Complex Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of fracture causes the bone to be fragmented?

A

comminuted

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2
Q

What type of fracture is common with physical abuse?

A

spiral

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3
Q

What type of fracture is common in children?

A

greenstick

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4
Q

Does a greenstick fracture go all the way through the bone?

A

NO

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5
Q

What type of fracture might require a tetanus shot?

A

an open fracture

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6
Q

What is the grating sound created by the rubbing of bone fragments?

A

crepitus

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7
Q

What is the internal rotation of the extremity, a shortened extremity, or visible bone with an open fracture?

A

deformity

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8
Q

What causes ecchymosis with fractures?

A

bleeding from trauma into underlying soft tissues

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9
Q

What is a late finding with fractures?

A

subcutaneous emphysema

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10
Q

What causes compartment syndrome?

A

excessive swelling from a fracture

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11
Q

What does a neurovascular assessment consist of?

A

The 5 P’s
- pain
- paralysis
- paresthesias
- pallor
- pulses

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12
Q

How often should you do neuro checks with compartment syndrome?

A

q 15 mins

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13
Q

What is the hallmark sign of fat embolism?

A

petechiae on the chest and abdomen

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14
Q

What can a fat embolism result in? When are they most common?

A
  • acute respiratory insufficiency or impaired organ perfusion
  • long bone fractures
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15
Q

What can anticoagulants and ambulating prevent after a fracture?

A

DVT and PE

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16
Q

What type of fractures are most likely to cause infection?

A

open

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17
Q

What is important to determine with fractures?

A

mechanism of injury

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18
Q

What should you NOT do with fractures?

A

manipulate

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19
Q

What is malunion?

A

when a fracture heals incorrectly

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20
Q

What is nounion?

A

a fracture that never heals

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21
Q

What should you watch for with casts?

A
  • skin breakdown
  • ability to move fingers
  • good perfusion
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22
Q

How do weights hang with skin traction?

A

over the edge of the bed but not touching the ground

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23
Q

How much weight can be used for skin traction?

A

no more than 10 pounds

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24
Q

What is Buck’s traction used for?

A

hip fractures and dislocation

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25
Q

How much weight can be used for skeletal traction?

A

15-30 pounds

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26
Q

What should you assess pin sites for?

A

drainage and redness

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27
Q

What is ORIF?

A

plates are added to straighten the bone during surgery

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28
Q

When would you use external fixation?

A

if surgery cannot be done yet or the fracture is not the priority problem

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29
Q

What is essential in improving circulation after a fracture?

A

fluids

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30
Q

How should you get out of bed after a fracture?

A

unaffected side first

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31
Q

Shoudl you elevate the extremity after an amputation or fracture?

A

YES

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32
Q

Shoudl you elevate the extremity affected with compartment syndrome?

A

NO

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33
Q

How can you monitor circulation after an amputation?

A
  • angiography
  • ankle-brachial index
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34
Q

When would an amputation be left open?

A

if there is an active infection

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35
Q

What does RICE stand for?

A
  • rest
  • ice
  • compress
  • elevate
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36
Q

How should you assess for perfusion after an amputation?

A

take pulses most proximal to amputation at the same time

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37
Q

What medication should you give for phantom limb pain within the first week?

A

calcitonin

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38
Q

What other medications can you give for phantom limb pain?

A
  • BB
  • gabapentin
  • baclofen (muscle relaxer)
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39
Q

How can you help flexion contractures?

A
  • ROM
  • d/c elevation after 24-48 hours
  • lie prone for 20-30 mins several times per day
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40
Q

What causes compartment syndrome?

A

a tight cast or splint or an internal source (accumulation of blood or fluid)

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41
Q

What is a fasciotomy?

A

a surgery to open the faschia to decrease pressure and increase perfusion

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42
Q

When might you see abrasions, hematomas, contusions, or deglovong?

A

with crush injuries

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43
Q

Why should you put a heart monitor on a patient with a crush injury?

A

crush injuries release potassium

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44
Q

What type of fluids should you give for crush injuries?

A
  • warmed NS or LR
  • blood products (PRBC’s or whole blood)
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45
Q

What should you check the urine for with crush injuries?

