Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Basic Haematology > Blood Groups > Flashcards

Blood Groups Flashcards

1
Q

True or False? A person with AB blood group has anti - A antibodies.

A

FALSE!!! They have no antibodies present .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False? A person with O blood group has Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

A

TRUE!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which blood type is the universal doner?

A

O negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which blood type is the universal acceptor?

A

AB positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name used to describe Anti-A antibodies and anti-b antibodies?

A

Cold antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what temperature does Anti-A antibodies and anti-b antibodies react?

A

4°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At what temperature do immune antibodies (warm) react optimally?

A

37°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False? Immune antibodies are normally IgM .

A

FALSE!! Immune antibodies are IgG .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank.” Anti-A antibodies and anti-b antibodies are normally _____”

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which antibodies are capable of transplacental passage from mother to fetus?

A

IgG antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the name of the carbohydrate residue that is to be added to H-substance for group A and by what enzyme does this happen?

A

N‐acetyl galactosamine (NAGA) &
N‐acetyl galactosamine transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the name of the carbohydrate residue that is to be added to H-substance for group B by what enzyme does this happen?

A

D‐galactose & d- galactose transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fill in the blanks.” The ____ allele actually itself has two variants, _______ which further complicates the issue but these are of minor clinical significance. _____cells react more weakly than ______ cells with anti‐A antibodies

A

The A allele
A1 and A2
A2 reacts more weakly than A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which blood typing systems would NOT cause haemolytic disease of newborn (eryth roblastosis fetalis) ?

A

Lutheran, Lewis & Li
The three L’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False? Donors with a history Hepatitis are deferred for 2 years.

A

FALSE!! 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the anticoagulant normally present in blood bags?

A

Citrate, phosphate, dextrose (CPD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three components made by initial centrifugation of whole blood?

A

Red cell, Buffy coat and Plasma
RBP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the temperature and duration for which red blood cells are stored at?

A

4–6°C for up to 35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False? During red cell storage there is a rise in 2,3‐diphosphoglycerate (2,3‐DPG) but after transfusion 2,3‐DPG levels return to normal within 24 hours.

A

FALSE!! During red cell storage there is a FALL in (2,3‐DPG) .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are blood components?

A

Red cells
Plasma
Platelets
Cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are blood products?

A

Factor concentrates
Albumin
Immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two substances produced after 1st Centrifugation of Blood?

A

Red Cell Concentrate(packed red cells)
Plasma( platelet -rich plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two substances produced after 2nd Centrifugation of blood?

A

Platelet poor plasma( Fresh Plasma)
Platelet concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the components for whole blood(WB)?

A

Red cells & plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the volume and shelf-life& storage for Whole blood?

A

500ml
35 days, 1-6 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the components of Packed Red Blood Cells in (CPDA-1)?

A

Red cells and little plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the volume and shelf-life & storage for Packed red blood cells ?

A

300ml
35 days, 1-6 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the shelf life for Red Cells in
Optimal Additive Solution (OAS)?

A

42 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What volume of Fresh-frozen
Plasma should be taken from apheresis?

A

800ml

30
Q

What is the shelf-life , storage and normal dose of Fresh- Frozen Plasma (FFP)?

A

1 year, 30 degrees Celsius
Dose:
10-15ml/kg

31
Q

What volume of Fresh- frozen plasma should be taken from whole blood?

A

200ml

32
Q

Fill in the blanks.”Stored plasma/Plasma, cryoprecipitate- reduced are _____.”

A

Plasma that lacks some clothing factors

33
Q

What is the shelf life, storage and dose of Stored plasma/Plasma cryoprecipitate- reduced?

A

1 year, 30 degrees Celsius
Dose:
10-15ml/kg

34
Q

What are the contents of platelet concentrate?

A

Plasma & platelets

35
Q

What is the shelf -life/ storage and dose of platelet concentrate?

A

5 days, 20-24 degrees Celsius
Dose: 1unit/10kg

36
Q

True or False? Plasma contains clotting factors while Serum doesn’t.

A

TRUE!!

37
Q

What contents are found in Cryoprecipitate
(prepared by thawing 1 unit FFP at 4C)

A

Fibrinogen
Factor VIII (8)
Factor XIII (13)
vWF
Fibronectin

38
Q

What is the volume, storage, dosage and shelf life of Cryoprecipitate?

