17.2 Venous thromboembolism and anticoagulants Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term venous thromboembolism refer to?

A

Venous thromboembolism refers to deep vein thromboses and pulmonary emboli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are anticoagulants used to treat?

A
  • DVT
  • PE
  • Atrial fibrillation (irregular synchrony of the atria which can lead to thrombi forming in the heart)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What score is used to determine a patient’s risk of a DVT?

A

Wells score
<2 = DVT unlikely
2 or greater = DVT likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is a DVT confirmed?

A

Using a venous doppler ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient has a Wells score of 2 or above how should they be managed?

A
  • Injection of LMWH until diagnosis is confirmed by doppler
  • If doppler is positive, begin oral anticoagulants with vit K antagonist or novel oral anticoagulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name risk factors for thrombosis.

A
  • Recent surgery
  • HRT
  • Combined oral contraceptive pill
  • Inactivity/bedridden
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Briefly outline clot formation.

A

Soluble fibrinogen converted to insoluble fibrin strands via a complex enzyme cascade in which zymogen precursors and activated by serine proteases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Describes the 3 factors favoring thrombus formation.
- Stasis of blood flow: long haul flight, immobilised person
- Hypercoagulability: e.g. certain hormone therapies or pts with certain cancers
- Endothelial injury: damage to the venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are patients undergoing surgery managed with regards to VTE risk

A
  • After undergoing surgery patients are given a low dose of prophylactic anticoagulant to prevent VTE
  • For patients who actually have VTE, they are given a higher dose after surgery which is a treatment dose rather than a prophylactic dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What percentage of the general population are moderate to high risk for VTE?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What percentage of DVTs are asymptomatic?

A

3.7-26%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 2 types of heparins used in anticoagulant therapy?

A
  • LMWHs: low molecular weight heparins
  • UFHs: unfractionated heparins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When are LMWHs used?

A

When anticoagulant therapy is initiated.
Subcutaneous injection.
Does not require regular blood tests unlike UFHs.
Predominantly acts on factor Xa.
Also used in cancer treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are UFHs used?

A

For higher risk patients.
Requires IV administration and hospital admission.
APTT or KCCT blood test used.
Act on factor Xa and IIa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the differences between LMWHs and UFHs?

A

LMWHs: average molecular weight of 4-6000 Daltons
UFHs: 15000Daltons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What agent is used to reverse the actions of UFHs?

A

Protamine
Protamine is not as effective in reversing actions of LMWHs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name a common LMWH and its side effects.

A

Enoxaparin
Side effects:
- Bleeding
- Heparin induced thrombocytopaenia

17
Q

Name a common LMWH and its side effects.

A

Enoxaparin
Side effects:
- Bleeding
- Heparin induced thrombocytopaenia

18
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia?

A

An immune mediated adverse reaction to heparin.
Caused by HIT antibodies of IgG class.
- Platelet factor 4 binds to heparin
- Antibody-heparin-PF4 complex leads to increased platelet activation
- Thrombosis formation in arteries and veins
- Leads to skin necrosis and injection site, acute systemic reaction, possible limb ischemia
- Discontinue heparin

Assessed using T4 score

19
Q

What is the management following a suspected PE?

A
  • Initial anticoagulation with LMWH until diagnosis is confirmed by CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
  • Anticoagulation with VKA (warfarin) or NOA for 6 months
20
Q

Is a pulmonary embolism serious?

A

Yes, extremely high mortality rate (30-40,000 a year in England and Wales)

21
Q

What is the most common Vit K antagonist?

A

Warfarin (99% of pts on VKA are on warfarin)

22
Q

What are the 2 enantiomers of warfarin?

A

s-warfarin
r-warfarin

23
Q

Describe the action of warfarin.

A
  • Rapidly absorbed and completely bioavailable
  • Has a delayed onset of action
  • Long half life (36 hours)
  • Typical starting dose of 2-5mg per day
24
Q

What is a major possible adverse effect of warfarin?

A

Haemorrhage

25
Q

What type of patient cannot have Warfarin?

A

Pregnant women or those trying to get pregnant.

26
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

27
Q

Describe the actions of vitamin K antagonists.

A
  • VKAs enhibit the enzyme epoxide reductase
  • This prevents Vit K synthesis
  • Reduction of vit K dependent clotting factors:
  • II
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
  • Protein C
  • Protein S
28
Q

How long does a pt need to take warfarin before they obtain full anticoagulation?

A

5 days.
During this period pts also need to be covered by additional LMWHs.

29
Q

How does warfarin dose change with age?

A

Older patients require a lower dose.

30
Q

What system is used to monitor patients taking warfarin?

A

INR
- International system
- Prevents excessive anticoagulation
- Helps to predict maintenance dose

31
Q

What is the normal therapeutic INR for patients taking warfarin?

A

2.0-3.0

32
Q

Why do patients need to have their INR checked when prescribed antibiotics by a dentist?

A

Antibiotics are likely to interact with warfarin.

33
Q

What INR indicates high risk of spontaneous bleeding?

A

4.0 and above.

34
Q

How is warfarin reversed?

A
  • For patients with a major bleed: begin with 5mg IV Vit K and dried prothrombin complex
  • For patients with INR greater than 8 but no bleeding: 1-5mg Vit K, restart warfarin when INR is less than 5
35
Q

What are the supportive measures for all major hameorrhage?

A
  • Resuscitation with haemorrhage control
  • Tranexamic acid 1g every 8 hours
36
Q

What are the consequences of maternal ingestion of warfarin?

A
  • Craniofacial dysmorphism
  • Low birth weight
  • Short neck and limbs
  • Brachydactyly
  • Stippled calcification, tracheal cartilage calcification, prominent occiput and frontal bossing
37
Q

What are the direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)?

A

Called DOACs:
- Fewer restirctions than warfarin and don’t require blood monitoring
- Act against factor Xa
- Recommened for prevention of stroke and systemic embolism
- Used for patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation with one or more risk factors (e.g. prior stroke, hypertension, diabetes, congestive heart failure)

38
Q

Name some DOACs.

A
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Apixaban
  • Dabigatran
  • Edoxaban

All metabolised in different ways and have different renal clearance.

39
Q

How is dabigatran reversed?

A

With Idarucizumab (very expensive)

40
Q

How are DOACs metabolised?

A

CYP3A4 (important metaboliser for apixaban and rivaroxaban)