Endo & Metabolic Flashcards

1
Q

What is classed as a prolonged QTc? How should you treat it in the context of hypocalcaemia?

A

> 450 in males and >460 in females
Treat with IV calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 4 factors which can give falsely low HbA1c results?

A

Haemodialysis, sickle cell, G6PD deficiency and Hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

47 XXY
They will be tall, have small testes and gynaecomastia with little secondary sexual characteristics. These patients are infertile
Will have raised gonadotrophins but low testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the single most useful test in diagnosing the cause of hypocalcaemia?

A

PTH levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should you give to anyone with HTN and T2DM?

A

ACEi or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

Propylthiouracil in the 1st trimester then switch to Carbimazole once in the 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should you start a patient with T2DM on if they have a QRISK3 >10%, HF or CVD (e.g. angina)?

A

An SGLT2 inhibitor, this is for organ protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Most commonly caused by a solitary parathyroid adenoma
Raised PTH and Calcium with low Phosphate
Management = surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Caused by parathyroid gland hyperplasia due to low Calcium (usually secondary to CKD or vitamin D deficiency)
Raised PTH and Phosphate (if kidney disease), low or normal calcium and low Vitamin D
Management = fix underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Occurs due to uncontrolled parathyroid hyperplasia after correction of the underlying renal disorder.
VERY raised PTH, normal or high Calcium and normal or low Phosphate
Management = surgical correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or false, over replacement of thyroxine can cause osteoporosis?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can lead to a falsely high HbA1c?

A

Splenectomy, iron deficiency anaemia, B12/folate deficiency and chronic alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the sick day rules in DM?

A

If on insulin take as normal but check blood sugars more frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the initial investigation in Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Low dose (overnight) dexamethasone suppression test. If Cushing’s morning cortisol spike will not be suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You have confirmed Cushing’s syndrome with a low dose dexamethasone suppression test. What should you do next?

A

Perform a high dose dexamethasone suppression test to establish the cause.
If suppressed ACTH and cortisol = pituitary cause aka Cushing’s disease
If suppressed ACTH but not cortisol = adrenal cause
Neither is suppressed = ectopic ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is a Short Synacthen test used?

A

To diagnose Addison’s disease. It will distinguish Addison’s from secondary and tertiary adrenal insufficiency (Synacthen is synthetic ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which metabolic abnormality may be seen in Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. This is most pronounced if there is ectopic ACTH e.g. in small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Primary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Addison’s disease
Occurs due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands or secondary to metastatic malignancy
Low Cortisol and low Aldosterone, raised ACTH
Mx = hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Inadequate ACTH secretion from the pituitary glands. Can occur secondary to Sheehan’s syndrome in women who have recently gave birth.
Low Cortisol and low ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe Tertiary Adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Inadequate CRH release from the hypothalamus due to long term steroids use being stopped suddenly
Low Cortisol and low ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What symptoms are seen in adrenal insufficiency?

A

Tired, Tanned, Tearful and Thin
Abdominal pain, muscle cramps, hypotension.
Hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia if Priamary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sx and Mx of an Addisonian Crisis?

A

Reduced consciousness, low glucose, low BP, low Na+ and high K+
Give IV hydrocortisone and fluid resus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sx of Hyperaldosteroneism?

A

HTN (most common cause of secondary HTN), low K+, high Na+ and low H+ (alkalosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Most commonly caused by an adrenal adenoma, known as Conn’s syndrome
High Aldosterone, low Renin
Mx = Eplerenone or Spironolactone, surgical removal of adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe Secondary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Most commonly caused by renal artery stenosis
High Aldosterone, high Renin
Mx = Eplerenone or Spironolactone, renal artery angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should you always test in treatment resistant HTN?

A

Renin:Aldosterone Ratio to look for hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an important complication of fluid resus in DKA?

A

Cerebral oedema, especially in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How should you correct hyponatraemia?

A

Slowly! Otherwise there is a risk of cerebral oedema and Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome (aka Central Pontine Myelinosis) - this causes a locked in syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can we manage the symptoms of Grave’s disease whilst we await definitive treatment?

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mx of DKA?

A

Start fixed rate insulin infusion. Continue long acting but stop short acting insulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which condition are anti-TSH receptor antibodies seen in?

A

Grave’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What condition are anti thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies seen in?

A

Hashimoto’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the 1st line Mx of Hypercalcaemia?

