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microbio > lecture 11 chapter 14 > Flashcards

lecture 11 chapter 14 Flashcards

1
Q

the interior of the human body is a ________ for microbes due to our immune system

A

hostile environment

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2
Q

rapid, non-specific immunity, general protection plan that is present at birth and serves as our first line of defense for our entire life

A

innate immunity

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3
Q

our specific immunity that develops throughout life and is tailor made to defend against the microbes or foreign material that we are exposed to

A

adaptive immunity

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4
Q

what are first-line defenses?

A

barriers that block entry

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5
Q

sensor systems in the body include:

A

sentinel cells and complement system

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6
Q

what do sentinel cells use to identify unique microbial components?

A

pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

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7
Q

where is the complement system found?

A

in blood and tissue fluid

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8
Q

what are the innate effector actions that can destroy invaders?

A

interferon (IFN), phagocytes, inflammatory response, fever, complement activation

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9
Q

what is interferon secreted with?

A

viral infection

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10
Q

what do phagocytes engulf?

A

microbes or cell debris by phagocytosis

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11
Q

________ limits the infection and signals for help

A

inflammatory response

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12
Q

_______ interferes with pathogen growth and enhances other immune responses

A

fever

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13
Q

what are the “security walls” of the innate defenses?

A

first-line defenses (prevent microbial entry)

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14
Q

what are the “security cameras” of the innate defenses?

A

sensor systems (detect damage and microbial invasion)

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15
Q

what are the “security teams” of the innate defenses?

A

innate effector actions (eliminate invader)

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16
Q

first line defenses

A

skin and mucous membranes
antimicrobial substances

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17
Q

all exposed surfaces are lined with ______

A

epithelium

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18
Q

tightly woven fibrous connective tissue

A

dermis

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19
Q

the epidermis is made of:

A

many layers of epithelial cells

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20
Q

is it easy for microbes to penetrate skin?

A

no

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21
Q

the outermost layer of epithelial cells in the epidermis are _______

A

dead, filled with keratin

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22
Q

keratin in the epidermis serves what purpose?

A

repels water, maintains dry environment

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23
Q

what do the dead cells of the epidermis do?

A

continually flake off along with any attached microbes

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24
Q

where are mucous membranes found?

A

digestive, respiratory, genitourinary tracts

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25
Q

what removes microbes in mucous membranes?

A

peristalsis of intestines, mucociliary escalator of respiratory tract

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26
Q

mucous membranes are constantly bathed in ______

A

secretions

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27
Q

salt accumulates on skin from _____

A

perspiration

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28
Q

______ degrades peptidoglycan

A

lysozyme

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29
Q

________ forms antimicrobials, consumes hydrogen peroxide to create more reactive forms of oxygen

A

peroxidases

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30
Q

what binds iron?

A

lactoferrin and transferrin

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31
Q

_______ form pores in microbial membranes

A

defensins

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32
Q

examples of antimicrobial substances that act as first-line defenses:

A

lysozyme, peroxidases, lactoferrin, transferrin, antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)

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33
Q

what can disruption of normal microbiota cause?

A

it can predispose a person to infections

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34
Q

_______ species degrade lipids, produce fatty acids

A

Cutibacterium

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35
Q

______ synthesizes colicins in intestinal tract

A

E. coli

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36
Q

______ in vagina produce low pH

A

Lactobacillus

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37
Q

normal microbiota helps in the production of ______

A

toxic compounds

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38
Q

normal microbiota are essential to the development of the _______

A

immune system

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39
Q

normal microbiota can cover binding sites and _______

A

consume available nutrients

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40
Q

another name for normal microbiota

A

flora

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41
Q

term for the development of cells in the immune system

A

hematopoiesis

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42
Q

blood cells originate from ______

A

hematopoietic stem cells

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43
Q

where are hematopoietic stem cells found?

A

in bone marrow

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44
Q

why are hematopoietic stem cells induced?

A

to develop by colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

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45
Q

the cells of the immune system are always found in ______

A

normal blood

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46
Q

the number of immune system cells increase during _______

A

infections

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47
Q

where do some immune system cells reside?

A

in various tissues

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48
Q

what are the three general categories of immune system cells?

A

red blood cells (erythrocytes)
platelets (from megakaryocytes)
white blood cells (leukocytes)

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49
Q

what do red blood cells carry?

A

oxygen

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50
Q

platelets are involved in _______

A

clotting

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51
Q

white blood cells are important in _______

A

host defenses

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52
Q

examples of white blood cells

A

granulocytes, mononuclear phagocytes, lymphocytes

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53
Q

_______ contain cytoplasmic granules; named based on staining properties

A
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54
Q

_______ circulate in the blood, engulf and destroy bacteria

A

neutrophils

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55
Q

neutrophil granules contain ______

A

enzymes, antimicrobials (also called PMNs)

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56
Q

do neutrophils increase in number during infection?