A

20-50ml
1 year, 30 degrees Celsius
Dose: 1-2 units/10kg

39
Q

What is the First choice treatment for Haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII (8)

40
Q

What is the first choice treatment for Haemophilia B?

A

Factor IX (9)

41
Q

Which donor is the best Allogenic donor?

A

Voluntary unremunerated

42
Q

What are the different types of blood donors?

A

Allogenic
Autologous
Apheresis

43
Q

What are the subdivisions of Allogenic donors?

A

a. Voluntary unremunerated – altruistic, unpaid, best allogeneic donor
b. Replacement – donates to return what was or will be used by patient
c. Directed – collection from a specific donor for a recipient

44
Q

What is the name of the blood donor in which the patient is both the donor and the recipient (same person)?

A

Preoperative Autologous

45
Q

What is Apherisis?

A

It is the removal of a specific blood component (or components) with the immediate return of all other blood components. It is used for autologous and allogeneic blood collection

46
Q

What Is the minimum age requirement to be a blood donor?

A

17 years (Parental consent is required for a minor who is 16 years old)

47
Q

What is the upper limit age requirement for a blood donor?

A

60-65 years

48
Q

In which disease is an indefinite referral for blood donation placed on?

A

Cancer (eg lymphoproliferative/haematological) – indefinite deferral
Bleeding disorders (indefinite deferral)
HIV

49
Q

What is the deferral time period for a patient who was recently immunised?

A

2- 4 weeks for live vaccines (MMR)

50
Q

What is the deferral time period for a patient who is pregnant?

A

6 weeks - 6 months ( may vary)

51
Q

What type of test is used to test blood donor haemoglobin level?

A

The copper sulphate method

52
Q

What type of deferral would a patient who has malaria be given?

A

Temporary deferral

53
Q

What is the ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a unit collection of whole blood?

A

450 ml blood : 63 ml anticoagulant

54
Q

What is the most common anticoagulant used in blood collection?

A

CPDA1

55
Q

What is an alternative anticoagulant used in blood collection also?

A

Optimal Additive Solutions (OAS) (e.g. sodium chloride, adenine, glucose,  mannitol)

56
Q

What does the C stand for in CDPA1 and what is its function?

A

Citrate - It prevents coagulation by chelating calcium

57
Q

What does the P stand for in CDPA1?

A

Phosphate - It contains anticoagulants that acts as a buffer to control the decrease in pH

58
Q

What does the D stand for in CDPA1?

A

Dextrose- It supports ATP generation via glycolysis

59
Q

What does the A stand for in CDPA1?

A

Adenine- It is the substrate for ATP synthesis

60
Q

Which virus is not routinely tested for in patients when donating blood ONLY if the blood is given to an immunocompromised or neonate?

A

Cytomegalovirus ( CMV)

61
Q

What is the main substance used in the treatment of DIC ( Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) and Hypo- and Dys-fibrinogenemia?

A

Cryoprecipitate

62
Q

What are autoantibodies?

A

Against Self-antigens

63
Q

What are allo- antibodies?

A

Against foreign antigens

64
Q

True or False? Forward grouping identifies antibodies on rbc’s.

A

FALSE!! Forward Grouping identifies Antigens.

” tell these antigens to move forward”

65
Q

Fill in the blank.” Reverse grouping identifies _____”

A

Antibodies in the plasma/serum.

66
Q

True or False? In Forward grouping, Cells agglutinated only with anti-A serum are group A.

A

TRUE!!

67
Q

True or False? In Reverse Grouping, Agglutination with group B cells indicates the presence of anti-B antibodies in the plasma (Group A individual).

A

TRUE!!

68
Q

What diseases would a Positive Coombs test indicate?

A

*Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)- Occurs when the fetus as a separate blood group and some fetal cells cross the placental barrier. The mother forms antibodies to the red cell antigens which also cross the placenta and attack the fetal red cells, resulting in hemolysis.
*Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)
*Drug- Induced Immune Hemolytic Anemia
*Hemolytic Transfusion reactions (HTR)

69
Q

How is a Direct Coomb’s test conducted?

A

Anti-lg antibody (Coombs
reagent) added to patient’s RBCs. RBCs
agglutinate if RBCs are coated with lg.

70
Q

How is a Indirect Coombs test conducted?

A

Normal RBCs added to patient’s serum. If serum has anti-RBC surface lg, RBCs agglutinate when Coombs reagent added.

Basic Haematology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions