Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paramedic Class 27 > 2206 Exam > Flashcards

2206 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Prolongs the repolarization and blocks the potassium out of the cells - controls ventricles (vFib/Vtach)

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Calcium channel blockers. Blocks calcium from going in (AV node) and out of the cell (SA node). Afib/Aflutter

A

“zem” drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Calcium channel blockers that work on the AV node:

A

Cardizem, diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blocks sodium in and out of the cell (Fib/Vtach) Controls the ventricles.

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drug that resets the ventricles (ex. torsades)

A

Magnisium Sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Class III potassium channel blocker (for Vfib Vtach)

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Class IB sodium channel blocker (for VF/VT)

A

lidocaine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Calcium channel blocker helps to reset this rhythm:

A

afib/aflutter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Routes of administration of drugs from fastest to slowest:

A

IV - IM - PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The only drug carried that requires mixing and is carried as a kit

A

glucagon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1g = ?mg

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1mg = ?mcg

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1 grain = ?mg

A

60 (apothecary system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

15 grains = ?

A

1g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Take an EMS run and decide the best medication and how to ???

A

document it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a change is needed in a medication documentation, what should you do?

A

notate the change needed and add initial and date next to it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Route of administration for glucagon (hypoglycemia)

A

IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

route of administration for Glucose

A

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This drug is given for low BP related to shock; vasopressor. Found naturally in the body.

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This drug is given for low BP related to shock; is a vasopressor, but this is a synthetic sympathetic agonist

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sympathetic or parasympathetic? Feeds the immune system, secretion in digestive gland, more fluids to reproductive organs.

A

Parasympathetic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms that are associated with the parasympathetic system?

A

(SLUDGE) Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, Emesis, and Muscle Twitching/Miosis (pupillary constriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a patient has SLUDGE, what drug do you administer?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Needs narcan and may need more than one dose

A

Narcotic/Opioid OD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Generic name for Atrovent

A

Ipratropium bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

this drug relaxes the muscles around the airways

A

Atrovent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ace inhibitor drugs:

A

prils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Calcium channel blocker drugs

A

Zems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Beta Blocker drugs

A

olols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If on-line medical direction orders a drug you know is wrong, you???

A

don’t give it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Generic name for Alupent

A

Metaproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Metaproterenol/Alupent used for?

A

For asthma as a potent bronchodilator; breathing difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aspirin dose

A

324mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Narcan dose

A

up to 2mg IV or IN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Albuterol Dose

A

2.5mg in 3ml of NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nitro dose

A

.4mg sublingual q 5 min up to three doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Answer to number 16 on the test?

A

B or esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most of our drugs are eliminated/released through ???

A

kidneys/urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Letter classification in newly released drug will tell its ???

A

treatment potential (number = potential for abuse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is adenosine administered?

A

Rapid IV push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Older people have a harder time responding to drug drive due to

A

liver and kidneys/renal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This drug comes in a dark brown glass to protect it from UV rays:

A

Nitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Meperidine?

A

type of opioid narcotic. causes respiratory depression, bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fluid bolus for adults

A

20ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fluid bolus for pedi

A

10ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How much longer does a drug down the ET tube take compared to a drug administered IV?

A

2-2.5 times longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a medication combined with alcohol and water solvent?

A

Elixir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Answer to question 26; in the apothecary system, 1 grain = ?

A

60mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does Cardizem work?

A

calcium channel blocker that works of the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the number one side effect of albuterol?

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What to give for hydrogen cyanide poisoning?

A

Amyl nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How to amyl nitrate work?

A

binds to hemoglobin and prevents cyanide from bonding, but does not reduce the effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is sodium thiosulfate different from amyl nitrate is how it works agains hydrogen cyanide poisoning?