A

IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State?

A

Seen in those with T2DM secondary to illness, dementia or sedative drugs
Sx = Slow onset dehydration, polyuria/polydipsia, nausea and vomiting, reduced consciousness and hyper viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ix and Mx of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State?

A

Ix = low BP, high glucose, no hyperketonaemia, no acidosis
Mx = IV fluids and VTE prophylaxis. Do not give insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are features which separate Grave’s from other causes of hyperthyroidism?

A

Exophthalmos, ophthalmoplegia, pretibial myxoedema, thyroid acropachy (digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of hands/feet, new periosteal bone formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How frequently should insulin dependant diabetics check blood glucose whilst driving?

A

Every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

You are initiating diabetes treatment for a type 2 diabetic. You want to give Metformin and an SGLT2 inhibitor for organ protection. How should you proceed?

A

Start metformin. Once tolerability is confirmed add the SGLT2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You are initiating diabetes treatment for a type 2 diabetic. You want to give Metformin and an SGLT2 inhibitor for organ protection. The patient states they can’t tolerate Metformin, how should you proceed?

A

Treat with SGLT2 monotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do SGLT2 inhibitors and sulfonylureas affect weight?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors cause weight loss
Sulfonylureas cause weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most common thyroid cancer? What is the prognosis?

A

Papillary cancer. It spreads early to the lymph nodes but shows a good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Name 4 drugs known to cause Galactorrhoea?

A

Metoclopramide, Domperidone, Haloperidol and Chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mx of Diabetic peripheral neruopathy?

A

Amitriptyline (avoid in those with BPH due to risk of urinary retention), Duloxetine (avoid if eGFR <30), Gabapentin and Pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How can we Mx galactorrhoea?

A

Bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Pseudo-Cushing’s?

A

It can mimic Cushing’s disease. It occurs secondary to alcohol excess or severe depression. Insulin stress test will differentiate it from true Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many units is 1ml insulin?

A

1000 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ix of secondary hypothyroidism?

A

Low TSH and low T4
Ix = MRI pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the top 2 causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Most common = exogenous steroids
2nd most common = pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you diagnose asymptomatic patients with T2DM?

A

They must have a fasting plasma glucose >=7mmol/l OR a random plasma glucose (OGTT) >=11.1mmol/l OR HbA1c >=48 on 2 separate occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When should you set up an infusion of 10% dextrose alongside the saline infusion in DKA?

A

When BM <14

51
Q

What can happen if you correct high sodium too quickly?

A

Cerebral oedema

52
Q

How can Pioglitazone affect weight?

A

It can cause weight gain

53
Q

Describe sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

A normal TSH but low T3/T4 in elderly patients who are unwell

54
Q

Which type of anti-diabetic drugs cause weight loss?

A

GLP-1 inhibitors (-tides), DPP4 inhibitors (-gliptins) and SGLT2 inhibitors (-flozins)

55
Q

What may be the cause of a bitemporal inferior quadrantopia?

A

Craniopharyngioma

56
Q

What may be the cause of a bitemporal superior quadrantopia?

A

Pituitary tumour

57
Q

What should every person on insulin always be given?

A

A glucagon kit for emergenices

58
Q

How does prolactinoma present?

A

Headaches, loss of libido and visual field defects
In women amenorrhoea, in men erectile dysfunction and gynaecomastia

59
Q

Mx of prolactinoma?

A

1st line = dopamine agonists such as cabergoline
2nd line = trans sphenoidal surgery

60
Q

What are some important side effects of pioglitazone? How do they work?

A

It can cause fluid retention (so is contraindicated in HF), can cause liver issues (so LFTs must be monitored) and can cause bladder CA.
They work by reducing peripheral insulin resistance

61
Q

What should you do if you find increased urinary cortisol but decreased plasma ACTH?

A

CT of the adrenal glands to look for ?adrenal adenoma

62
Q

How does orlistat work?

A

It decreases gastric and pancreatic lipase secretion so decreases the digestion of fat leading to weight loss

63
Q

Which metabolic abnormality can thiazide like diuretics cause?

A

Hypercalcaemia

64
Q

Sx of Sub-acute (De Quervian’s) thyroiditis?

A

Hyperthyroidism following a viral illness.
Sx: Phase 1 (3-6 weeks) = hyperthyroidism, painful goitre and increased ESR
Phase 2 (1-3 weeks) = euthyroid
Phase 3 (weeks-months) = hypothyroid
Phase 4 = normalisation

65
Q

Ix and Mx of Sub Acute (De Quervian’s) thyroiditis?