A

yes

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57
Q

what are the primary microbial killers in the blood?

A

neutrophils

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58
Q

_______ involved in allergic reactions and inflammation

A

basophils

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59
Q

what do basophil granules contain?

A

histamine

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60
Q

what other cells are similar to basophils?

A

mast cells

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61
Q

where are mast cells found?

A

in tissues

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62
Q

_______ fight parasitic worms and are involved in allergic reactions

A

eosinophils

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63
Q

eosinophil granules contain _______

A

antimicrobials and histaminase

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64
Q

mononuclear phagocytes comprise _______

A

mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)

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65
Q

mononuclear phagocytes includes _______ and cell types that develop as they leave the bloodstream

A

monocytes

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66
Q

_______ circulate in blood

A

monocytes

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67
Q

_______ differentiate from monocytes

A

macrophages

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68
Q

_______ found in nearly all tissues

A

sentinel cells

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69
Q

dendritic cells usually develop from _______

A

monocytes

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70
Q

_______ engulf material in tissues, bring it to cells of adaptive immune system for “inspection”

A

dendritic cells

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71
Q

sentinel cells function as _______

A

“scouts”

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72
Q

what cells are responsible for adaptive immunity?

A

lymphocytes

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73
Q

_______ are highly specific in recognition of antigen

A

B cells, T cells

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74
Q

where do B and T cells generally reside?

A

lymph nodes, lymphatic tissues

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75
Q

what lacks antigen recognition specificity?

A

innate lymphoid cells (ILCs)

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76
Q

innate lymphoid cells can promote _______

A

inflammatory response

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77
Q

natural killer (NK) cells are a type of innate lymphoid cell that destroy ______

A

certain types of cells

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78
Q

types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

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79
Q

types of mononuclear phagocytes

A

monocytes
macrophages
dendritic cells

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80
Q

types of lymphocytes

A

B and T cells
innate lymphoid cells

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81
Q

what percentage of blood leukocytes are neutrophils?

A

55-65%

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82
Q

what percentage of blood leukocytes are eosinophils?

A

2-4%

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83
Q

what percentage of blood leukocytes are basophils?

A

0-1%

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84
Q

what percentage of blood leukocytes are monocytes?

A

3-8%

85
Q

what percentage of blood leukocytes are lymphocytes?

A

25-35%

86
Q

what do neutrophils perform?

A

phagocytosis

87
Q

neutrophils release substances that ______

A

trap and destroy microbial invaders

88
Q

_______ release chemicals that destroy eukaryotic parasites

A

eosinophils

89
Q

where are eosinophils mainly found?

A

in tissues below the mucous membranes

90
Q

mast cells are present in most tissues, where basophils are found in ______

A

blood

91
Q

monocytes perform phagocytosis and can differentiate into either ______ or ______ when they migrate into tissues

A

macrophages, dendritic cells

92
Q

important types of sentinel cell

A

macrophages, dendritic cells

93
Q

do macrophages perform phagocytosis?

A

yes

94
Q

B and T cells participate in _______

A

adaptive responses

95
Q

_______ serve as “eyes” and “ears” of cell

A

surface receptors

96
Q

surface receptors usually span _______

A

membrane, connect outside to inside

97
Q

when surface receptors bind to a specific _______, a response is induced

A

ligand

98
Q

_______ are “voices” of cell, transmit the signals

A

cytokines

99
Q

_______ are produced by cells, diffuse to others, bind to appropriate receptors to induce changes

A

cytokines

100
Q

what are the induced changes that cytokines can create when bound to appropriate receptors?

A

growth, differentiation, movement, cell death

101
Q

where do cytokines act?

A

at low concentration; effects local, regional, systemic

102
Q

_______ allow cells to adhere to other cells

A

adhesion molecules

103
Q

example of adhesion molecule:

A

phagocytic cells can adhere to endothelial cells, allowing them to exit bloodstream

104
Q

cytokines include:

A

chemokines
colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
interferons (IFNs)
interleukins (ILs)
tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

105
Q

what are chemokines?

A

chemotaxis of immune cells

106
Q

what do colony-stimulating factors do?

A

multiplication and differentiation of leukocytes

107
Q

what do interferons (IFNs) do?

A

control of viral infections, regulation of immune responses

108
Q

what do interleukins do?

A

important in innate and adaptive immunity

109
Q

what are interleukins produced by?

A

leukocytes

110
Q

what do tuber necrosis factors assist in?

A

inflammation, apoptosis

111
Q

groups of cytokines often act together or in sequence to _______

A

generate a response

112
Q

example of cytokines group

A

pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF, IL-1, IL-6)

113
Q

what cytokines have sources from various cells?