A

Sodium thiosulfate Converts cyanide and breaks it down to be excreted by the kidneys. Amyl nitrate blocks cyanide from bonding but does nothing to eliminate it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Answer to question 29

A

Sodium Thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Question 30: Opioids have physiological effect; the physical effect binds to pain receptors and suppresses the CNS which depresses everything including respiratory drive causing:

A

bradycardia and hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Morphine is an ??? that works with opioid receptors to decrease the CNS.

A

agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does atropine do and when do you use it?

A

Bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning (from chemicals/pesticides)

58
Q

What does organophosphate poisoning cause?

A

SLUDGE or increased secretions.

59
Q

This is the term to describe when something decreases the effects the more times it it given

A

Tacheyphylaxis

60
Q

Benzo OD side effects

A

causes everything to slow down/depress.

61
Q

Amphetamine OD side effects

A

causes everything to speed up.

62
Q

Opioid OD side effects

A

Slows things down/depress

63
Q

Barbiturate OD side effects

A

Slow things down/depress

64
Q

This contains opioids/alcohol, ex cough syrups with codeine.

A

Cough suppressants

65
Q

Vasodilators or smooth muscle relaxer (cannot use with nitro)

A

Cildenafil/viagra

66
Q

7 - Slows heart rate down, blocks the influx of calcium.

A

Esmolol

67
Q

When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the effects of the drugs individually

A

synergism effect

68
Q

_____ Law, Stretch law, pipe law. Ex. Nitro will decrease preload if heart is not stretching and beating as much decreasing 02 demand.

A

Starling’s law

69
Q

Side effects of Morphine

A

respiratory depression and bradycardia

70
Q

If a patient takes valium all the time and a paramedic needs to administer Valium, they would have to increase the dosage due to ____.

A

Cross tolerance.

71
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Sodium channel blockers

A

Class I

72
Q

Class I sodium channel blocker drug, IB

A

lidocaine

73
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Beta blockers

A

Class II

74
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Potassium channel blockers (Amiodarone)

A

Class III

75
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Calcium channel blockers (Cardizem)

A

Class IV

76
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: miscellaneous (adenosine)

A

Class V

77
Q

____ is an antagonist to opioid receptors.

A

Narcan

78
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system responsible for ___.

A

Vasoconstriction

79
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: When BP falls, ____ is released from the adrenal glands

A

epinephrine

80
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: If Epinephrine does not work to maintain BP, then ____ is released.

A

Angiotensin 1

81
Q

_____: from the kidneys and mixes with rennin to get angiotensin 2.

A

angiotensin 1

82
Q

angiotensin 2 causes

A

vasoconstriction

83
Q

_____: is a “renin blocker”/angiotensin 1 blocker keeps BP down and keeps angiotensin 1 from converting to angiotensin 2.

A

ACE inhibitor.

84
Q

Brand name is the same as ____.

A

trade name

85
Q

Flonase is an example of what kind of drug?

A

OTC

86
Q

This drug is a diuretic that decreases pressure.

A

Furosemide (lassie)

87
Q

These drugs depress/slow the CNS

A

Benzos and barbiturates.

88
Q

_____ means what’s an effective dose vs lethal dose.

A

Therapeutic index

89
Q

The wider the therapeutic index, the ____ the drug

A

safer.

90
Q

What does NSAID stand for?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

91
Q

What do NSAIDS do?

A

antipyretic, fever reducer.
anti-inflammatory

92
Q

____ time is the time the drug starts to work.

A

Onset time

93
Q

______ (sedatives) are safer than barbiturates (tranquilizer)

A

Benzodiazepines

94
Q

Why are Benzodiazepines safer than barbiturates?

A

milder in their effects.

95
Q

How are drugs made?

A

lab, synthetically, from plants/animals.

96
Q

How many classifications of controlled drugs are there?

A
  1. I, II, III, IV, and V.
97
Q

What is a schedule I drug?

A

Drug that has been determined to have no medical benefit; is illegal. Illicit drugs. Ex. Heroin, LSD, Mescaline.

98
Q

What is a schedule II drug?

A

Drugs that have been determined to have medical benefit but are extremely addictive and have a very high likelihood for abuse. Opiates Ex. Opium, Cocaine, Morphine, Oxycodone.

99
Q

What is a schedule III drug?

A

Limited opioid mixed with non controlled substances. Ex. Tylenol 3 (codeine with acetaminophen)

100
Q

What is a schedule IV drug?

A

Benzodiazepines: Ex. diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital.

101
Q

What is a schedule V drug?

A

Limited amounts of opioids, often used for cough or diarrhea.

102
Q

What drug has the shortest life?

A

Adenosine

103
Q

NSAID OD or taking too much for too long can cause ____.

A

Peptic ulcers. PUD.

104
Q

The study of how drugs are transported into and out of the body:

A

Pharmacokinetics

105
Q

What is a gelatin container called?

A

Capsules.

106
Q

Digitalis is not a safe drug because is has a very narrow ____.

A

therapeutic index.

107
Q

How is SLUDGE treated?

A

high doses of atropine or protopam.

108
Q

EPI: Alpha, Beta.

A

Alpha constricts. Beta dilates. 1-2 is heart to lungs.

109
Q

____ will affect pregnant women by development of the fetus.

A

Teratogenic.

110
Q

Analgesic?

A

relieve the sensation of pain.

111
Q

Anesthetic?

A

Absence of all sensation (blocks pain)

112
Q

If the drug ends in ___, it blocks angiotensin 1 form moving to angiotensin 2

A

prill

113
Q

Drugs that end in “prill” are ____

A

ace inhibitors.

114
Q

What effects do “olol” drugs have on the heart?

A

slow HR.

115
Q

Chronotropic refers to ___

A

heart rate

116
Q

Side effects of atropine:

A

blurred vision, dry mouth, palpitations, and light sensitivity.

117
Q

Of illicit drugs, ____ causes the least amount of prehospital care.

A

marijauna

118
Q

Vomiting increases the risk of ____.

A

Aspiration

119
Q

What is the antidote for tricyclic antidepressants?

A

sodium bicarb.

120
Q

The biggest risk of an OD on Tylenol is:

A

Hepatic necrosis (liver failure) 6-8 hours after OD.

121
Q

Why do you give aspirin?

A

Make the platelets less sticky (inhibits aggregation)

122
Q

For Amphetamine OD, what is the order of operations for vitals going up?

A

first HR, then BP

123
Q

According to Starlings law, what happens when you give nitro?

A

Everything is decreased.
Vasodilation occurs, not as much pressure is coming into the heart
The volume is preload and thus will decrease.
Preload decrease leads to decreased stroke volume.
Decreased work of the heart leads to not needing as much oxygen.

124
Q

Alpha 2 causes

A

Presynaptic terminal inhibition.

125
Q

alpha 1 effects cause:

A

vasoconstriction

126
Q

beta 1 increases

A

HR

127
Q

Beta 2 causes

A

bronchodilation

128
Q

What is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body?

A

Angiotensin 2

129
Q

What is a gelatin container usually called when it is used to administer a medicine?

A

Capsule

130
Q

Drugs that end in ____ are negative chronotropic

A

olol

131
Q

Alcohol increases likelihood of ___ and _____

A

aspiration and respiratory depression

132
Q

______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.

A

SSRI

133
Q

______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.

A

SSRIs

134
Q

What is an important factor in drug storage?

A

temperature

135
Q

Chemical composition and molecular structure

A

Chemical name

136
Q

This name is suggested by manufacturer

A

generic name

137
Q

This name is listed in the United States pharmacopeia

A

official name

138
Q

Manufacturer gives drug name, always capitalized.

A

Brand name

139
Q

The study of drugs and there interaction in the body

A

Pharmacology

140
Q

Movement of solute in solution

A

diffusion

141
Q

Movement of solvent from high to low

A

osmosis

Paramedic Class 27 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions