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Finals Revision > Haem, Immunology and ID > Flashcards

Haem, Immunology and ID Flashcards

1
Q

Sx of Polycythaemia Vera?

A

Pruitis particularly after a hot bath, splenomegaly, HTN, hyperviscosity (due to the increase in RBCs) and haemorrhages (due to abnormal platelet function)

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2
Q

What is seen on investigation of polycythaemia vera?

A

Jak 2 mutation
Increased Hb and haematocrit, WCC and platelets may be high
Low ESR

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3
Q

Mx of polycythaemia?

A

Low dose aspirin daily
Venesection = 1st line

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4
Q

Mx of chlamydia?

A

1st line = 7 days PO Doxycycline
2nd line/if pregnant = Azithromycin PO single dose

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5
Q

What should you always do with any under 24 year old presenting with unexplained petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Immediately refer for specialist assessment to rule out leukaemia

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6
Q

When should we test for HIV? What test do we use?

A

Test at 4 weeks and 12 weeks after the possible exposure with a combination of antibody and antigen testing.
If positive after 4 weeks start on antiretrovirals immediately but still do confirmation test at 12 weeks

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7
Q

How should you treat adults over 50 for meningitis? When should you consider using vancomycin?

A

All adults >50 should be managed with IV cefotaxime and amoxicillin
Consider Vanc in any patient who has been outside the UK in the previous 3/12 or has used other antibiotics in the last 3/12

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8
Q

What is a syphilis chancre?

A

A single painless, indurated ulcer in the anus, mouth, vagina or penis.

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9
Q

What causes syphilis? How do we treat?

A

Treponema Pallidum
Mx = IM benzathine benzylpenicillin

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10
Q

Which conditions are spherocytes seen in? How can you differentiate clinically between the 2?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis = mild chronic anaemia
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia = severe acute anaemia

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11
Q

Describe Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Most common inherited form of haemolytic anaemia. AD.
Sx = jaundice, gallstones, splenomegaly and aplastic crisis in the presence of Parovirus B19
Ix = raised MCHC on FBC, spherocytes seen, increased reticulocytes
Mx = folate supplementation and splenectomy

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12
Q

Describe G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive
Sx = jaundice, anaemia, splenomegaly and gall stones secondary to illness, broad (fava) beans and drugs e.g. anti-malarials
Ix = Heinz bodies seen on blood film

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13
Q

Describe Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Autoimmune destruction of RBCs. Warm type is the most common and is idiopathic. Cold type is usually secondary to something e.g. HIV
Ix = Direct antiglobulin (Coombe’s) test positive, increased spherocytes and reticulocytes, isolated raised bilirubin (prehepatic)
Mx = Steroids, Rituximab, Blood transfusions an d splenectomy

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14
Q

Describe Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria?

A

A genetic mutation within the bone marrow
Sx = red urine in the morning containing haemoglobin and hemosiderin. Thrombosis and smooth muscle dystonia (e.g. oesophageal spasm or erectile dysfunction)
Mx = Eculizumab or bone marrow transplant

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15
Q

How does primary HSV infection often present (oral)?

A

Gingivostomatitis. Painful ulceration of the mouth and tongue

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16
Q

How do we manage HSV infections?

A

Primary oral HSV infection = oral acyclovir and chlorhexidine mouth wash
Cold sores = TOP acyclovir
Genital warts = oral acyclovir

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17
Q

What should you do if a primary HSV infection occurs >28 weeks of pregnancy?

A

Offer elective C-section and give oral acyclovir until delivery

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18
Q

Which Herpes virus causes oral and which causes genital herpes?

A

HSV 1 = oral
HSV 2 = genital

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19
Q

Under what circumstances should you NOT do an LP before giving antibiotics in bacterial meningitis?

A

If it can not be done in under 1 hours
If there are Sx of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash
If there is a significant bleeding risk
If there is raised ICP

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20
Q

Sx of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Contiguous and asymmetrical lymphadenopathy which is painless except when drinking alcohol.
B symptoms

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21
Q

Ix of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Ix = Normocytic anaemia and eosinophilia
Reed Sternberg cells aka large multinucleated cells with eosinophilic nuclei, mirror image nuclei, bilobed nuclei or owl eye appearance

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22
Q

Hyposplenism can be seen secondary to coeliac disease. What will be seen on blood film?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies and siderocytes seen on blood film

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23
Q

What is seen in primary, secondary and tertiary syphillis?