A

chemokines, colony-stimulating factors, and interferons

114
Q

source of interleukin 1 (IL-1)

A

macrophages, epithelial cells

115
Q

source of interleukin 2 (IL-2)

A

T cells

116
Q

source of interleukin 4 (IL-4)

A

T cells, mast cells

117
Q

source of interleukin 6 (IL-6)

A

T lymphocytes, macrophages

118
Q

what is the effect of IL-1?

A

T-cell activation; macrophage activation; induces fever

119
Q

what is the effect of IL-2?

A

T-cell proliferation

120
Q

what is the effect of IL-4?

A

promotes antibody response

121
Q

what is the effect of IL-6?

A

T and B cell growth; inflammatory response; fever

122
Q

what is the effect of tumor necrosis factor?

A

promotes inflammation
cytotoxic for some tumor cells
regulates certain immune functions

123
Q

effect of interferons

A

regulates immune responses, antiviral

124
Q

_______ “see” signs of microbial invasion; lead to cytokine secretion

A

pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

125
Q

what is detected by PRRs?

A

microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs)

126
Q

what do microbe-associated molecular patterns include?

A

cell wall components, flagellin subunits, microbial nucleic acid

127
Q

are PAMPs exclusive to pathogens?

A

no

128
Q

_______ indicate host cell damage

A

damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs)

129
Q

where are pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) located?

A

cell surface
in endosomes and phagosomes
free in cytoplasm

130
Q

_______ anchored in membranes of sentinel cells

A

toll-like receptors (TLRs)

131
Q

what do surface TLRs monitor?

A

extracellular environment

132
Q

what do TLRs in phagosomal or endosomal membranes of organelles characterize?

A

ingested material

133
Q

toll-like receptors (TLRs) are specific for _______

A

distance MAMPs

134
Q

dendritic cells have both _______ and _______

A

TLRs (toll-like receptors) and CLRs (c-type lectin receptors)

135
Q

first step of the interferon response

A

PRRs detect viral RNA; cell produces interferon (IFN)

136
Q

second step of the interferon response

A

interferon causes neighboring cells to express inactive antiviral proteins (iAVPs)

137
Q

third step of the interferon response

A

iAVPs activated by viral dsRNA

138
Q

what happens after iAVPs are activated by viral dsRNA in the interferon response?

A

mRNA is degraded, protein synthesis is stopped, and infected cells undergo apoptosis

139
Q

_______ “complements” activities of adaptive immune system

A

the complement system

140
Q

what is the complement system composed of?

A

proteins circulating in blood and tissue fluid

141
Q

proteins of the complement system are named in _______

A

order discovered (C1 through C9)

142
Q

proteins of the complement are able to split into _______

A

fragments (C3 splits into C3a and C3b)

143
Q

what is the complement system activated by?

A

three different pathways that lead to formation of C3 convertase

144
Q

what are the three protective functions/outcomes of Complement?

A

opsonization (augmenting phagocytosis)
promote inflammation
lysis of invading cells

145
Q

what are the three pathways of complement activation?

A

alternative pathway
lectin pathway
classical pathway

146
Q

_______ triggered when C3b binds to foreign cell surfaces

A

alternative pathway

147
Q

is C3 stable or unstable?

A

unstable

148
Q

_______: pattern recognition molecules bind to mannose of microbial cells, interact with complement system components

A

lectin pathway

149
Q

_______: activated by antibodies bound to antigen, which interact with complement system

A

classical pathway

150
Q

_______ is when C3b binds to bacterial cells and foreign particles, promotes engulfment by phagocytes that attach to opsonins

A

opsonization

151
Q

_______ is when C5a attracts phagocytes to area; C3a and C5a increase permeability of blood vessels

A

inflammatory response

152
Q

inflammatory response includes mast and other cells to release _______

A

histamines and other cytokines, resulting in diapedesis

153
Q

_______: membrane attack complexes (MACs) assembling on the surface of gram-negative bacteria resulting in cell lysis and death

A

lysis of foreign cells

154
Q

the membrane attack complexes during lysis of foreign cells are formed by which proteins?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

155
Q

_______ engulf and digest material invading microbes (pathogens)

A

phagocytes

156
Q

what are phagocytes recruited by chemoattractants?

A

chemotaxis

157
Q

examples of chemoattractants

A

products of microorganisms, phospholipids from injured host cells, chemokines, C5a

158
Q

when phagocytes directly recognize and attach, what happens?

A

the receptors bind to mannose

159
Q

when phagocytes indirectly recognize and attach, what happens?

A

the receptors bind to opsonins

160
Q

what happens during engulfment?