A

Ix = Globally reduced uptake of iodine 131
Mx = Aspirin/NSAIDs for pain. Steroids if severe or if hypothyroidism develops

66
Q

What is pre-diabetes?

A

HbA1c of 42-47
Fasting plasma glucose 6.1-6.9

67
Q

What is the target HbA1c in DM?

A

Aim for HbA1c <48 unless there is a risk of hypos/initial diabetic therapy has failed and the current HbA1c is >58, then aim for 53

68
Q

Describe sub clinical hypothyroidism? How do you manage it?

A

Raised TSH but normal T3/T4
Mx = If TSH >10 on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart offer levothyroxine
If TSH 5.4-10 on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart AND there are Sx present AND under 65 offer 6/12 trial of levothyroxine
Otherwise watch and wait approach

69
Q

How does hyperkalaemia show on an ECG?

A

Tall tented T waves, 1st degree heart block, flattened/absent p waves and ST depression and prolonged QRS

70
Q

When do you start a second diabetes drug?

A

When metformin has been titrated to the maximum dose (2g) and HbA1c is >58

71
Q

What are the main contributors to diabetic foot?

A

Loss of sensation in the foot and peripheral artery disease

72
Q

How does RBC lifespan affect HbA1c reading?

A

Premature RBC death = falsely low HbA1c
Increased RBC lifespan = falsely high HbA1c

73
Q

Describe Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)?

A

AD - associated with HNF-1 alpha mutation
T2DM occurs in those <25
Ketosis is not present at diagnosis
Mx = sulfonylureas

74
Q

Acromegaly is often caused by a pituitary tumour, what are some complications?

A

HTN, DM, Cardiomyopathy and colorectal CA

75
Q

What do iodine studies show in Grave’s disease?

A

Diffuse homogenous increased uptake of radioactive iodine

76
Q

How can small cell lung cancers lead to coma?

A

They secrete ADH which causes SIADH which leads to hyponatraemia. This can cause cerebral oedema leading to coma

77
Q

What should you suspect in hyperthyroidism with tender goitre and a raised ESR?

A

Sub Acute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis.
Graves is NOT painful

78
Q

What would expect to happen after 24 hours of DKA treatment? What do you do if it hasn’t happened yet?

A

Resolving blood markers - Ketonemia <0.6 and Acidosis >7.3
If this has not happened review with senior endocrinologist

79
Q

What are the 2nd choice T2DM drugs when HbA1c is >58 on metformin

A

DDP-4 inhibitor, Pioglitazone, Sulfonylurea or SGLT-2 inhibitor

80
Q

1st line Mx of pituitary tumour causing acromegaly?

A

Trans-sphenoidal surgery

81
Q

Ix of Acromegaly?

A

Initial screening = Insulin like Growth Factor 1 (is raised)
Then OGTT whilst measuring GH (glucose will not suppress GH in acromegaly)
MRI Pituitary gland

82
Q

Should you continue metformin when starting insulin for T2DM?

A

Yes!

83
Q

What should you do if triple drug therapy has failed to control T2DM?

A

Switch one of the drugs to a GLP-1 mimetic (-tides)

84
Q

A patient is taking levothyroxine. They have a raised TSH but normal T4. What does this indicate?

A

Poor compliance with the drug

85
Q

What are the causes of hypovolaemic hyponatraemia? How do you treat?

A

Diuretics, Addisonian crisis, diuretic stage of renal failure, N+V (dehydration)
Mx = isotonic saline

86
Q

What are the causes of euvolaemic hyponatraemia? How do you treat?

A

SAIDH
Mx = fluid restriction

87
Q

What are the causes of hypervolaemic hyponatraemia? How do you treat?

A

HF, liver failure and nephrotic syndrome
Mx = fluid restriction

88
Q

How can magnesium affect calcium?

A

Low magnesium can cause low calcium. It can also cause those with low calcium to be resistant to treatment

89
Q

What drug class is Silagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor

90
Q

Describe a Myxoedemic coma?

A

Occurs due to uncontrolled hypothyroidism.
Sx = Sx of hypothyroidism may have pre-ceded. Non-pitting oedema, hypothermia, hypotension, bradycardia, hypoventilation and coma
Mx = IV thyroxine and hydrocortisone

91
Q

How do SGLT-2 inhibitors caused UTIs?