A

Primary = chancre and lymphadenopathy
Secondary = systemic illness, rash, buccal ulcers, condylomata lata
Tertiary = gummas, ascending aortic aneurysms, Argyll-Robertson pupil

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24
Q

What are the causes of a false negative on a Mantoux skin test?

A

FAILS
Fever, Anaemia, Immunosuppression, Lymphoma, Sarcoidosis

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25
Q

What should you give to patients receiving chemotherapy who are considered high risk of febrile neutropenia?

A

Granulocyte-Colony Stimulating Factors (G-CSF) e.g. Filgrastim

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26
Q

Ix and Mx of Lyme disease?

A

Ix = Borrelia Burgdorferi antibodies (ELISA test)
Mx = 10 days doxycycline and ceftriaxone if disseminated disease

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27
Q

Sx of Multiple Myeloma?

A

CRABBI
hyperCalcaemia, Renal failure, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bone pain, Infection

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28
Q

Ix of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Roleaux formation on a peripheral blood film
Increased plasma cells on BM aspiration
Whole body MRI

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29
Q

You should always send and MSU for women with a UTI when they have what?

A

Visible or non-visible haematuria OR are >65
But do not delay starting treatment to do this

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30
Q

Sx of typhoid and paratyphoid?

A

Sx = systemic upset, relative bradycardia, abdo pain and distension, constipation or diarrhoea and rose spots on the trunk (more seen in paratyphoid)

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31
Q

What further investigation should you do for all people diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Ix for coeliac’s disease

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32
Q

What is an aplastic crisis?

A

Pancytopenia following Parovirus B19 infection in those with sickle cell or hereditary spherocytosis

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33
Q

Do you treat asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

No unless they are pregnant

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34
Q

Should you give dexamethasone in bacterial meningitis?

A

Yes unless there is meningococcal septicaemia (indicated by the presence of a non-blanching rash) or patient is <3 months old

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35
Q

What condition should you suspect in patients with a fever on alternative days?

A

Malaria

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36
Q

Sx of Lyme Disease?

A

Painless bullseye rash (erythema migrans) and systemic upset. If disseminated disease = 3rd degree heart block, facial nerve palsy, myo/pericarditis and meningitis

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37
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses e.g. Coxsackie virus

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38
Q

Mx of Gonorrhoea?

A

1st line = IM ceftriaxone
2nd line = PO cefixime or PO ciprofloxacin

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39
Q

Sx of Staph aureus food poisoning?

A

Short incubation period and severe vomiting

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40
Q

Name 2 important side effects of trimethoprim? Is it safe in breastfeeding?

A

Hyperkalaemia and myelosuppression.
Yes it is safe when breastfeeding - nitro is not!

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41
Q

What is the commonest form of malaria?

A

Falciparum Malaria

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42
Q

Sx of Dengue Fever?

A

Fever, retro-orbital headaches, myalgia/bone pain/arthralgia, pleuritic chest pain, maculopapular rash and facial flushing

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43
Q

Ix and Mx of Dengue Fever?

A

Ix = Low WCC, low platelets and a raised ALT
Mx = supportive only

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44
Q

How can you differentiate between iron deficiency anaemia and anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Iron deficiency = low iron, high TIBC, low ferritin and low transferrin saturation
Anaemia of chronic disease = low iron, low TIBC, high ferritin and low transferrin saturation

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45
Q

Sx, Ix and Mx of Immune Thrombocytopenia?

A

Sx = Petechiae, purpura and bleeding
Ix = isolated thrombocytopenia
Mx = oral prednisolone, IVIG if active bleeding

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46
Q

When should you send MSU in a male with a UTI?

A

ALWAYS

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47
Q

Sx, Ix and Mx of Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

Sx = offensive yellow/green frothy discharge, vulvovaginitis, strawberry cervix, pH >4.5 and urethritis in males
Ix = trophozoites on microscopy
Mx = 5-7 days oral metronidazole

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48
Q

Sx and Mx of Chlorea?

