue-purple colouring of the skin?

A

Toxic Methemoglobinaemia. It occurs when a drug or other toxic substance oxidizes haemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is ptosis?

A

Drooping of the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the normal haemoglobin value in men and women?

A

11.5- 15.5mmHg in Women
15.5- 17.5 mmHg in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a next byproduct of Embden–Meyerhof pathway?

A

NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the purpose of NADPH in this Embder-Meyherhof reaction?

A

It is needed by the enzyme methaemoglobin reductase to reduce functionally dead methaemoglobin containing ferric iron (produced by oxidation of approximately 3% of haemoglobin each day) to functionally active, reduced haemoglobin containing ferrous ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which shunt produces 2,3 Diphosphoglyceric acid (2,3,DPG) which when bound to Hb, decreases its affinity for Oxygen leading to Oxygen delivery to tissues.

A

Luebering- Rapaport shunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does a deficiency of pyruvate kinase cause?

A

Haemolysis of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What process occurs in the HMP shunt?

A

Approximately 10% of glycolysis occurs by this oxidative pathway in which glucose‐6‐phosphate is converted to 6‐ phosphogluconate and so to ribulose‐5‐phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is NADPH also generated?

A

The HMP shunt. It also produces Glutathione which maintains sulphhydril group (SH) groups intact in the cells and also haemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is as a result glucose‐6‐phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?

A

Oxidative stress leading to episodic heamolysis of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How can oxidative stress arise?

A

Deficiency of G6PD and Pyruvate kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are Heinz bodies?

A

These are erythrocyte structures composed of precipitated denatured haemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the function of pyruvate kinase?

A

Pyruvate kinase catalyses the conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvic acid, generating 2 molecules of ATP.
The ATP generated is used to maintain membrane integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the clinical features of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A
  1. Chronic, non- spherocytic haemolytic anaemia
    2.Splenomegaly and gall stones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are gall stones comprised of?

A

They are comprised of calcium salts of unconjugated bilirubin from the chronic haemolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True of false ?
RBCs cannot compensate for enzyme imperfections and cannot synthesize new enzymes to replace those that become exhausted during the cell’s lifetime.

A

TRUE!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the enzymes involved in glycolysis?

A

P PFKM – phosphofructokinase (PFK)
P GK1 – phosphoglycerate kinase (PGK
P - PKLR – pyruvate kinase (PK)
H - HK1 – hexoskinase isoform (HK)
G - GPI – glucose-6-phosphate isomerase (GPI)
“triple P , HG”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the enzymes involved in Glutathione metabolism?

A

G-G6PD – glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
G-GSR- Glutathione reductase
G-GSS- Glutathione synthase

‘Triple G’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the enzymes for Purine metabolism?

A

P - NT5C3A - pyrimidine 5 nucleotidase
A - ADA - Adenosine deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What colour tube has an anticoagulant agent (EDTA) and can be used to identify blood count?

A

Purple top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What agent does a blue top use and what is tested for?

A

Trisodium citrate and is used for coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What colour tube is used for molecular studies, cytogenics and lymphocyte count?

A

Green tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What stain is used when testing the morphology of blood?

A

Wright or May- Grunwald -Giemsa stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How long does it take a reticulocyte to mature

A

1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where is Iron mainly absorbed?

A

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the daily absorption of iron?

A

1 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the daily loss of iron for males?

A

1 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the factors favouring iron absorption?

A
  1. Haem iron
    2.Ferrous form (Fe2+)
  2. Acids (Hcl, Vit C)
  3. Solubilizing agents ( ex sugars, amino acids)
    5.Reduced serum hepcidin
    6.Ineffective erythropoiesis
    7.Pregnancy
    8.Hereditary haemochromatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are factors reducing iron absorption?

A

1.Inorganic iron
2. Ferric form
3. Alkalis- antacids, pancreatic secretions
4. Precipitating agents
5.Increased serum hepcidin
6. Decreased erythropoiesis
7.Inflammation
8. Pytates(wheat, cereal), oxalates(tomato, spinach), carbonates, tannates (tea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is iron normally stored?

A

Hepatocytes in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the differences between inorganic iron and heam iron?

A

Inorganic iron - This is the iron coming from fruits and vegetables
Haem iron - This is the iron coming from animals ,and meats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the daily loss of iron for females?

A

1.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a next name for Haemochromatosis?

A

Bronze diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where can Hemsosiderin be found?

A

In the macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the soluble form of Iron?

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

True or False? Hemosiderin is an insoluble form of iron

A

TRUE!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the name of the protein that is the entrance of iron into the portal plasma?