A

myoglobin (makes it concentrated and dark)

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46
Q

What type of pain arises from inflammation of tissue?

A

nociceptive

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47
Q

What can have somatice pain?

A
  • joints
  • bones
  • muscles
  • skin
  • tissues
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48
Q

What can have visceral pain?

A

organs

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49
Q

What is referred pain?

A

pain comes from a different place than it is felt

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50
Q

What are the types of breakthrough pain?

A
  • incident
  • idiopathic
  • end of dose medication failure
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51
Q

What can cause psychogenic pain?

A

depression, dewer endorphins

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52
Q

When should you use skin stimulation, distraction, relaxation, imagery, and elevation?

A

pain

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53
Q

What medications are most used for pain?

A
  • analgesics (acetaminophen)
  • PCA (morphine, delaudid)
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54
Q

What can happen to the urine with urinary calculi?

A
  • frequency/urgency
  • hematuria
  • oliguria/anuria
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55
Q

How can you catch stones with urinary calculi?

A

strain the urine

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56
Q

What does shock wave lithotripsy do?

A

breaks up the kidney stone to help it pass

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57
Q

What does stenting do?

A

dilates the ureter

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58
Q

What surgeries can be done for urinary calculi?

A
  • uterolithotomy
  • pyelolithotomy
  • nephrolithotomy
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59
Q

What should be limited with urinary calculi?

A
  • sodium
  • calcium
  • animal protein
  • purine sources
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60
Q

What should be avoided with urinary calculi?

A
  • oxalate sources
  • high phosphate foods
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61
Q

What electrolyte imbalances should seizure precautions be implemented for?

A
  • sodium
  • hypocalcemia
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62
Q

What electrolyte imbalance should you restrict fluids for?

A

FVO (hypervolemia)

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63
Q

What electrolyte imbalance should you encourage fluids for?

A

hyponatremia

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64
Q

How much sodium replacement can be done in 24 hours?

A

12 mEq

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65
Q

How should calcium gluconate/carbonate be given to someone with hypocalcemia?

A

as a bolus diluted in dextrose and water

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66
Q

What type of medications are important to avoid with hypocalcemia?

A

nephrotoxic (vancomycin, NSAIDS)

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67
Q

What electrolyte imbalance causes a positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s sign?

A

hypocalcemia

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68
Q

How can hyperkalemia be treated?

A
  • glucose/insulin
  • kayexelate/calcium gluconate
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69
Q

What marks the end of the onset phase of AKI?

A

the development of oliguria

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70
Q

How long does the onset phase of AKI last?

A

hours to days

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71
Q

How long does the oliguria phase of AKI last?

A

1-3 weeks

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72
Q

How long does the diuresis phase of AKI last?

A

2-6 weeks

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73
Q

How long can the recovery phase of AKI last?

A

up to 12 months

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74
Q

What are the main manifestations of AKI?

A
  • anemia
  • FVO
  • hyperkalemia
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75
Q

What electrolyte imbalance shows peaked T waves and a wide QRS on the EKG?

A

hyperkalemia

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76
Q

What type of AKI has lack of perfusion to the kidney?

A

prerenal

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77
Q

How is the prerenal type of AKI reversed?

A

restoration of blood flow

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78
Q

What type of AKI has direct damage to the kidney from lack of oxygen?

A

intrarenal

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79
Q

What type of AKI is the hardest to reverse?

A

intrarenal

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80
Q

What type of AKI is the bilateral obstruction of structures leaving the kidney?

A

postrenal

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81
Q

What type of AKI is the easiest to reverse?

A

postrenal

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82
Q

What might you feel with postrenal AKI?

A
  • full bladder
  • flank pain
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83
Q

Does urine output usually increase or decrease with AKI?

A

decrease

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84
Q

What are the biggest risk factors for AKI?

A
  • CKD
  • HF
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85
Q

What should you watch for with hemodialysis?

A
  • proteinuria
  • metabolic acidosis
  • oliguria
  • dark urine
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86
Q

What is the antidote for anticoagulants?

A

protamine

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87
Q

What should be put in place to prevent infection from hemodialysis?

A
  • aseptic technique
  • standard precautions
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88
Q

What should you avoid doing to the arm with AV access?