A

Sx = profuse watery diarrhoea, dehydration and hypoglycaemia
Mx = oral rehydration therapy and doxycycline/ciprofloxacin

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49
Q

Sx Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Fever >38.9, hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash with desquamation in tampon users

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50
Q

Sx of Clostridium Botulinum infection?

A

Seen in IVDUs
Descending flaccid paralysis with bulbar palsy (slurred speech and difficulty swallowing), diplopia, ataxia and no sensory disturbance

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51
Q

How long should PEP be used after HIV exposure?

A

28 days

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52
Q

What can Polycythaemia Rubra Vera transform to? How can you differentiate?

A

AML = high WCC, low RBC and low platelets
Myelofibrosis = pancytopenia

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53
Q

What is the diagnosis if you have a macrocytic anaemia with an isolated raised GGT?

A

Alcohol XS

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54
Q

What is Factor V Leiden?

A

Most commonly inherited thrombophilia, leads to increased risk of clots.
Occurs due to activated protein C resistance

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55
Q

Name 5 drugs which can trigger haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Sulphonamides, Sulphonylureas and Sulphasalazine, Anti-Malarials and Aspirin

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56
Q

What is foetal hydrops?

A

Polyhydramnios, ascites and foetal skin oedema, often occurs secondary to Parovirus B19 infection

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57
Q

Describe Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Anaemia, raised neutrophils and thrombocytosis (raised platelets) in the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome

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58
Q

Sx and Mx of Campylobacter?

A

Sx = headaches and malaise prodrome, bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain which may mimic appendicits
Mx = self limiting but give clarithromycin if severe of immunocompromised

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59
Q

Describe beta thalassaemia major?

A

Occurs due to mutation on Chromosome 11
Sx = microcytic anaemia with bone deformities, failure to thrive and hepatosplenomegaly in the 1st year of life
Mx = life long blood transfusions and desferoxamine iron chelation. Consider BM transplant and splenectomy

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60
Q

Which chromosome is affected in alpha thalassaemia? How can we treat it?

A

Chromosome 16.
BM transplant can be curative. Consider transfusions and splenectomy

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61
Q

What should you suspect if there is raised LDH in the context of anaemia?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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62
Q

What is a sequestration crisis?

A

Seen in sickle cell
Blood pools in the organs (but does not occlude vessels), this leads to worsening anaemia with increased reticulocytes (in aplastic crisis reticulocytes are low)

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63
Q

How can EBV affect the white cells?

A

Increased WCC with increased lymphocytes and decreased neutrophils

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64
Q

When should you offer platelet transfusions?

A

If platelets are <30x10^9 and a clinically significant bleed or if <10x10^9 and no bleed.

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65
Q

What platelet level should you aim for before an invasive procedure?

A

> 50x10^9

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66
Q

What blood products should you give in clinically significant bleeds which are NOT major haemorrhages?

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma if prolonged PT or APTT
Cryoprecipitate if low fibrinogen

67
Q

What is seen on bone profile in myeloma?

A

Raised calcium, normal or raised phosphate and normal Alk phosphate (but will be raised if metastatic disease)

68
Q

Which type of transfusion is the highest risk for bacterial contamination?

A

Platelet transfusions

69
Q

What is Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction? How do you manage it?

A

Seen in the 1st 24 hours after starting syphilis treatment due to the rapid killing of treponema pallidum.
Sx = fever, rash, headaches, tachycardia and myalgis
Mx = supportive with antipyretics

70
Q

Sx, Ix and Mx of amoebiasis?

A

Profuse watery diarrhoea with a long incubation period. Can cause a liver abscess (leading to fever, RUQ pain and hepatomegaly).
Ix = USS of the liver and stool microscopy
Mx = oral metronidazole and a luminal agent e.g. diloxanide furoate

71
Q

What is the 3rd most common cause of urethritis in males (i.e. it is not caused by chlamydia or gonorrhoea)?

A

Mycoplasma Genitalium

72
Q

What conditions is pseudomonas aeruginosa associated with? How does it appear under a microscope?