A

Ferroportin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the name of the protein that allows for iron to exit the cell?

A

Ferroportin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is unconjugated billirubin?

A

This is the bilirubin that cannot leak into urine, it is very large and also binded to a bilirubin binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the different evidence of Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

1.Elevated bilirubin
2.Decreased haptoglobin
3.Elevated LDH
4.Elevated AST
5.Patient has Jaundice( Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)
6. Dark faeces
7.Increased reticulocytes
8.Increased urobilinogen in urine
9. Pigmented gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the different branches of anemias?

A

1.Mircrocytic MCV less than 80 fL
2.Normocytic ( Haemolytic & Non hemolytic) 80-100 fL
3.Macrocytic more than 100 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

At the end of their life cycle, where are red blood cells broken down?

A

In the macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the nature of a ferritin molecule?

A

It contains 22 sub units and a iron-phosphate-hydroxide -core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe Haemosiderin ?

A
  • It is an insoluble protein–iron complex of varying composition containing approximately 37% iron by weight.
  • It is derived from partial lysosomal digestion of ferritin molecules and is visible in macrophages and other cells by light microscopy after staining by Perls’ (Prussian blue) reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the name of the copper containing enzyme that catalyses oxidation of the iron TO the ferric form in order to be binded to plasma transferrin?

A

Caeruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

True or False? Low concentrations of 2-3,DPG , H+ ions , Carbon dioxide and Hb S (Sicke cell anaemia ) will shift the Oxygen concentration curve to the right.

A

FALSE!! HIGH concentrations of all of these will shift the curve to the Right!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is Intravascular Haemolysis?

A

Intravascular Haemolysis is the breakdown of Red Blood Cells that occurs within the blood vessels/circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the different evidences of Intravascular Haemolysis?

A

Gosh- Gall stones (chronic)
this
H- Haemoglobinuria. (chronic)
H -Haptoglobin decrease
H- Haemoglobinanaemia
H- Haemosiderinuria (chronic)
A- Acute tubular necrosis
A- AST increase
M- Methaemglobinaemia
M- Methaemalbuminaemia
Lunch - LDH Increase
is
Unbelievable - Urobilinogen in urine

“Gosh!!! this HHHHAMM Lunch is Really Unbelievable”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is Extravascular Haemolysis

A

Extravascular Haemolysis is the breakdown of RBC’s by macrophages of the Reticuloendothelial system in liver and spleen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are evidences of Extravascular Haemolysis?

A

L - LDH increase
U - Urobilinogen in urine
S - Spelenogamaly( MAIN ONE)
A- AST increase
R- Reticulocytosis

” I LUSAR than Lucy , I sweeter than Juicy “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the two products after the break down of haem?

A

Iron (Fe2+) and Protophyron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the three divisions of Intrinsic Haemolysis aka (Hereditary)

A

Defects in RBC Metabolism
Defects in Haemoglobin Structure, function and production
Defects in RBC membrane production

“HRR Defects”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Examples of Defects in RBC metabolism.

A

These are the E- Enzymes
P- Pyruvate Kinase deficiency
G - G6DP deficiency

Not” ECG “but “EPG” lool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Examples of Defects in Haemoglobin structure, function and production.

A

Some- Sickle Cell disease
Terrible- Thalassemia
Haemoglobin - HbC disease

“Some Terrible Haemoglobin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Examples ofdefects of RBC cell membrane production.

A

Please - Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Help - Hereditary elliptocytosis
Henry’s- Hereditary spherocytosis
membrane

“Please Help Henry’s membrane”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the causes of Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Extravascular haemolysis due to defect in proteins interacting with RBC membrane skeleton + plasma membrane.
These proteins are: BAPS - Band 3 protein, Ankyrin, Paladin, Spectrin(alpha &beta)
Results: small , round RBC with no central pallor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the clinical finding asscociated with Hereditary sperocytosis?

A
  1. Splenegomaly
  2. Aplastic crises ( Parovirus B19) infection
    Test: Eosin malemide (EMA ) binding test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How does one treat Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is Hereditary Elliptocytosis?

A

This is a failure of spectrum heterodimers to self associate into heterotetramers . Patients with this may also present with severe haemolytic anaemia aka hereditary pyropoikilocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is South East Asian Ovalocytosis?

A

This is caused by a nine amino acid deletion at the junction of they cytoplasmic and transmembrane domains of the band 3 protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

True or false? A deficiency in G6DP mostly affects females and is carried by males?