A

compressing (BP, laying on it)

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89
Q

What is important to assess for with AV access?

A

palpable thrill and audible bruit

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90
Q

What causes disequilibrium syndrome from hemodialysis?

A

rapid increase in BUN and circulating blood volume

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91
Q

When should you slow the flow rate of hemodialysis?

A
  • hypotension
  • disequilibrium syndrome
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92
Q

What should you give for anemia caused by hemodialysis?

A

erythropoietin and blood products

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93
Q

What are manifestations of end stage renal disease?

A
  • anuria
  • proteinuria
  • azotemia
  • electrolyte imbalances
  • FVE (HF, pulmonary edema)
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94
Q

What must match between the donor and recipient during a renal transplant?

A

tissue

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95
Q

What ages should be considered before having a kidney transplant?

A

> 70 or < 2

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96
Q

What type of meds will you take for the rest of your life after a kidney transplant and why?

A

immunosuppressants to prevent rejection

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97
Q

Why should you weight a kidney transplant patient everyday?

A

to assess for fluid retention

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98
Q

Why are hemodynamics so important after a kidney transplant?

A

internal bleeding

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99
Q

What might the urine look like after a kidney transplant?

A

pink tinged, bloody

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100
Q

When does a hyperacute rejection reaction occur after a kidney transplant?

A

in the first 48 hours

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101
Q

When does an acute rejection reaction occur after a kidney transplant?

A

1 week to 2 years after

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102
Q

What type of pain is caused by a UTI?

A
  • lower back or abdominal
  • urination
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103
Q

What symptoms do older adults have from UTI?

A
  • confusion
  • incontinence
  • loss of appetite
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia, tachypnea
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104
Q

When would you experience frequent urination, foul smelling urine, dysuria, feeling of incomplete bladder, hematuria, nocturia, and voiding in small amounts?

A

with a UTI

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105
Q

Why should you increase fluids with a UTI?

A

to flush out bacteria

106
Q

What type of medications should you take for a UTI?

A

antibiotics

107
Q

What medication makes your urine orange?

A

phenazopyridine

108
Q

How can you relieve UTI discomfort?

A
  • warm sitz baths
  • warm ice packs
  • heating pads
109
Q

What should you drink for UTI’s? What should you avoid drinking?

A
  • drink cranberry juice
  • avoid caffeinated beverages
110
Q

What is urosepsis a complication of?

A

UTI

111
Q

What is the first sign of urosepsis?

A

hypotension

112
Q

What is the different sign with pyelonephritis?

A

costovertebral tenderness

113
Q

What gets inflammed with pyelonephritis?

A

renal pelvis and parenychma

114
Q

What gets inflammed with glomerulonephritis?

A

glomerular capillary membrane

115
Q

What color is urine with glomerulonephritis?

A

cola colored

116
Q

What are clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis?

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • malaise
  • flank pain
  • urinary frequency
  • costovertebral tenderness
117
Q

What is the most important sign of glomerulonephritis?

A

HTN

118
Q

What are clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis?

A
  • FVE
  • HTN
  • LOC changes
  • anorexia/nausea
  • HA
  • back pain
  • fever
119
Q

Is there a cure for glomerulonephritis?

A

no

120
Q

What is pyelonephritis usually caused by?

A

E. coli

121
Q

What should you restrict with glomerulonephritis?

A
  • sodium
  • potassium
  • fluids
122
Q

What does a plasmapheresis do?

A

filters antibodies

123
Q

What should you watch for after a plasmapheresis?

A
  • hypovolemia
  • tetany
  • infection
124
Q

Do you give fluids or diuretics for pyelonephritis?

A

fluids

125
Q

Do you give fluids or diuretics for glomerulonephritis?

A

diuretics

126
Q

What is a pediatric hyperthermic temperature?

A

102

127
Q

What is an adult hyperthermic temperature?

A

101-106

128
Q

What vitals increase with hyperthermia?

A
  • temp
  • HR
  • RR
129
Q

What antipyretics can be given for hyperthermia?

A

ibuprofen, tylenol

130
Q

What can you do for a patient with hyperthermia?

