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Farm (year 4) > Goats and Camelids > Flashcards

Goats and Camelids Flashcards

1
Q

what drugs are licensed in goats?

A

enrofloxicin, thiamphenicol spray (antibiotics)
eprinomectin, paromomycin
vaccines - rabies, johnes, S. aureus, C. burneti
NaCl, ketamine

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2
Q

what is the issue with enrofloxaci being one of the only licensed antibiotics in goats?

A

its a critically important antibiotic (shouldn’t really use)

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3
Q

what is the normal rectal temperature of goats?

A

38.7 - 40.7

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4
Q

what is the normal heart rate of adult goats?

A

70-120

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5
Q

what is the normal heart rate for kids up to 1 month old?

A

<200

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6
Q

what is the normal heart rate for kids ages 1-6 months old?

A

<140

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7
Q

what is the respiratory rate of adult goats?

A

15-30

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8
Q

what is the respiratory rate of kids?

A

20-40

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9
Q

what is the rumen activity rate of adult goats?

A

3-4 contractions in 2 minutes

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10
Q

what is the best site for taking bloods in goats?

A

jugular

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11
Q

how should the neck be positioned when taking bloods from goats?

A

straight up

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12
Q

what muscles should be used for IM injections in goats?

A

quadriceps and neck

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13
Q

how often do goats need boosters for clostridial disease?

A

every 6-8 months

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14
Q

what does C. perfringens type D cause in goats?

A

enterotoxaemia

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15
Q

what does C. perfringens type C cause in goats?

A

struck

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16
Q

what does C. perfringens type B cause in goats?

A

lamb dysentery

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17
Q

what does C. septicum cause in goats?

A

malignant oedema

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18
Q

what are the clinical signs of enterotoxaemia in goats?

A

per-acute - found dead
sub-acute - profuse diarrhoea and tenesmus

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19
Q

how is enterotoxaemia treated?

A

fluid therapy (electrolytes)
NSAIDs
charcoal/bismuth

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20
Q

what are some risk factors for enterotoxaemia?

A

rumen/metabolic acidosis
sudden diet change
stress (bullying, disease…)

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21
Q

what pathogen causes caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

lentivirus

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22
Q

what is the treatment for caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

none and very difficult to control

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23
Q

what are some effects of caprine arthritis encephalitis on the farm?

A

loss of production - early culling, loss of kids, milk and export drop

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24
Q

what disease of sheep is caprine arthritis virus similar to?

A

maedi-visna

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25
Q

what are the clinical signs of caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

arthritis, encephalitis, mastitis, weight loss

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26
Q

what is the main route of transmutation for caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

milk and colostrum (infected udder)

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27
Q

what are some clinical signs of listereriosis?

A

encephalitis (star gazing, ataxia, neurological…)
septicaemia
abortion

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28
Q

how can listeriosis be diagnosed?

A

clinical signs
(CSF and analysis)

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29
Q

how is listeriosis treated?

A

(aggressive treatment)
NSAID, fluid therapy, antibiotic (procaine penicilin)

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30
Q

what antibiotic is good for listeriosis treatment?

A

procaine penicillin

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31
Q

when does diarrhoea develop in goat (and sheep) with johnes?

A

terminal stages of disease

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32
Q

what is the vaccine for johnes called?

A

gudair

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33
Q

what are the notifiable disease of goats found in the UK?

A

tuberculosis
bluetongue
caprine arthritis encephalitis
maedi visna
scrapie

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34
Q

what are some differentials for weight loss in goats?

A

CAE
endoparasites
nutrition - bullying…
dental issues
scrapie
lameness
johnes
neoplasia

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35
Q

what are some possible causes of respiratory disease in goats?

A

pasteurellosis (Mannhaemia haemolytica)
Mycoplasmosis
lungworm
TB

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36
Q

what are some possible causes of anaemia in goats?

A

haemolysis/haemorrhage
endoparasites (haemonchus, fluke…)
lice
mycoplasma
chronic inflammatory disease
afibrinogenaemia

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37
Q

what goat breed is predisposed to afibrinogenaemia?

A

Saanen

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38
Q

what are some causes of foot disease in goats?

A

scald/footrot
treponema associated (CODD in sheep)
white line disease
pedal joint abscess

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39
Q

do older goats develop immunity to endoparasites?

A

no meaningful immunity developed

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40
Q

what endoparasites can goats get?

A

same as sheep/cows (including fluke) including with their own coccidia species

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41
Q

what ectoparasites can effect goats?

A

lice
blowfly (strike)
nuisance flies
mange - chorioptes, psoroptes, sarcoptes, demodex

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42
Q

what goats is seborrheic dermatitis seen in?

A

pygmy

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43
Q

what type of disorder is seborrheic dermatitis in pygmy goats?

A

primary/secondary keratinisation disorder

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44
Q

what are the clinical signs of seborrheic dermatitis of pygmy goats?

A

alopecia
skin flaking
crusting around eyes, lips, chin and perineum

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45
Q

how is seborrheic dermatitis treated?

A

topical steroids and mild antiseptic
(antibiotics if secondary bacterial infection present)

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46
Q

what are some issue with udder health in goats?

A

mastitis
teat biting
udder impetigo
udder enlargment

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47
Q

what is the treatment for teat biting in goats?

A

find adult culprit and remove/cull

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48
Q

what causes udder impetigo?

A

Staphylococcal infection

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49
Q

what can cause udder enlargement in goats?

A

maiden milkers/pseudopregnancy
suspensory ligament failure

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50
Q

what are maiden milkers?

A

goats that begin to produce milk without having given birth recently

51
Q

should maiden milkers go into the milking trip?

A

no (unless in severe discomfort)

52
Q

what diseases should be ruled out in cases of udder enlargement caused by suspensory ligament failure?

A

cystic ovarian disease
reproductive tract neoplasia
pyometra

53
Q

how common is clinical mastitis is goats compared to cattle?

A

rare - however usually grade 3 (can be gangrenous) when they do get it

54
Q

is clinical or sub-clinical mastitis more common in goats?

A

sub-clinical

55
Q

how do SCC in goats compare to cows?

A

naturally much higher in goats (due to apocrine milk secretion)

56
Q

what type of supernumerary teat do you need to take care when removing?

A

fishtail - can leave a fistula if you take one off

57
Q

what is the issue with lumbosacral epidurals for caesarians in goats?

A

will remain recumbent for a little while (need to get up and feed/bond)

58
Q

what is the prognosis for the dam in goat caesarians?

A

good (most survive)

59
Q

what age do kids present with floppy kid disease?

A

3 days to 3 weeks old

60
Q

which kids usually get floppy kid disease?

A

the biggest and healthiest one of the litter

61
Q

what is the supposed cause of floppy kid disease?

A

acidosis

62
Q

what is done to treat floppy kid disease?

A

supportive therapy and bicarbonate

63
Q

what breed is effected by sticky kid disease?

A

golden guernseys

64
Q

what sex is predisposed to sticky kid disease?

A

males

65
Q

what is sticky kid disease?

A

excessive sebumen secretion in young kids meaning they remain wet/sticky after birth (hypothermia and respiratory disease)

66
Q

what needs to be remembered regarding dosage of local anaesthetic in goats?

A

they have much lower dose rate (toxic in normal rates) - consider diluting to give more volume to achieve the block

67
Q

what is a major risk when putting a goat under general anaesthetic?

A

much more susceptible to hypothermia than sheep/cows

68
Q

what is a good oral analgesia to use in goats?

A

meloxicam - survives rumen transit

69
Q

when is it legal to ring goats to castrate them?

A

<7 days old

70
Q

when does castrating goats require a vet and anaesthesia?

A

> 2 months old

71
Q

how can billy goats be temporarily castrated?

A

anti-GnRH vaccine (or use a belly apron)

72
Q

what is the key differences when disbudding a kid compared to a calf?

A

need 2 nerve blocks
kids have much thinner skulls

73
Q

what is the issue with dehorning goats?

A

will open sinuses
takes a long time to heal
will struggle to suture edges closed

74
Q

what are the indications for goat dehorning?

A

broken horns
safety risk (very aggressive with young kids)

75
Q

what nerves need blocking to disbud a kid?

A

corneal branch of infratrochlear nerves
corneal branch of lacrimal nerve

76
Q

what predisposes goats to urolithiasis?

A

high concentrate diet and poor water quality (don’t want to drink)

77
Q

where is blood taken from a camelid?

A

jugular (lower neck) - prominent lateral protrusions of vertebrae then move medially and you’re in the jugular groove

78
Q

what part of the jugular should be used for injecting drugs into?

A

top third of the neck (further away from the carotid artery

79
Q

what is the standard rate of fluid administration?

A

50 ml/kg per 24 hours

80
Q

what type of fluid is used for camelids?

A

alkaline (regardless of age)

81
Q

what side should you place a jugular catheter in camelids?

A

right towards the heart

82
Q

when treating camelids with severe hypoproteinaemia what should be considered as a treatment?

A

plasma transfusion

83
Q

what is signs of severe stress in camelids?

A

laboured mouth breathing
stress fold below eye
head bending backwards
(back off and leave them)

84
Q

where are camelids microchipped?