A

FALSE!! It mostly affects MALES and is carried by females.
X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are some causes of Intravascular heamolysis

A
  1. Mismatched blood transfusion
    2.G6PD deficiency with oxidant stress
    3.Red cell fragmentation syndrome
    4.Some severe autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
    5.Drug infected - drug Induced Haemolytic anaemia
    6.Paraoxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
    7.March haemoflobinuria (
    characterised by long walking/ running ~ might have this tbh lol)
  2. Unstable haemoglobin
    9.G6PD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the different causes for a G6PD deficiency?

A

Infections and other acute illnesses ex diabetic ketoacidosis
Drugs
Antimalarias(chloroquine)
Sulphonamides and sulphites
Other antibacterial agents
Analgesics ex aspirin
Antihelminths
Vitamin K analogues, Naphthalene, Probenecid
Fava Beans (Vica fava) contains Divicine- oxidant compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with G6PD deficiency?

A

1.Back Pain
2.Haemoglobinuria
3.Neonatal jaundice
4. Non-spherocytic haemolytic anemia (rare)
5. Lab results - bite cells and Heinz bodies

“Stress makes me bite fava beans with Heinz ketchup”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What can a defect in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway lead to?

A

Non spherocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which test can be used to determine G6PD deficiency and Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

A

Direct Enzyme Assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the features of Pyruvate Kinase deficiency?

A

The red blood cells become rigid because of a reduced ATP leading to extravascular haemolysis. There is also an increase in the 2,3-DPG enzyme so Oxygen affinity decreases .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the clinical features of Pyruvate Kinase deficiency?

A
  • Autosomal recessive
    -Jaundice
  • Gall stones
    -Prickle cells
    -Poikilocytosis (an increase in abnormal red blood cells of any shape that makes up 10% or more of the total population.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the different types of Extrinsic (Acquired ) Haemolytic anaemia?

A

Autoimmune: Warm type Anitbodies & Cold type antibodies
Alloimmune
Red Cell fragmentation syndromes
March haemoglobinuria Infections (malaria,clostrida, babesia)
Chemical and physical agents (Drugs, Industrial/domestic substances, burns)
Secondary Diseases (liver & renal disease)
PNH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are autoimmune haemolytic aneamias?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemias (AIHAs) are caused by antibody production by the body against its own red cells. They are characterized by a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT), also known as the Coombs’ test ) and divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types (Table 6.5) according to whether the antibody reacts more strongly with red cells at 37°C or 4°C.

116
Q

What is the lifespan of platelets?

A

10 days

117
Q

What is the lifespan for monocytes?

A

20-40hrs

118
Q

What is the lifespan of Neutrophils in the blood?

A

6-10hrs

119
Q

Where is thrombopoeitin made?

A

In the liver

120
Q

Which immunoglobulin is used to coat RBC’s in Warm haemolytic anaemia?

A

Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
“WARM weather is Great”

121
Q

What type of antibody does RBC’s bind to in cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

IgM
“ Cold weather is MMMiserable “

122
Q

In which diseases are the antibodies monoclonal?

A
  1. Primary cold haemagglutinin syndrome
  2. Lymphoproliferative disorders such as Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
123
Q

In which diseases are the antibodies transient polyclonal?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis
Mycoplasma pneumonia

” Cold weather is MMMiserable “

124
Q

What laboratory findings would occur in a patient with Warm Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Spherocytes on peripheral blood smear
Positive Direct antiglobin test (DAT)

125
Q

What temperature are the antibodies presented in Warm AIHA ?

A

37°C.

126
Q

What are some clinical features of Warm AIHA?

A

1.Splenegomaly
2.Evan’s syndrome ( Warm AIHA + idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

127
Q

What are the RBC’s coated with in warm AIHA when secondary to SLE?

A

Immunoglobulins and complement

128
Q

At what temperature will IgM antibodies bind to RBC’s optimally?

A

4°C

129
Q

True or false?
Only complement factors can be detected on red cells in laboratory tests as the IgM antibody is eluted off as cells flow through warmer parts of the circulation.

A

TRUE!!!

130
Q

What is Primary Cold Agglutinin disease?

A

This is when the patient has a chronic haemolytic anaemia aggravated by the cold and often associated with intravascular haemolysis.

131
Q

What are the clinical features of Primary cold agglutinin disease?

A

Mild jaundice
Splenomegaly
Acrocyanosis ( Purplish colour on skin)
Red cell agglutination present
Only complement C3d present.

132
Q

What is alloimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

In these anaemias, antibody produced by one individual reacts with red cells of another.

133
Q

What are the three mechanisms through which Drug induced haemolytic anaemia can arise?