A
  • cool washcloths
  • ice
  • cooling blanket
  • decrease room temp
  • remove clothing
131
Q

What is a pediatric hypothermic temperature?

A

82

132
Q

What is an adult hypothermic temperature?

A

95

133
Q

What can you do for a patient with hypothermia?

A
  • dry clothing
  • warm blankets
  • warm fluids
  • warming pads
134
Q

If coma is suspected in a patient with hypothermia, what temperature should be used to rewarm them? How long should it be used for?

A

104-105 degrees for 20-30 mins

135
Q

What are patients with hypothermka at risk for?

A

clots

136
Q

When can angioedema occur?

A

anaphylactic shock

137
Q

What order should meds be given in for anaphylactic shock?

A

epi, diphenhydramine, corticosteroid (methylprednisolone)

138
Q

How should hypotension be helped in a patient with anaphylactic shock?

A

laying flat with legs elevated

139
Q

What temperature is indicative of SIRS?

A

> 100.9 or < 96.8

140
Q

What WBC count is indicative of SIRS?

A

> 12 or < 4

141
Q

What causes tachypnea, tachycardia, and a PaCO2 < 32?

A

SIRS

142
Q

What can cause SIRS?

A
  • hospitalization
  • debilitating chronic illness
  • poor nutritional status
  • post-invasive surgery
  • old age
  • immunocompromised
143
Q

What lab is important to check for SIRS?

A

lactate

144
Q

How should fluids and antibiotics be given for a patient with SIRS?

A

through a central line

145
Q

What kind of infections are present with sepsis?

A

septicemia and bacteremia

146
Q

What clinical manifestation is added when moving from SIRS to sepsis?

A

hypotension

147
Q

What lactate level indicates sepsis?

A

> 2

148
Q

What HR and RR indicate sepsis?

A
  • HR: >90
  • RR: > 20
149
Q

What happens to CVP with sepsis? What CVP is ideal?

A

decreased, want 6-8

150
Q

What happens to SVR with sepsis?

A

decreased

151
Q

What happens to cardiac output with sepsis?

A

increased

152
Q

What electrolytes decrease with sepsis? Which ones increase?

A
  • decrease: glucose and sodium
  • increase: potassium
153
Q

What should PaCO2 level be with sepsis?

A

> 80

154
Q

What does norepi do for sepsis patients?

A

increases BP

155
Q

Does dobutamine increase BP?

A

no

156
Q

What happens with MODS?

A

loss of function of 2 or more organs

157
Q

What organs should be monitored with MODS?

A
  • lungs
  • kidney
  • heart
  • liver
  • GI tract
158
Q

What labs should be monitored for MODS?

A
  • BUN/creatinine
  • ABG’s
  • ammonia
  • BNP
159
Q

What pH indicates acidosis?

A

< 7.35

160
Q

What pH indicates alkalosis?

A

> 7.45

161
Q

What is a normal PaCO2?

A

35-45

162
Q

What is a normal HCO3?

A

22-26

163
Q

What is a normal FiO2?

A

21-40%

164
Q

What indicates respiratory acidosis (hypoventilation)?

A

pH: < 7.35 (low)
PaCO2: > 45 (high)
HCO3: 22-28 (normal)

165
Q

What indicates respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilation)?

A

pH: > 7.45 (high)
PaCO2: < 35 (low)
HCO3: 22-28 (normal)

166
Q

What indicates metabolic acidosis?

A

pH: < 7.35 (low)
PaCO2: 35-45 (normal)
HCO3: < 22 (low)

167
Q

What indicates metabolic alkalosis?

A

pH: > 7.45 (high)
PaCO2: 35-45 (normal)
HCO3: > 26 (high)

168
Q

What type of pressure is generated when we breathe on our own?

A

negative

169
Q

What type of pressure is generated by ventilation, bag, or mouth-to-mouth?

A

positive pressure

170
Q

What happens to the pH with right shift?

A

decreases, acidosis

171
Q

What happens to the pH with left shift?

A

increases, alkalosis

172
Q

What causes right shift?

A

hyperthermia and increased 2,3 dpg

173
Q

What causes left shift?

A

hypothermia and decreased 2,3 dpg

174
Q

What does 2,3 dpg do?

A

tells hgb to let go of oxygen

175
Q

How should right shift be treated?

A

increasing pressure and giving oxygen

176
Q

How should left shift be treated?

A

give 2,3 dpg

177
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

air in the pleural space causing lung collapse

178
Q

What happens to the affected side with a pneumothorax?

A
  • decreased movement
  • diminished/absent breath sounds
  • hyperrresonance
179
Q

Chest tube insertion with a flutter valve or chest drainage system is the priority intervention for what?

A

pneumothorax

180
Q

What type of dressing is used for chest tubes?

A

petroleum

181
Q

What causes cyanosis, air hunger, trachial deviation away from the affected side, SQ emphysema, neck vein distention, and hyperresosance to percussion?

A

tension pneumothorax

182
Q

What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?

A

thoracentesis until chest tube

183
Q

What is a hemothorax?

A

blood in the pleural space

184
Q

What is heard on percussion if a hemothorax is present?

A

dullness

185
Q

What is the treatment for hemothorax?

A

a chest tube with a drainage system, autotransfusion of collected blood, treatment of hypovolemia

186
Q

What is the fracture of 2+ adjacent ribs in 2+ places with loss of chest wall stability?

A

flail chest

187
Q

What type of ventilation is used for flail chest?

A
  • positive pressure (BiPAP, CPAP)
  • intubation and mechanical ventilation
188
Q

Do you want bubbling or tidaling in the chamber of a chest tube?

A

yes, but not excessive

189
Q

Does wall suction control the suction applied with a chest tube?

A

no, the water (wet) and drainage system (dry) control it

190
Q

What can clamping a chest tube for an extended period of time cause?

A

tension pneumothorax

191
Q

When can you clamp a chest tube?

A
  • changing drainage
  • checking air leak
192
Q

What should be done if the chest tube gets disconnected?

A

put in sterile water until it can be replaced

193
Q

What should be done if the chest tube gets removed?

A

cover insertion site with 3 sided dressing

194
Q

How much blood in the collection chamber of a chest tube indicates notifying the provider?

A

70-100 ml/hr

195
Q

Should you ever elevate the drainage system of a chest tube above the heart?

A

NO

196
Q

What is the first sign of status asthmaticus?

A

expiratory wheezing

197
Q

What is silent chest a really bad sign of?

A

status asthmaticus

198
Q

What do you want to keep the RR below for status asthmaticus? What do you want the SaO2 to be greater than?

A

RR < 30, SaO2 > 90%

199
Q

What medication should you give first for status asthmaticus?

A

albuterol

200
Q

What can lethargy, changes in LOC, agitation and restlessness indicate with status asthmaticus?

A

cabon dioxide narcosis

201
Q

What can cause oxygen toxicity?

A

high FiO2 for a long period of time

202
Q

What is the classic triad of a PE?

A
  • dyspnea
  • chest pain
  • hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
203
Q

What happens to heart sounds with a PE?

A

accentuation of pulmonic heart sounds

204
Q

A PE can cause hypoxemia. What can hypoxemia cause?

A

sudden change in mental staus

205
Q

How is a PE diagnosed?

A

spiral CT with contrast

206
Q

What is the hallmark sign of fat emboli syndrome?

A

petechial rash to upper chest

207
Q

What diagnostic can be done for a PE if contrast cannot be used?

A

V/Q lung scan

208
Q

What can be done for fat emboli syndrome?

A

thrombectomy

209
Q

What meds can be used for PE?

A

anticoagulants and alteplase

210
Q

What puts a patient at risk for a PE?

A
  • recent surgery
  • immobility
  • stroke, DVT
  • paralysis
  • birth control
  • HTN
  • smoking
  • obesity
211
Q

How often should PTt and INR be drawn when taking anticoagulants?

A

q 2 weeks

212
Q

Why is an embolectomy a last resort for PE?

A

50% mortality rate

213
Q

What happens to HR and RR with ARF?

A

they increase and then decrease below normal limits

214
Q

Where will crackles be heard with ARDS?

A

all over the lungs

215
Q

What oxygen should be used for ARF?

A
  • high flow O2
  • intubation/mechanical ventilation
  • PEEP
216
Q

What is the most common cause of ARDS?