A

Pneumonia in CF patients, skin burn/wound infections, hot tub folliculitis, otitis externa and UTI
It is a gram negative rod

73
Q

Do you need PEP for HIV following a human bite (if the biter is HIV positive)?

A

NO

74
Q

How do you manage a woman with anti-phospholipid syndrome using warfarin treatment if they become pregnanct?

A

Aspirin and LMW Heparin

75
Q

What should you monitor before starting TB treatment?

A

U&Es, LFTs, FBC and vision testing

76
Q

Sx of Legionella?

A

Flu like symptoms, dry cough, confusion, relative bradycardia, leukopenia, hyponatraemia, deranged LFTs and sometimes pleural effusions in a patient with recent travel

77
Q

Ix and Mx of Legionella?

A

Ix = urinary antigen testing
Mx = erythromycin/clarithromycin

78
Q

How do we manage contacts of someone with meningitis?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or Rifampicin

79
Q

Mx of MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

80
Q

Sx of Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP)?

A

Sx = dyspnoea, dry cough, fever, exercise induced desaturation

81
Q

Ix and Mx of Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia? How can we prevent it?

A

Ix = CXR = bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates
Mx = Co-trimoxazole
It is an AIDS defying illness, if CD4 count is <200 offer PCP prophylaxis

82
Q

What should you always do after the drug management of UTI in a pregnant women?

A

Send a urine sample for MSU to check for cure

83
Q

Describe Hep A?

A

Faecal Oral Spread.
Doesn’t cause chronic disease
Sx = Flu like prodrome, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, jaundice and deranged LFTs
Vaccine available!

84
Q

Describe Hep B?

A

Blood borne or vertical transmission
Can cause chronic hepatitis (ground glass hepatocytes), hepatocellular carcinoma, polyarteritis nodosa and glomerulonephritis
Sx = fever, headache, jaundice and deranged LFTs
Vaccine Available!

85
Q

Describe Hep C?

A

Blood borne or vertical transmission
Can cause chronic hepatitis, hepatocellular carcinoma, cirrhosis and eye/joint problems
Sx = fatigue, arthralgia, jaundice and deranged LFTs
No vaccine available

86
Q

Describe Hep D

A

Blood borne
Hep B MUST be present to become infected. If a patient with Hep B develops hep D this is a super infection - can cause hepatitis, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis

87
Q

Describe Hep E?

A

Faecal-oral spread, often seen due to undercooked pork ingestion
Does not cause chronic disease
Sx = mild jaundice
Vaccine not yet available (in development)

88
Q

Describe aspergilloma?

A

It commonly colonises existing lung cavities (e.g. secondary to TB, CA or CF)
Sx = cough +/- haemoptysis
Ix = rounded opacity with crescent sign on CXR

89
Q

Describe acute chest syndrome?

A

Dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia and new pulmonary infiltrates seen on CXR in patients with sickle cell

90
Q

Which lymph nodes does ovarian cancer commonly spread to?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

91
Q

Describe DIC?

A

Out of control haemostasis leading to organ ischaemia and easy bleeding (due to depleted platelets). Occurs secondary to sepsis, malignancy, obstetric complications, trauma or IV haemolysis.
Ix = low platelets and fibrinogen, raised PT, APTT, bleeding time and D-dimer

92
Q

When can you have DIC with relatively normal investigations

A

In chronic DIC (due to large aortic aneurysm or solid tumour)

93
Q

What is the clotting profile of warfarin like?

A

Raised PT, normal APTT, bleeding time and platelets

94
Q

What is clotting profile of Aspirin like?

A

Normal PT, APTT and platelets, increased bleeding time

95
Q

What is the clotting profile of Heparin like?

A

Normal or raised PT, raised APTT, normal platelets and bleeding time

96
Q

What conditions is strep pyogenes associated with?

A

Rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, cellulitis and type 2 necrotising fascititis

97
Q

Mx of typhoid or paratyphoid (caused by salmonella)?

A

Ciprofloxacin

98
Q

Mx BV? Mx in pregnancy?

A

5-7 days oral metronidazole. Use this also in pregnancy

99
Q

Describe Gas Gangrene?