A

1.Antibody directed against a drug–red cell membrane complex (e.g. penicillin, ampicillin); this only occurs with massive doses of the antibiotic.
2.Deposition of complement via a drug–protein (antigen)– antibody complex onto the red cell surface (e.g. quinidine, rifampicin); or
3. A true autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in which the role of the drug is unclear (e.g. methyldopa).

In each case, the haemolytic anaemia gradually disappears when the drug is discontinued.

134
Q

What is Hematocrit?

A

Hematocrit is the percentage by volume of red cells in your blood.

135
Q

True or False? Intravascular Heamolysis plays little or no part in normal red cell destruction?

A

TRUE!!

136
Q

What clusters of genes found on globin chains are found on chromosome 11?

A

ε, γ, δ and β Epsilon, Gamma, Delta and Beta

137
Q

What number chromosome is ζ and α found ( Zeta and alpha) ?

A

Chromosome 16

138
Q

At what position does the gamma chain differ at Gγ and Aγ (glycine and alanine)?

A

At position 136 on the polypeptide chain.

139
Q

True or false? All globin genes have three exons(coding regions) and two introns ( non- coding regions whose DNA is not represented in the finished protein)

A

TRUE!! ( globin has 3 exes and two maIN men”

140
Q

What sequence does the introns begin and end with?

A

Begin. - G-T dinucleotide
Ends: A-G dinucleotide

“beGin”

141
Q

A defect in globin synthesis may give rise to what disease?

A

Thalassemia
Haemolysis
Ineffective erythropoiesis

142
Q

What are the purposes of the sequences needed for globin synthesis?

A

It influences gene transcription, ensures fidelity, specify sites for the initiation and termination of translation and ensure the stability of newly synthesized mRNA.

143
Q

What are important in tissue specific regulation of globin gene expression and in the regulation of synthesis of various globulin chains during metal and postnatal life?

A

Enahncers

144
Q

Where are promoters found?

A

At the 5′ of the gene.

145
Q

What is the locus control region (LCR)?

A

It is a genetic regulatory element, situated upstream of the β‐globin cluster, that controls genetic activity by opening up the chromatin to allow transcrip­ tion factors to bind.

146
Q

When does the switch occur from fetal Hb to adult Hb?

A

3–6 months AFTER birth when synthesis of the γ chain is replaced by β chains.

147
Q

What is a major transcriptional regulator of the switch from fetal Hb to adult Hb?

A

BCL11A

148
Q

In what state is inorganic iron “ non heme” ?

A

ferric, Fe3 + state ( coming from plants and has to be reduced to the Ferrous state, Fe2 +

149
Q

Hb S, Hb C , Hb D and Hb E are as a result in substations of which chain?

A

Beta chain

150
Q

Which thalassemia is more common in the Mediterranean region?

A

Beta Thalassemia

151
Q

True or False? Alpha thalassemia is also common in the Mediterranean region?

A

FALSE!! They are more common in the Far East region

152
Q

What are examples of Microcytic Anaemia?

A

T - Thalassemias
A- Anaemia of chronic disease
I- Iron deficiency
L- Lead poisoning
“ Tail”

153
Q

What are examples of Macrocytic Anaemia ?

A

Megaloblastic Non-megaloblastic
F- Folate Deficiency L- Liver disease
O- Orotic Aciduria A- Alcoholism
F- Fanconi Anaemia D- Diamand- Blackfan
V- Vitamin B-12 deficiency Anaemia
“FOF was Very LAD”

154
Q

What are types of Non-haemolytic anaemia

A

C- Chronic Kidney disease
I- Iron deficiency
A-Anaemia of chronic disease
A- Aplastic Anaemia

155
Q

True or False? Alpha thalassemia is not a disorder of ineffective erythropoiesis.

A

TRUE!!

156
Q

What would be the best treatment for persons with HbH disease ( usually associated with 3 alpha gene deletion)?

A

Splenectomy - This is due to the fact that there is an increase in H (β4) in the blood which may result in the formation of Heinz bodies. These Heinz bodies are then cleared by the spleen resulting in Splenomegaly.

157
Q

What are the clinical features associated with 4 alpha chain deletion Thalassemia?

A

1.Hydrops fetalis ( is a condition in which large amounts of fluid build up in a baby’s tissues and organs, causing extensive swelling (edema).
2. Excess y4 formation
3. Foetus will die.

158
Q

What are the clinical features associated with one alpha chain deletion in alpha thalassemia?

