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Heredity > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: Most mutations cause problems

A

False

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2
Q

Mitosis occurs in 4 stages. Select the correct sequence.

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

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3
Q

If an organism has a diploid number of 16, how many chromatides are visible at the end of mitotic prophase? How many chromosomes are moving to each pole during anaphase of mitosis?

A

32, 16

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4
Q

True or False: A missense mutation is a change in one DNA base pair that results in the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein made by a gene

A

True

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5
Q

True or False: In mitosis, each daughter cell receives a haploid set of chromosomes identical to parental cell.

A

False

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6
Q

True or False: A nonsense mutation often results in a shortened protein function improperly or not at all

A

True

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7
Q

True or False: Autosomal chromosome pairs are identical, whereas the sex chromosome pair in males is not.

A

True

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8
Q

The process of meiosis results in

A

Doubling the chromosome number
Two diploid cells
No change in the chromosome number for parent cells
The production of 4 identical cells
A reduction in the chromosome number

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9
Q

In the cell cycle, the G1 phase represents

A

A period of growth

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10
Q

Autosomes represent

A

All chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes

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11
Q

During meiosis in an organism where 2n=8, how many chromatids will be present in a cell at the beginning or meiosis II?

A

8

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12
Q

True or False: Mutations in a germ cell are passed on only to other germ cells in members of future generations

A

False

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13
Q

True or False: Control systems in the cell induce cell suicide, or apoptosis, in cells with excessive DNA damage.

A

True

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14
Q

Mutations are changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA that

A

Can be passed on to daughter cells

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15
Q

In the general public, mutations are

A

Rare

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16
Q

True or False: Most mutations happen in the region of the DNA known as a gene

A

False

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17
Q

True or False: If a mutation happens in a gene, it is usually bad for the organism

A

True

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18
Q

True or False: If a parent gets cancer in the skin cell from too much sun, that mutation can be passed to offspring

A

False

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19
Q

Which mutations will be passed on by cell division in other body cells but cannot be transmitted to future generation?

A

Mutations in the body cell (somatic cell)

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20
Q

Which mutations are passed on to all the cells of future generations?

A

Mutations in germ cells

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21
Q

Mutations of a germ cell can be:

A
  • mutation of a single nucleotide change in the DNA
  • deletion or insertion of one or more base pairs
  • alteration in the structure of the chromosome
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22
Q

What factors influence mutation rates?

A
  • Gene size: larger faster
  • Nucleotide sequence
  • Spontaneous mutations
  • Induced mutations
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23
Q

Name the type of mutation that are the result of erred in normal cellular processes, such as DNA replication, or are the result of natural changes in the molecular structure of the bases in DNA.

A

Spontaneous mutations

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24
Q

Type of mutations by the action of environmental agents called mutagens that attack DNA or disrupt the cellular process. Mutagens include radiation and chemicals.

A

Induced

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25
Q

Which enzyme incorrectly reads the nucleotide on the template strand and inserts the wrong nucleotide into the new DNA strand during mutations in DNA replication?

A

Polymerase

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26
Q

What changes in hydrogen bonding properties of bases allow bonding with noncomplimentary bases and can cause mutations in DNA?

A

Tautomeric shifts

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27
Q

What are base analogs?

A

Mutagenic chemicals that resemble nucleotides and are incorporated into DNA or RNA during synthesis

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28
Q

Name the mutational events in which a number of bases (other than multiples of three) are added or removed from DNA, causing a shift in the codon reading frame

A

Framshift mutations

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29
Q

What is a common reason for Hgb mutations?

A

Nucleotide mutations

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30
Q

Which mutations produce elongated proteins?

A

Sense mutations

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31
Q

Which mutations produce shorter proteins?

A

Nonsense mutations

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32
Q

What type of mutations are responsible for 5-10% of all known mutations?

A

Frameshift mutations

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33
Q

What phenomenon expands the number of repeats within a gene converting a normal allele into a mutant allele?

A

Allelic expansion: increase in gene size caused by an increase in the number of trinucleotide repeat sequence

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34
Q

What are the fates of damaged DNA?

A
  • dormancy
  • apoptosis or cell suicide
  • accumulated mutations cause the cell to escape the normal controls of the cell and become cancerous

175 DNA repair genes encode enzymes that monitor and repair DNA damage and mutations

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35
Q

What is the name of the regulatory region located at the beginning of a gene?

A

Promoter

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36
Q

Term describing selective expression of either the maternal or paternal copy of a gene

A

Genetic imprinting

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37
Q

Which receptors on hypothalamic cells sense the level of stress hormones and signal the adrenal gland to slow the release of stress hormones bringing the body back into balance?

A

Glucocorticoid receptors (GRs

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38
Q

The study of the chemical modifications of chromosomal DNA (such as methylation of bases) and/or associated histone proteins that change the pattern gene expression without affecting the nucleotide sequence of the DNA.

A

Epigenetics

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39
Q

A term describing a phenotype that is produced by epigenetic changes to DNA.

A

epigenetic trait

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40
Q

What defines the epigenetic state of the cell?

A

epigenome

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41
Q

Do epigenetic modifications change the nucleotide sequence?

A

Unlike mutations, which involve a change in the DNA sequence, epigenetic modifications do not change the nucleotide sequence, but they do affect how genes behave.

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42
Q

Large cellular polymers assembled by chemically linking monomers together

A

macromolecules

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43
Q

Macromolecules including sugars, glycogen, and starches composed of sugar monomers linked and cross-linked together

A

carbohydrates

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44
Q

A class of cellular macromolecules including fats and oils that are insoluble in water

A

lipids

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45
Q

A class of macromolecules composed of amino acids monomers linked together and folded into a three-dimension shape

A

Protein

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46
Q

A class of cellular macromolecules composed of nucleotide monomers linked together. There are two types of nucleic acids DNA and RNA which differ in the structure of the monomers.

A

Nucleic Acid

47
Q

Structures composed of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds

A

Molecules

48
Q

Cytoplasmic structures that have a specialized function

A

Organelles

49
Q

A system of cytoplasmic membranes arranged into sheets and channels whose function it is to synthesize and transport gene products

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)

50
Q

Cytoplasmic particles that aid in the production of proteins

A

Ribosomes

51
Q

Membranous cellular organelles composed of a series of flattened sacs. They sort, modify, and package proteins synthesized in the ER.

A

Golgi complex

52
Q

Membrane-enclosed organelles in eukaryotic cells that contain digestive enzymes

A

Lysosomes

53
Q

Membrane bound organelles, present in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells, that are the sites of energy production

A

Mitochondria (singular mitochondrion)

54
Q

The membrane bound organelles in eukaryotic cells that contain the chromosomes

A

Nucleus

55
Q

A nuclear region that functions in the synthesis of ribosomes

A

Nucleolus (plural: nucleoli)

56
Q

The DNA and protein components of chromosomes, visible as clumps or threads in nuclei

A

Chromatin

57
Q

The threadlike structures in the nucleus that carry genetic information

A

Chromosomes

58
Q

In humans, the X and Y chromosomes that are involved in sex determination

A

Sex chromosomes

59
Q

Chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes in humans, chromosomes 1-22 are these

A

Autosomes

60
Q

The sequence of events that takes place between successive mitotic divisions

A

Cell cycle

61
Q

The period of time in the cell cycle between mitotic divisions

A

Interphase

62
Q

Form of cell division that produces two cells, each of which has the same complement of chromosomes as the parent cell

A

Mitosis

63
Q

The process of cytoplasmic division that accompanies cell division

A

Cytokinesis

64
Q

The stage of interphase that begins immediately after mitosis, RNA, proteins, and organelles are synthesized

A

G1 (Gap 1)

65
Q

The stage of interphase where DNA is replicated and chromosomes form sister chromatids

A

S (Sythesis)

66
Q

The stage of interphase where mitochondria divide. Precursors of spindle fibers are synthesized.

A

G2 (Gap 2)

67
Q

The stage of mitosis where chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope disappears, centrioles divide and migrate to opposite poles of the dividing cell, and spindle fibers forms and attach to chromosomes

A

Prophase

68
Q

The stage of mitosis where chromosomes line up on the middle of the dividing cell

A

Metaphase

69
Q

Stage of mitosis where chromosomes begin to separate

A

Anaphase

70
Q

Stage of mitosis where chromosomes reach opposite poles, new nuclear envelope forms, and chromosomes decondense

A

Telophase

71
Q

One of the strands of a duplicated chromosome, joined by a single centromere to its sister

A

Chromatid

72
Q

A region of a chromosome to which spindle fibers attach during cell division. The location of the centromere gives a chromosome it’s characteristic shape.

A

Centromere

73
Q

Two chromotides joined by a common centromere Each chromatid carries identical genetic information

A

Sister chromatids

74
Q

The process of cell division during which one cycle of chromosomal replication is followed by two successive cell divisions to produce four haploid cells

A

Meiosis

75
Q

The condition in which each chromosome is represented twice as a member of a homologous pair

A

Diploid (2n)

76
Q

The condition in which each chromosome is represented once in an unpaired condition

A

Haploid

77
Q

Chromosomes that physically associate (pair) during meiosis. Have identical gene loci.

A

Homologous chromosomes

78
Q

The results of meiosis I that puts random combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes

A

Assortment

79
Q

A process in which chromosomes physically exchange parts

A

Crossing over

80
Q

The stage of meiosis when chromosomes become visible, homologous chromosomes pair, and sister chromatids become aparent. Recombination takes place.

A

Prophase I

81
Q

The stage of meiosis where paired chromosomes align at the equator of cell

A

Metaphase I

82
Q

The stage of meiosis when paired homologous chromosomes separate. Membranes of each chromosomes pair move to opposite poles

A

Anaphase I

83
Q

The stage of meiosis where chromosomes uncoil and become dispersed

A

Telophase I

84
Q

The stage of meiosis where cystoplasm divides forming two cells

A

Cytokinesis

85
Q

The stage of meiosis where chromosomes recoil, shorten

A

Prophase II

86
Q

The stage of meiosis when unpaired chromosomes become aligned at the equator of the cell

A

Metaphase II

87
Q

The stage of meiosis when centromeres separate. Daughter chromosomes, which were sister chromatides, pull apart.

A

Anaphase II

88
Q

The stage of meiosis when chromosomes uncoils, nuclear envelope reforms. Meiosis ends.

A

Telophase II

89
Q

The stage of meiosis when the cytoplasm divides, forming daughter cells

A

Cytokinesis

90
Q

one of the possible alternative forms of a gene, usually distinguished from other alleles by its phenotypic effects.

A

Allele

91
Q

Mitotically active cells in the gonads of males that give rise to primary spermocytes.

A

Spermatogonia

92
Q

The four haploid cells produced by meiotic division of a primary spermatocyte

A

Spermatids

93
Q

Cells that produce primary oocytes by mitotic division

A

Oogonia

94
Q

The cells produced from oogonia that will begin meiosis during the embryogenesis

A

Primary oocyte

95
Q

The large cell produced by the first meiotic division

A

Secondary oocyte

96
Q

The haploid cell produced by meiosis that becomes the functional gamete

A

Ovum

97
Q

Cells produced in the first and second meiotic division in female meiosis that contain little cytoplasm and will not function as gametes

A

Polar bodies

98
Q

The fundamental unit of heredity and the basic structural and functional unit of genetics

A

Gene

99
Q

The trait expressed in the F1 (or heterozygous) condition

A

Dominate trait

100
Q

The trait unexpressed in the F1 but re-expressed in some members of the F2 generation

A

Recessive Trait

101
Q

The observable properties of an organism

A

Phenotype

102
Q

The specific genetic constitution of an organism

A

Genotype

103
Q

Having identical alleles for one or more genes

A

Homozygous

104
Q

Carrying two different alleles for one or more genes

A

Heterozygous

105
Q

The separation of members of a gene pair from each other during gamete formation

A

Separation

106
Q

The random distribution of genes into gametes during meiosis

A

Independent assortment

107
Q

The position occupied by a gene on a chromosome

A

Locus

108
Q

A diagram listing the members and ancestral relationships in a family; used in the study of human heredity

A

Pedigree

109
Q

First affected family members who see medical attention for a genetic disorder

A

Proband

110
Q

Expression of a phenotype that is intermediate to those of the parent

A

Incomplete dominance

111
Q

Full phenotypic expression of both members of a gene pair in the heterozygous condition

A

Codominance

112
Q

Genes that have more than two alleles

A

Multiple alleles

113
Q

The interaction of two or more non-alleleic genes to control a single phenotype

A

Epistasis

Heredity (5 decks)

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