A

Clostridium Perfringens infection of a wound
Sx = fever, pain +++, grey/dark red/purple/black skin, foul smelling discharging blisters and gas bubbles in the tissues

100
Q

Mx of campylobacter infection?

A

Supportive or clarithromycin if severe

101
Q

What is Koilonychia?

A

Spoon shaped nails, often seen in those with iron deficiency anaemia

102
Q

What is leukonychia?

A

White discoloration of the nails, can be seen in healthy individuals or with hypoalbuminaemia

103
Q

When can we give IV iron over PO iron?

A

When PO iron can not be tolerated or surgery is needed but there is not enough time to correct with PO (<1 month)

104
Q

What class of drugs are DOACs?

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitors

105
Q

What should you do to Ix ?spinal epidural abscess?

A

Do an MRI of the whole spine

106
Q

Which drug can be given to reduce the frequency of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell

A

Hydroxycarabamide

107
Q

Which sickle cell complication causes splenomegaly?

A

Sequestration crisis

108
Q

What can we give to reverse Rivaroxaban and Apixaban?

A

Andexanet alpha

109
Q

What should you do in a ?DVT when D-dimer is positive but the Doppler USS of the leg is normal?

A

Stop anti-coagulants and repeat US in 1 week

110
Q

What can be seen in haemophillia?

A

Hemarthroses, haematomas, raised APTT but normal PT/bleeding time

111
Q

Mx of ITP?

A

If platelets <30x10^9 give oral prednisolone
If there is a life/organ threatening bleed give IVIG, IV methylprednisolone and platelet transfusion

112
Q

What happens if you drink alcohol whilst on Metronidazole?

A

Disulfiram like effects. Flushing, nausea and vomiting, headaches and palpatations

113
Q

What is red man syndrome? How do you manage it?

A

Redness, pruritus and burning of the upper body seen if vancomycin is given too rapidly.
Mx = stop the transfusion and restart at a slower rate once symptoms have resolved

114
Q

When should you give a booster vaccine and tetanus IG in a dirty wound?

A

If the vaccination history is unknown, incomplete or if the last vaccine was given >10 years ago.
Typically the last standard dose of the 5 tetanus doses is given before 18 years of age

115
Q

Mx of CAP?

A

Amoxicillin. Clarithromycin if penicillin allergic

116
Q

Sx and Mx of Leptospirosis?

A

Fever, red conjunctiva, AKI, hepatitis and aseptic meningitis
Mx = benzylpenicillin or doxycyline

117
Q

Describe thrombotic crises?

A

Seen in sickle cell secondary to infection, dehydration and altitude
Sx = extreme pain and swelling often of the hands and feet.
Diagnosed clinically
Mx = supportive, prevent recurrence with hydroxyurea/hydroxycarabamide

118
Q

Ix of genital herpes?

A

NAAT

119
Q

Sx and Ix of myelofibrosis?

A

An elderly person with Sx of anaemia, massive splenomegaly, weight loss and night sweats
Ix = anaemia, raised WCC, raised platelets, tear drop poikilocytes, may be JAK 2 positive

120
Q

Sx of Giardia infection?

A

Non-bloody diarrhoea and steatorrhea with flatulence, abdo pain, malabsorption, lactose intolerance and weight loss

121
Q

Mx of non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine and Primaquine or Artemisin-based combinaiton therapy

122
Q

Ix of BV?

A

pH >4.5 and clue cells on wet microscopy

123
Q

True or false, if target like rash is present you do not need to do ELISA serology to diagnosed lymes disease?

A

True

124
Q

Sx of yellow fever?

A

Fever, rigors, nausea and vomiting. Brief remission of symptoms then jaundice, haematemesis and oliguria

125
Q

What should you do before giving the BCG vaccine?

A

TB skin test, vaccination may activate latent TB

126
Q

How long after exposure can you give PEP?

A

Up to 72 hours after

127
Q

Describe tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Uric acid release from cancer cells after chemotherapy
Leads to AKI, raised phosphate and potassium, low calcium.
Mx = allopurinol or rasburicase (in high risk patients give IV before chemo)

128
Q

How do we measure the response to Hep C management?

A

Viral load

129
Q

What should you do if syphilis is identified in a woman who is <16 weeks pregnant?

A

Give IM Benzathine Penicillin

130
Q

Sx and complications of mumps?

A

Fever, malaise and inflammation of the parotid glands (leading to ear ache and jaw pain).
Orchitis is the most common complication in post-pubertal males.
Also hearing loss, meningoencephalitis and pancreatitis

131
Q

Mx of rabies?

A

If previous vaccination = 2 further vaccine doses
If no previous vaccination = human rabies IG and full course of vaccination

132
Q

What is seen in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Thrombocytopenia in a very unwell person. There will likely be an autoimmune history

133
Q

What is seen in haemorrhagic haemolytic telangiectasis?

A

Epistaxis, GI bleeds and telangiectasia

134
Q

How do you interoperate the results of a Well’s score in ?DVT

A

> = 2 do a limb USS
<2 do a d-dimer, if positive do limb USS

135
Q

What is idarucizumab?

A

The reversal agent for dabigatran

136
Q

How can prednisolone assist in the Mx of ITP?

A

It suppresses the immune system

137
Q

True or false, NSAIDs can precipitate renal failure in AKI?

A

True!

138
Q

What is seen on FBC in sickle cell?

A

Normocytic anaemia with an increased reticulocyte count

139
Q

True or false prosthetic heart valves can cause haemolytic anaemia?

A

True!

140
Q

Blood results in CLL?

A

Persistently mildly raised WCC and lymphocytes with smudge/smear cells and small/medium sized lymphocytes on blood film

141
Q

Complications of CLL?

A

Recurrent infections, warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and transformation to high grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation)

142
Q

What should you consider in a sickle cell patient with a sudden anaemia and low reticulocytes?

A

Parovirus B19 leading to aplastic crises

143
Q

Sx of lead poisoning?

A

Abdo pain, constipation, neuropsychatric symptoms and basophilic stippling

144
Q

Mx of TTP?

A

Corticosteroids and IVIG. Do NOT give platelet transfusion!!

145
Q

When you are diagnosing G6PD deficiency when should you take a G6PD enzyme platelet assay?

A

At the time of the acute haemolytic episode and after 3 months

146
Q

True or false, polycythaemia rubra vera can transform to AML?

A

TRUE

147
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for sickle cell?

A

Hb electrophoresis

148
Q

What should you always consider the diagnosis if there is a deranged coagulation in sepsis? What is seen on coagulation profile

A

DIC
Anaemia, low platelets, low fibrinogen, high PT and APTT and high fibrinogen degradation products

149
Q

Mx of DVT/PE in pregnancy?

A

S/C LMW Heparin

150
Q

What is the coagulation profile like in Haemophillia?

A

Normal PT and bleeding time but a prolonged APTT

151
Q

Which clotting factors are deficient in haemophilia?

A

In Haemophilia A (most common) - Factor VIII is deficient
In Haemophilia B - Factor IX is deficient

152
Q

What is the most common type of hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Nodular sclerosing

153
Q

Ix of Myeloma?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis or urinary antigen bence-jones protein

154
Q

What is the universal donor for blood products and FFP?

A

Blood = O Rhesus negative
FFP = AB Rhesus negative

155
Q

What is seen on Ix of AML (Promyelocytic leukaemia)?

A

Auer rods

156
Q

Can acute haemolytic reaction occur in FFP transfusion?

A

NO! there are no RBCs. However anaphylaxis can occur (seen as wheeze, hypotension and fever)

157
Q

Mx of anaphylaxis vs Mx of acute haemolytic reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis = stop transfusion and give IM adrenaline
AHR = stop transfusion and give IV fluids

158
Q

What is the most common bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

159
Q

What implies a poor prognosis in lymphoma?

A

The presence of B symptoms

160
Q

Ix of Polycythaemia Vera?

A

Jak 2 mutation

161
Q

Which antibiotic is known to cause haemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Ciprofloxacin

162
Q

Bite and blister cells are seen on blood film in what condition?

A

G6PD deficiency

163
Q

How can you differentiate between Haemophilia and Von Willebrand’s on clotting profile?

A

Haemophilia = APTT increased only
VwD = Bleeding time and APTT increased

Finals Revision (23 decks)

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