A

psuedopods surround and form phagosome

161
Q

_______ : phagosomes used with lysosomes containing degradative enzymes and antibacterial substances

A

phagosome maturation and phaoglysosome

162
Q

what happens during the destruction and digestion of phagocytosis?

A

toxic ROS and nitric oxide produced
pH decreases
enzymes degrade
peptides damage membrane of invader
lactoferrin binds iron

163
Q

_______: vesicle fuses with cytoplasmic membrane, expels remains

A

exocytosis

164
Q

macrophages are important sentinel cells that alerts other _______

A

immune cells

165
Q

how long do macrophages live?

A

weeks or months; regenerate lysosomes

166
Q

macrophages are always present in _______; replaced by monocytes

A

tissues

167
Q

macrophage funciton

A

phagocytize dead cells, debris, destroy invaders

168
Q

_______ response to cytokine activation and TLR response

A

activated macrophages

169
Q

_______ have greater killing power (acute phase of infection)

A

M1 macrophages

170
Q

M2 macrophages help resolve inflammation and promote _______

A

tissue healing

171
Q

if activated macrophages are insufficient, what occurs?

A

they can fuse, forming giant cells

172
Q

what forms granulomas?

A

macrophages, giant cells, T cells

173
Q

granulomas prevent escape, but they interfere with _______

A

normal tissue function

174
Q

most active and potent phagocytic killer

A

neutrophils

175
Q

_______play a critical role in early stages of inflammation

A

neutrophils

176
Q

life span of neutrophils in tissues

A

1-2 days

177
Q

are neutrophils more powerful than macrophages?

A

yes

178
Q

what is the first white blood cell to be recruited to the site of damage?

A

neutrophils

179
Q

when do neutrophils die?

A

once an assault on a microbe is made

180
Q

neutrophils can release DNA to form _______

A

neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

181
Q

what do neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) do?

A

catch microbes, allowing enzymes and peptides from granules to destroy them

182
Q

infection or tissue damage results in _______

A

inflammation

183
Q

what is the purpose of inflammation?

A

to contain site of damage, localize response, eliminate invader, and restore tissue function

184
Q

what does inflammation often result in?

A

swelling, redness, heat, pain, sometimes loss of function

185
Q

what triggers the inflammatory response?

A

pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

186
Q

inducers of the inflammatory response include _______

A

microbes, tissue damage

187
Q

MAMPs cause release of _______ that induces liver to produce acute phase proteins that activate complement

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

188
Q

blood vessel damages starts _______ ; lead to coagulation and increased vessel permeability

A

two enzymatic cascades

189
Q

sequence of events for the inflammatory process:

A

dilation of small blood vessels, migration of leukocytes form bloodstream to tissues, clotting factors wall off site of infection, dead neutrophils/tissue debris accumulate as pus

190
Q

dilation of small blood vessels results in:

A

greater blood flow (heat, redness); slower flow rate, leakage of fluids

191
Q

when blood vessels dilate and fluids leak, what do these fluids contain?

A

transferrin, complement, antibodies

192
Q

what is margination?

A

endothelial cells “grab” phagocytes, slow them down

193
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

phagocytes squeeze between cells of vessel

194
Q

clotting factos walling off this site of infection is crucial because:

A

it prevents bleeding and stops spread of microbes

195
Q

_______ is short term, mainly neutrophils; macrophages clean up damage by ingesting dead cells and debris

A

acute inflammation

196
Q

if acute inflammation fails, what results?

A

chronic inflammation

197
Q

what happens during chronic inflammation?

A

macrophages, giant cells accumulate, and granulomas form

198
Q

why can inflammation be compared to a fire sprinkler system?

A

because it prevents spread, but still damages the building

199
Q

during inflammation, _______ form phagocytic cells are released, damaging tissues

A

enzymes and toxic compounds

200
Q

damage from inflammation is usually minimal, but in delicate systems (membranes surrounding brain, spinal cord), it can be _______

A

severe, even life-threatening

201
Q

traumatic cell death due to damage is called

A

necrosis

202
Q

programmed cell death; does not trigger inflammatory response

A

apoptosis

203
Q

PRRs in a macrophage trigger an inflammatory response that sacrifices infected cells

A

pyroptosis

204
Q

_______ is indicator of infection, especially bacterial

A

fever

205
Q

temperature-regulation center in brain normally hold at _______ but raises during infection in response to pyrogens

A

37 degress Celsius

206
Q

pyrogens may be made by _______

A

the body or by microbes

207
Q

oral temperature above _______ is regarded as fever

A

37.8 degrees Celsius

208
Q

growth rates of bacteria optimized for 37 degrees celsius typically drop sharply above optimum, what does this allow more time for?

A

defenses

209
Q

moderate temperature rise increase rates of _______

A

enzymes

microbio (8 decks)

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