A

They lead to glycosuria which increases the risk of UTI

92
Q

What should you do if a patient complains of GI SEs of metformin?

A

Switch to a modified release version

93
Q

How does Kallmann syndrome affect the hormones?

A

X-linked recessive
Abnormally normal or low LH and FSH
Low testosterone
ANOSMIA!!

94
Q

How does Klinefelter syndrome affect the hormones?

A

47 XXY
High LH and FSH, Low testosterone

95
Q

A patient has a HbA1c of <58 after commencing Metformin but is considered high risk of CVD (QRISK >10%, has CVD or has CHF). Should you start an SGLT-2 inhibitor?

A

YES

96
Q

Which DM drug is always contraindicated in HF? What drug class is it?

A

Pioglitazone
It is a thiazolidinedione

97
Q

What is seen in Ix of De Quervian’s tyroiditis?

A

Raised T4, Raised ESR, globally reduced uptake of iodine-131.
Goitre is painful

98
Q

What is classed as impaired glucose tolerance?

A

OGTT (at 2 hours) 7.9-11.1
FPG <7.0

99
Q

What is classed as impaired fasting glucose?

A

FPG 6.1-7.0

100
Q

True or false, spironolactone can cause gynaecomastia?

A

TRUE

101
Q

How much fluid should patients with T1DM aim to drink per day when ill?

A

3L per day

102
Q

What should you do with any diabetic patient who has foot problems other than simple calluses?

A

Follow them up regularly in local diabetic foot centre

103
Q

When should you measure BMs in T1DM? What should the BM targets be?

A

At least 4 times a day (before each meal and before bed)
Targets are 5-7 on waking and 4-7 before other meals

104
Q

When should you always give levothyroxine in subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

If TSH is >10 on 2 separate occasions at least 3 months apart

105
Q

You have low PTH but hypercalcaemia secondary to malignancy. What has caused this?

A

PTHrP released by squamous cell carcinoma

106
Q

What is the HbA1c target in T2DM?

A

48 unless there is drug associated hypoglycaemia then 53

107
Q

What type of foods is it good to increase in the diet if patients want to diet control their DM?

A

High fibre foods

108
Q

How do non-functioning pituitary adenomas present?

A

Hypopituitarism and mass effect

109
Q

What should you do with all patients presenting with incidental pituitary adenomas (even if no symptoms)?

A

Clinical and lab evaluations for hormone hypersecretion and hypopituitarism to determine if it is functional or non-functional

110
Q

When must patients with DM surrender their driving lisence?

A

If they have >= 2 hypoglycaemic episodes requiring assistance in 12 months

111
Q

What are BP targets in DM?

A

The same as normal BP targets (<140/90 clinic, <135/85 ABPM)

112
Q

True or false, medullary thyroid cancers can be associated with pheochromocytoma?

A

True, it is part of MEN2 and is inherited in an AD fashion

113
Q

What should you consider the cause of thyrotoxicosis (high TSH and T4) and a hot solitary nodule on scintigraphy?

A

Toxic adenoma

114
Q

When should you take hydrocortisone for addison’s?

A

Morning and night with the majority of the dose to be given in the morning

115
Q

DKA is associated with hyperkalaemia. Once you start insulin therapy they may become hypokalaemic, how do you treat?

A

If K+ is <5.5 give 40mmol/L potassium mixed into a fluid bag

116
Q

What metabolic abnormality is seen in renal tubular acidosis?

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap

117
Q

What are the types or renal tubular acidosis?

A

Type 1 = distal = low potassium, causes nephrocalcinosis and renal stones
Type 2 = proximal = low potassium, causes osteomalacia
Type 3 = mixed = low potassium, is very rare
Type 4 = secondary to low aldosterone, causes high potassium

118
Q

What is seen in alcoholic ketosis?

A

Raised ketones in the presence of low or normal glucose

119
Q

How do you treat acute, severe, symptomatic hypernatraemia?

A

Na+ <120
Give hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)

120
Q

True or false, raised ALP can be seen in normal pregnancy

A

True

121
Q

Which types of adrenal insufficiency is hyperpigmentation seen in?

A

Primary as this is the one associated with increased ACTH

122
Q

What type of DI is caused by lithium?

A

Nephrogenic

123
Q

What is classed as low urine osmolality in DI?

A

<300