A

1.No symptoms present
2. Low MCV and MCH
3. Red cell count Is over 5.55 × 10 ^12/L.

159
Q

What is another name for Beta Thalassemia major?

A

Cooley Anaemia

160
Q

True or False? Persons with Beta thalassemia trait who have excess alpha genes tend to be less anaemic than usual?

A

FALSE!! They tend to be more anaemic than usual.

161
Q

What is Haemoglobin Lepore?

A

This is an abnormal haemoglobin caused by unequal crossing‐over of the β and δ genes to produce a polypeptide chain consisting of the δ chain at its amino end and β chain at its car­boxyl end.

162
Q

What is a next name for Vitamin B12?

A

Cobalamin

163
Q

Where is Intrinsic factor produced?

A

By the cardia and fundus and cardia of the stomach parietal cells

164
Q

Where does Intrinsic factor plus B12 (IF-B12) bind to Cubulin?

A

In the ileum

165
Q

What is the name of the compound to which vitamin b12 in the portal blood binds to?

A

Transcobalamin (TC, or Transcobalamin II)

166
Q

Congenital Transcobalamin deficiency causes what disease?

A

Megaloblastic Anaemia

167
Q

What is Haptocorin (transcobalamin 1 ) synthesised by?

A

Ganulocytes and Macrophages

168
Q

What is the minimal daily adult requirement for Vitamin B12?

A

1-2 μg

169
Q

What is the daily adult requirement for folate?

A

100–150 μg

170
Q

What is the function of the second protein Aminionless in the B12 absorption?

A

It directs endocytosis of the cubilin IF–B12 complex in the ileal cell so that B12 is absorbed and IF destroyed

171
Q

Why is the B12 levels in serum in TC deficiency normal than that of the b12 levels in blood plasma in TC deficiency low?

A

This is because B12 in serum binds to Haptocorin ( also called Transcobalamin 1) which is different than that of B12 in blood plasma which binds to Transcobalamin II aka TC aka Transcobalamin)

172
Q

What is the body stores in Folate?

A

10-12 mg (sufficient for 4 months)

173
Q

What is the body store of B12 ?

A

2-3 mg ( sufficient for 2-4 years)

174
Q

What is the range that B12 binds to TC?

A

Normally Very low (<50ng/L).

175
Q

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed in the body?

A

Ileum

176
Q

Where is folate absorbed in the body?

A

Duodenum and Jujenum ( Mainly Jujenum)

177
Q

True or False? Cooking has a great effect on Vitamin B12 ( it is easily destroyed?

A

FALSE!! Cooking has little effect on vitamin B12 it has a GREAT effect on FOLATE ( it is easily destroyed)

178
Q

What are dietary sources for folate?

A

Dark green leafy vegetables, yeast, liver etc

179
Q

True or false? Folate is weakly bound to albumin?

A

TRUE!!

180
Q

What is the form in which folate is circulated in plasma?

A

Methyltetrahydrofolate (methylTHF)- a reduced monoglutamate!!

181
Q

A deficiency in folate and vitamin B12 is said to cause?

A

Megaloblastic Anaemia

182
Q

What is the normal dietary intake for folate?

A

200-250 μg

183
Q

What is the physiological dietary folate need for women who are pregnant?

A

600mcg

184
Q

What is the stable form of Vitamin B12 ?

A

Cyanocobalamin

185
Q

What condition does vitamin b12 absorption take place in?

A

Acidic conditions - pH 5.4

186
Q

What is another name for Transcobalamin 1?

A

TC 1, Haptocorin, R-protein

187
Q

What is the function of Haptocorin?

A

To protect Cobalamin from acidic environments of the GI tract

188
Q

Where are Transcobalamins III found?

A

In neutrophils

189
Q

Where are transcobalamins II synthesised?

A

They are synthesised by monocytes, endothelial cells, epithelial cells.

190
Q

Where is Haptocorin located?

A

In monocytes, mature granulocytes, exocrine epithelial cells in Saliva, gastric acid, bile and breast milk.

191
Q

Where is Folate stored?

A

In the liver

192
Q

True or False? Aplastic crisis results in a fall in the Hb levels and a rise in the reticulocyte count.

A

FALSE!! Aplastic crises results in a fall in the Hb levels and a FALL in the reticulocyte count !! Haemolytic crises results in a fall in Hb and a RISE in reticulocyte count.

193
Q

True or false? Peripheral neuropathy is a sign/symptom of vitamin B12 AND folate deficiency?

A

FALSE!! Peripheral neuropathy is ONLY a sign/symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency.