A

sepsis

217
Q

What is the hallmark sign of ARDS?

A

incurable hypoxemia

218
Q

What PaO2/FiO2 ratio happens with ARDS?

A

< 200

219
Q

What is a normal PAP? What is a normal PAP for pulmonary HTN?

A

normal: 12-16
PHTN: < 25

220
Q

What happens to O2 sat with ARF?

A

hypercarbic

221
Q

What does increased workload of the RV cause from pulmonary HTN?

A

hypertrophy

222
Q

What does a chest x-ray showing enlarged pulmonary arteries with clear lung fields and an enlarged right heart indicate?

A

pulmonary HTN

223
Q

What interventions (meds) should be done for pulmonary HTN?

A
  • diuretics
  • anticoagulants
  • oxygen
  • CCB
  • sildenafil
224
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

enlargement of the RV leading to HF

225
Q

What is the most common cause of cor pulmonale?

A

COPD

226
Q

What heart sound has increased intensity from cor pulmonale?

A

the second heart sound

227
Q

What interventions (meds) should be done for cor pulmonale?

A
  • diuretics
  • O2
  • anticoagulants
  • CCB
  • sildenafil
228
Q

What breathing pattern is rapid, deep breathing?

A

Kussmaul breathing

229
Q

What breathing pattern is irregular with temporary apnea?

A

Cheyne-stokes breathing

230
Q

What breathing pattern is rapid, shallow breathing followed by apnea?

A

biot breathing

231
Q

hat breathing pattern is seen near death?

A

cheyne-stokes

232
Q

What type of intubation is preferred?

A

oral because it can be secured rapidly

233
Q

When should nasal intubation be avoided?

A
  • facial or skull fractures
  • cranial surgery
234
Q

When should you intubate?

A
  • agonal breathing
  • RR < 6
  • GCS < 8
235
Q

What medications are used for intubation?

A
  • sedatives (etomidate, propofol)
  • paralytics (succinylcholine)
236
Q

How long should each intubation attempt be?

A

< 30 seconds

237
Q

What should you do between each intubation attempt?

A

ventilate w ambu bag

238
Q

What color should the ET tube change to with successful intubation?

A

from purple to yellow

239
Q

What does tidal volume measure?

A

the amount of air delivered with each breath

240
Q

What does FiO2 measure?

A

% of O2 being delivered

241
Q

What does PEEP measure?

A

amount of pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration - helps keep alveoli open

242
Q

What does PIP measure?

A

reading on the ventilator showing the greatest airway pressure at the end of the inspiratory cycle

243
Q

What does assist control (AC) ventilation do?

A

takes over/controls the work of breathing

244
Q

When is assist control (AC) ventilation used?

A

really sick patients because the ventilator does all of the work

245
Q

What ventilation allows the pt to take spontaneous breaths?

A

SIMV

246
Q

What does PSV ventilation do?

A

maintains a set airway to assist with spontaneous breaths

247
Q

What is the difference between PSV and CPAP ventilation?

A

for CPAP you dont have to be intubated

248
Q

When can you NOT use CPAP ventilation?

A

COPD

249
Q

When is BiPAP ventilation used?

A

COPD

250
Q

What are ventilation complications?

A
  • trauma
  • aspiration pneumonia
  • barotrauma - pneumothorax
251
Q

How long can you suction at a time?

A

10 seconds

252
Q

When should suction be discontinued?

A
  • if HR increases by 40 or decreases by 20
  • if dysrhythmias occur
  • if SpO2 decreased below 90%
253
Q

How many suction passes can be done at a time?

A

3

254
Q

What is a normal PaO2?

A

80-100

255
Q

What is a normal SaO2?

A

92-100%

256
Q

What does a pan culture assess?

A

blood, urine, sputum, stool

257
Q

When is a pan culture done?

A

hyperthermia

258
Q

Can you insert chest tubes in a patient with flail chest?

A

NO

259
Q

What is the most common ventilation for ARF?

A

CPAP or BiPAP

260
Q

What is the biggest sign of ARF?

A

hypercarbia

261
Q

Does ARDS or ARF have crackles?

A

ARDS