A

in the upper left neck (shallow angle)

85
Q

what must camelids be vaccinated against?

A

clostridial

86
Q

what vaccines can be given to camelids?

A

clostridial
bluetongue
orf, lepto, slamonella
rotavirus and coronavirus
E. coli

87
Q

how often should camelids be vaccinated for clostridial disease?

A

every 6-8 months

88
Q

do camelids mount immunity to endoparasite infections?

A

no - don’t generate any immunity

89
Q

what are the clinical signs of endoparasite infection?

A

soft faeces (diarrhoea)
ill thrift
anaemia
malaise/death

90
Q

what is the cut off for FEC of Trichostrongyle type parasite?

A

300-400

91
Q

what is a useful way to reduce parasite contamination of pasture in camelids?

A

poo picking (produce dung piles)

92
Q

how much benzimadazoles should be used in camelids compared to sheep?

A

2 times sheep dose

93
Q

what camelids should albendazole be avoided in?

A

pregnant females (teratogenic effects)

94
Q

what should always be done before giving levamisole to camelids?

A

weigh (narrow toxicity spectrum)

95
Q

how much monepantel should be given to camelids compared to sheep?

A

3 times sheep dose

96
Q

what fluke treatment is available for camelids?

A

triclabendazole
closantel
albendazole

97
Q

what are the species of eimeria that effect camelids?

A

E. lamae
E. punoensis
E. alpacae
E. macusaniensis (very large)

98
Q

what is the prepatent period of Eimeria spp. in camelids?

A

10-18 days (E. macuaniensis is 30 days)

99
Q

what can be used to treat coccidiosis in camelids?

A

baycox, vecoxan, albendazole

100
Q

when should prophylactic treatment for coccidiosis be started in camelids?

A

at weaning for early born crias
2-3 months for late born crias
adults after stress
incoming animals

101
Q

how is treatment administered for sarcoptic mange in camelids?

A

pour ons

102
Q

how is treatment administered for chorioptic mange in camelids?

A

injectables (burrowing mite)

103
Q

where is the best place to do a skin scrape for mites in camelids?

A

interdigital space

104
Q

what is the distribution of chorioptic mange in camelids?

A

venture and limbs

105
Q

how many treatments of ivermectin is needed to treat chorioptic/sarcoptic mange?

A

3-4 roughly 10 days apart

106
Q

in severe cases of mange in camelids where a skin reaction is present, what treatments can be used?

A

keratolytic shampoos
skin conditioner
antibiotics (systemic)

107
Q

what is munge?

A

hyperkeratosis of the muzzle in camelids

108
Q

what age camelids is munge seen in?

A

weaning age and adolescents

109
Q

what should always be ruled out before cutting into a lump on a camelid?

A

caseous lymphadenitis

110
Q

what causes caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

111
Q

how common are gastric ulcers in camelids?

A

extremely common (seen in majority of post mortems)

112
Q

what can be used to treat gastric ulcers in camelids?

A

ranitidine and pantoprazole

113
Q

why does care need to be taken when using a machine to run camelid bloods?

A

RBC are elliptical shape so need to calibrate the machine to this or they will be miscounted as thrombocytes

114
Q

what can cause anaemia in camelids?

A

chronic disease
haemonchosis/fluke
gastric ulceration/haemolysis
ivermectin toxicity
mycoplasma haemollamae

115
Q

what is a good way to determine whether an animal is ataxic or weak?

A

walk them in circles/backwards this will exaggerate the ataxia making it worse
lift one leg - if they are weak the other leg with begin to tremor due to the weight

116
Q

what age should you castrate camelids?

A

> 18 months

117
Q

why shouldn’t camelids be castrated before 18 months of age?

A

testosterone involved in skeletal maturity - castrating too early can lead to patellar luxation

118
Q

is open or closed castration best for camelids?

A

closed (keep tunica vaginalis intact)

119
Q

what are the top three differentials for weight loss in camelids?

A

parasites
bullying
tooth/jaw

120
Q

when should incisors be trimmed in camelids?

A

if they are causing an issue - poor BCS, quitting…

121
Q

how do permanent incisors compare to deciduous incisors in camelids?

A

deciduous are whiter
permanents and dirtier with parallel sides

122
Q

what drugs are involved in the triple stun of camelids?

A

xylazine, ketamine, butorphanol

123
Q

why does caesarian need to be considered earlier in camelids than in ewes?

A

long neck/legs makes it difficult

124
Q

how long does it usually take foetal membranes to be passed in camelids?

A

1-3 hours (retained after 6)

Farm (year 4) (17 decks)

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