194
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

This is a condition in which there is a lower-than-normal number of red and white blood cells and platelets in the blood.

195
Q

What causes rapid inactivation of body B12 by oxidizing the reduced cobalt atom of methyl B12?

A

Nitrous Oxide

196
Q

True or False? In folate deficiency there is an INCREASE in homocysteine and an NORMAL level of Methylmalonic acid?

A

TRUE!!

197
Q

In Vitamin B12 deficiency what are the laboratory findings

A

1) Decreased Hb and Hct
2) MCV is increased
3) Peripheral blood smear shows pancytopenia, oval macrocytosis, hypersegmented neutrophils
4) INCREASED levels of homocysteine AND methylmalonic acid

198
Q

What is Diamond - Blackfan anaemia?

A

It is s a rare inherited congenital erythroid aplasia that normally presents within the first year of life. It is characterized by a defect leading to a decrease in erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow. CF- triphalangeal thumb ( thumb looks like a regular finger, elevated HbF ,

199
Q

What is the main distinction between Megaloblastic anaemias and non megaloblastic anaemias?

A

Megaloblastic has hypersegmented neutrophils while non megaloblastic has no hypersegmented neutrophils

200
Q

In a congestive state of splenomegaly, what are the findings?

A

Marked enlargement
Firm(cricket ball)
Histology
- Gamma Gandy bodies
- Fibrosis
- Infarcts
- Extramedullary haemopoesis

201
Q

In a haematological state (sickle cell disease)of splenomegaly, what are the findings?

A
  1. Gamma Gandy bodies
  2. Congestion of splenic cords
    3.Depressed scars
  3. Repeated hemorrhagic infarction
  4. Sequestration ( in childhood)
  5. Autosplenctomy ( in puberty)
202
Q

In relation to Splenomegaly, In which disease would you find Erythrophagocytosis?

A

Typhoid fever

203
Q

In relation to Splenomegaly, In what disease would you see Mononucleosis?

A

EBV ( Epstein-Barr Virus)

204
Q

What are the clinical findings in Splenomegaly due to Infections?

A

1.Moderatley Enlarged
2. Very soft, semi- liquid ,diffluent(mushy)
3. Congested

205
Q

What are sone examples of Autoimmune diseases that can cause Splenomegaly?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis(RA)
Amyloidosis
Sarcoidosis
Systematic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

“RASS”

206
Q

True or False? Folate is needed to convert Serine to Glycine

A

TRUE!!
“ F Serena in gossip girl”

207
Q

What enzyme would be inhibited in B12 deficiency?

A

Thymidylate synthase

208
Q

What are the clinical findings in Splenomegaly due to AI diseases?

A

Marked to moderatley enlarged
Prominent White pulp

White pulp hyperplasia

209
Q

What are the causes of Massive splenomegaly?

A

chronic Myeloid leukaemia
Malaria
Myelofibrosis

“The three M’s”

210
Q

What may be the cause of a splenic cyst?

A

Parasitic ( Echinococus -dog-tape worm- hyatid cyst)
Non -parasitic
True cyst
- Epidermoid , dermoid
Pseudo - cyst
- Trauma, haemorrhage and organisation

211
Q

What is the origin for True cysts?

A

Epithelial lining

212
Q

What is the origin for pseudo cysts?

A

Fibrous tissue lining

213
Q

In which organs would a haemorrhagic (red) infarction take place (dual circulation)?

A

Lungs
Small Intestine

214
Q

In which organs would an anaemic (white) infarction take place (arterial circulation) ?

A

Heart
Spleen
Kidney

215
Q

What is Anisocytosis?

A

A variation in the SIZE of red blood cells

216
Q

What is as a result in the variation of the SHAPE of a red blood cell?

A

Poikilocytosis
“shaPe”

217
Q

What are basophils commonly associated with?

A

They are commonly involved with inflammatory reactions that cause allergic symptoms. They express immunoglobulin E (IgE) receptors that release histamine, heparin, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and other vasoactive amines when stimulated

218
Q

True or False? The Mean Corpuscular Haemogobin Concentration (MCHC) is decreased in all Microcytic Anaemia?

A

TRUE!!

219
Q

An elevated MCHC levels can indicate which disease?

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

220
Q

What is Hypochromia?

A

Poor haemoglobinisation (low MCH), increased central area of pallor

221
Q

What are some examples of Immature white blood cells?

A

Bands, Metamyelocytes, myelocytes, promyelocytes,and promyeloblasts
They cause a Left shift.

222
Q

What is the normal red cell count in men and women?

A

Men - 5.5 x 1.0 x10^12
Women- 4.8 x 10^12

223
Q

What is Hypo- regenerative anaemia?

A

This is Anaemia plus a low reticulocyte count . The RPI is less than 2 .
This indicates that there is bone marrow failure

224
Q

What is Hyper -regenerative anaemia?

A

This is Anaemia + a high reticulocyte count. The RPI is more than 3 .
This indicates an increase in red cell destruction or consumption with a concomitant increase in red cell production.

225
Q

What is the normal reticulocyte count in Adults and children ?

A

0.2- 2%

226
Q

True or false? A decrease in Oxygen stimulates Erythropoesis?

A

TRUE!! while A increase in oxygen depresses it.

227
Q

True or False?An appropriate bone marrow response to anemia would result in a corrected reticulocyte count greater than 3%

A

TRUE!!

228
Q

What is the normal MCV in adults ?

A

80-100 ( 85 +/- 8 fL)

229
Q

What is the normal MCH in adults?

A

29.5 +/- 2.5 pg

230
Q

What is the normal MCHC in adults and children?

A

33 +/- 2 g/dl

231
Q

True or False? There is an increased reticulocyte count in Iron Deficiency Anaemia.

A

FALSE!!! The reticulocyte count is DECREASED!!

232
Q

True or False? There is an increased Reticulocyte count in Megaloblastic Anaemia?

A

FALSE!!The reticulocyte count is DECREASED!!

233
Q

True or False? Filtration is more efficient than washing in removing leukocytes.

A

TRUE!!

234
Q

Fill in the blank “_________ CANNOT remove cytokines.”

A

Filters

235
Q

At what temperature is Packed red cells and whole blood stored at ?

A

1-6 degrees Celcius

236
Q

True or False? Irradiation of red cells is not indicted for immunodeficient patients.

A

FALSE!! It IS indicated

237
Q

At what temperature is Fresh Frozen plasma stored and how long does it last?

A

-30 degreed Celsius and lasts 12 months in the blood bank

238
Q

What is the difference between Fresh Frozen Plasma and Stored plasma?

A

FFP contains ALL clotting factors while Stored plasma DOES NOT contain all clotting factors.

239
Q

True or False? Platelets transfusion can be used to treat TTP.

A

FALSE!! It will make the condition WORSE!!

240
Q

What two brand groups are Leucocytes divided into?

A

Phagocytes and Immunocytes

241
Q

What are type of phagocytes?

A

1)Granulocytes
- Eosinophil
- Basophil
- Neutrophil

2) Monocytes

242
Q

Which substances act locally on the pluripotential stem cells and on early myeloid and lymphoid progenitor?

A

SCF and FLT3 ligand (FLT3‐L)

243
Q

Fill in the blanks. “ Cytokines _________ and _________can exert a negative effect on haemopoiesis and may have a role in the development of aplastic anaemia.”

A

Transforming growth factor‐β (TGF‐β) and γ‐interferon (IFN‐γ)

244
Q

Which growth factors act on Stromal cells?

A

IL-1 & TNF

245
Q

Which growth factors act on Pluripotent stem cells?

A

SCF
FLT3‐L
VEGF

246
Q

Which growth factors act on multipoint stem cells?

A

IL‐3
GM‐CSF
IL‐6
G‐CSF Thrombopoietin

247
Q

Which growth factors act on committed progenitor cells?

A

G‐CSF*
M‐CSF
IL‐5 (eosinophil‐CSF)
Erythropoietin
Thrombopoietin*

248
Q

A mutation of which gene can cause polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK2 gene

249
Q

What is the function of p53?

A

It plays a role in sensing DNA damage. It activates apoptosis by raising the cell level of BAX which then increases cytochrome c release (Fig. 1.9). P53 also shuts down the cell cycle to stop the damaged cell from dividing .

250
Q

By what protein is p53 controlled by?

A

MDM2 protein

251
Q

How many mature red blood cells does one pronormoblast produce?

A

16 mature red blood cells

252
Q

True or False? Reticulocytes contain nuclear DNA.

A

FALSE!! They contain RNA in their cytoplasm.

253
Q

True or False? Normoblasts are NOT present in the normal human peripheral blood. If they are present , it is an indication that erythropoiesis is occurring outside the marrow (extramedullary erythropoiesis) and also with some marrow diseases.

A

TRUE!!

254
Q

Which enzyme is a coenzyme in Haemoglobin synthesis ?

A

Pyridoxal phosphate (vitamin B6 )

255
Q

From which cells do the Steel Factor(Stem Cell factor- SCF) originate from?

A

From stromal cells in bone marrow

256
Q

What is the diameter of pluripotent stem cells?

A

18-23 μ

257
Q

What are the functions carried out by White blood cells?

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • Macrophage action
  • Amoeboid action
  • Chemotaxis
  • Diapedesis
258
Q

In Neutrophils, the primary granules appearing at PROMYELOCYTE stage ( of lysosomal origin) contains what substances?

A
  • Myeloperoxidase
  • Acid Phosphatase
  • Proteinase
  • Beta -glucuronidase
  • Other acid hydrolases
259
Q

In Neutrophils, the secondary granules appearing at the MYELOCYTE stage contains what substances?

A
  • Collagenase
  • Lacto ferrin
  • Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
  • Lysozyme
260
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils in blood?

A

6-10 hrs

261
Q

How can the nucleus of an Eosinophil be described?

A

Bi-lobed

262
Q

Fill in the blanks, Eosinophils has coarse granules containing _______, _______, ________ & _______”

A

Major basic protien
Lysosomal enzymes
Plasminogen
Histamine

263
Q

What substances are produced in the granules of Basophils?

A

Serotonin
Heparin
Histamine

264
Q

What immunoglobulin does Basophils have attachment sites for?

A

IgE antibodies

265
Q

True or False? When ferritin stores are decreased, the liver synthesizes more transferrin however while when ferritin stores are high, the liver decreases the production of transferrin.

A

TRUE!!

266
Q

What is the volume of capacity in which Transferrin can absorb iron?

A

300 μg/dL

267
Q

Which two acids are important in iron absorption?

A

Gastric Acid (HCl )
Ascorbic acid ( Vitamin C)

268
Q

True or False? Iron deficiency and Primary hemochromatosis reduces iron absorption.

A

FALSE!! They INCREASE iron absorption.

Iron deficiency favours iron absorption because when the iron stores are depleted the rate of absorption isaccelerated.

Primary Hemochromatosis

269
Q

Fill in the blanks.”_________ , the absence of stomach acid decreases the amount of iron available for reabsorption.

A

Achlorhydria

270
Q

What are some examples of Heme enzymes?

A

Catalase, cytochromes, peroxidase, flavo protein

271
Q

By what process , is iron bounded to transferrin absorbed into the epithelial cells and then released into blood capillaries to form plasma transferrin?

A

Pincytosis

272
Q

At what stage does team synthesis begin?

A

Pro-erythroblast stage

273
Q

Where are global chains synthesised?

A

On ribosomes in cytoplasm

274
Q

True or False? 4 heme + polypeptide = haemoglobin chain.

A

TRUE!!!

275
Q

True or False? In haemoglobin synthesis, Each heme molecule combines with a globin chain .Forming a tetramer of four globin chains each with its own heme group in a pocket which creates a hemoglobin molecule.

A

TRUE!!!

276
Q

In Sickle cell anaemia, HBSS what substitution occurs?

A

A point mutation in the β-globin gene substitutes Glutamic acid with Valine at position 6

277
Q

What is the importance of ATP, in red cell metabolism using the hexose-monophosphate shunt?

A

It provides energy needed for:
- Maintenance of red cell volume
- Maintenace of cell shape/flexibility
- Membrane ATPase sodium pump

278
Q

What is the test used to detect Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Osmofragillity Test

279
Q

What are causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

*Achlorhydria
*Lack of IF, gastric or ileal resection (ileum needed for absorption of cobalamin)
*Crohn disease or celiac disease in the terminal ileum
* Insufficient dietary intake ( seen in vegetarians)
*Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)
*Pancreatic insufficiency
*Pernicious anemia
* Pregnancy
* Hyperthyroidism

280
Q

What is the body store of Folate( Via B9)?

A

10-12 mg (sufficient for 4 months)

281
Q

What is the body store of Vitamin B12?

A

2-3 mg ((sufficient for 2–4 years)

282
Q

What protein does Folate bind to?

A

It weakly binds to Albumin

283
Q

What is the normal dietary intake of Vitamin B12?

A

7–30 μg

284
Q

What is the normal dietary intake of Vitamin B9?

A

200–250 μg

285
Q

What is the ratio contained in red cell membranes?

A

50% of membranes is proteins
20% of membrane is phospholipid
20% of membrane is Cholesterol
10% of membrane is Carbohydrate

286
Q

What are the proteins that make up the red cell membrane?

A

α and β spectrin
Ankyrin
Protein 4.1
Actin.

287
Q

What is the most abundant protein found in the Cell membrane?

A

Spectrin

Basic Haematology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions