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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 > Wild Card > Flashcards

Wild Card Flashcards

1
Q

A lesion affecting the ascending reticular activating system in the brainstem would result in which characteristic clinical manifestation?

A

Depressed mentation, coma

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2
Q

Which domestic (pet) animal species has the highest prevalence of rabies in North America?

A

The cat, and by far (more than dogs and cattle combined)

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3
Q

What is the usual behavior of canine cutaneous histiocytomas?

A

Spontaneous regression

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4
Q

Intravenous injections are almost never given into the mammary vein of a cow because doing so is associated with at least 4 possible complications (in addition to getting kicked). What are they?

A

Mammary vein thrombosis, mammary phlebitis, persistent unilateral mammary edema, and endocarditis.

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5
Q

Name the four primary bone tumors.

A

1) Osteosarcoma
2) Chondrosarcoma
3) Fibrosarcoma
4) Hemangiosarcoma

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6
Q

True or False: In the dog, the left lung is divided into 4 lobes and the right lung into 2 lobes.

A

False. The right lung is divided into 4 lobes - cranial, middle, caudal and accessory. The left lung is divided into 2 lobes - cranial and caudal.

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7
Q

What is the concentration of PZI VET insulin and therefore what type of insulin syringes should be used when administering PZI VET insulin?

A

40 U/mL; U-40 insulin syringes

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8
Q

Which nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the detrusor muscle of the bladder?

A

The pelvic nerve

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9
Q

Which form of insulin should be used in the initial treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Regular insulin (also called crystalline insulin or Toronto insulin)

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10
Q

Which protozoal organism transmitted by ticks causes a fatal illness in domestic cats?

A

Cytauxzoon felis

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11
Q

'’Poll evil’’ refers to an infection in which equine anatomical structure(s)?

A

Cranial and/or caudal nuchal (subligamental) bursae

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12
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) innervates the muscles of mastication?

A

Mandibular

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13
Q

What is the behavior term given to the process whereby animals learn to adapt to novel stimuli by repeated or continuous exposure, provided they suffer no consequences from the exposure?

A

Habituation

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14
Q

What are the characteristics of vaccines that are recommended for immunization against canine parvovirus?

A

Canine origin, high-titer, low-passage attenuated vaccines.

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15
Q

The first heart sound (S1) is caused by closure of the ______________.

A

AV valves (mitral and tricuspid)

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16
Q

Failure of muscular coordination is known as….?

A

Ataxia

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17
Q

Which ultrastructural (histologic) feature of cardiac muscle allows for rapid cell-to-cell conduction of electrical impulses and simultaneous contraction of fibers?

A

Syncytial arrangement (intercellular connecting pores - gap junctions - allowing ion flux)

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18
Q

Which disorder of phosphorus homeostasis is caused by tumor lysis syndrome and why?

A

Hyperphosphatemia, due to lysis of large numbers of tumor cells and release of intracellular phosphorus

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19
Q

The resting energy requirement (RER) is the number of calories required for maintaining homeostasis at rest in a thermoneutral environment. How do you calculate the RER?

A

RER = 70x (current body weight in kg)^0.75 or for animals between 2 and 30kg: RER = (30 x current body weight in kg) + 70

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21
Q

In healthy animals, plasma HCO3- concentration is maintained by the conservation and production of NaHCO3 by which structure in which organ?

A

Renal tubules

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21
Q

A fracture line perpendicular to the long axis of the bone characterizes which type of fracture?

A

Transverse fracture

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22
Q

During surgical ligation of a patent ductus arteriosus, which side of the ductus should be ligated first?

A

Aortic, because higher pressures are present on the aortic side.

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23
Q

The female dog and cat have which type of placentation?

A

Zonary

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24
Q

Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is the glandular stomach?

A

Abomasum

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25
Q

Clostridium Difficile diarrhea is often associated with which inciting risk factor/predisposing cause?

A

Antibiotic therapy

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26
Q

What are the toxic components of chocolate?

A

Two methylxanthine alkaloids: Theobromine and caffeine

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27
Q

What is the medical term for straining to defecate?

A

Tenesmus

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28
Q

Name the photodynamic compound that is involved in cases of hepatogenic photosensitization.

A

Phylloerythrin

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29
Q

Name the two endogenous compounds most commonly associated with pigment nephropathy.

A

Myoglobin, hemoglobin; their presence in high concentrations in blood is associated with renal tubular damage.

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30
Q

Antibiotics are often used for preventing which potentially life threatening complication in patients with acute hemorrhagic diarrhea?

A

Sepsis or septicemia, because hemorrhage suggests compromise of gastrointestinal mucosal integrity.

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31
Q

Observing the pupillary light reflex tests which cranial nerves?

A

CN II and III (Optic and Oculomotor, respectively)

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32
Q

You give your patient a subcutaneous injection of maropitant. What are you treating? Is this the correct route of administration?

A

Nausea/vomiting. Maropitant is a centrally-acting (NK-1 antagonist) antiemetic drug, and it can be given orally or subcutaneously.

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33
Q

Which nerve is anesthetized to block motor function to the dorsal eyelid of a horse undergoing an ophthalmic exam, and from which cranial nerve does it originate?

A

Auriculopalpebral nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)

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34
Q

How many pairs of ribs do ferrets normally have?

A

15 (Some have 14 on one side and 15 on the other.)

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35
Q

What is the normal life span if the canine red blood cell?

A

100-120 days

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36
Q

What is the name of the interneurons of the spinal cord that are affected by tetanus toxin?

A

Renshaw cells

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37
Q

Which suture material remains in the body the longest amongst the following?

A) Polypropylene
B) Polydioxanone
C) Chromic gut

A

A) Polypropylene, which is non-absorbable

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38
Q

Name the two nerves that innervate the male canine bladder and prostate.

A

Hypogastric (sympathetic) and pelvic (parasympathetic)

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39
Q

How many milliliters of a 5 mg/mL medication should be given to a 20kg animal if the desired dose is 2 mg/kg?

A

8 mL. (2 mg/kg x 20 kg = 40 mg. 40mg requires 8mL of a 5 mg/mL solution)

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40
Q

In mammals, what is the percentage of cardiac output that the two kidneys receive?

A

Approximately 25%

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41
Q

The amino acid structure of canine insulin is identical to that of which other mammal?

A

Porcine (which explains the preference for pork-based or pork-analog (Caninsulin) for treatment of diabetic dogs).

42
Q

Congenital valvular pulmonic stenosis results in which type of hypertrophy and in which ventricle does it occur?

A

Concentric right ventricular hypertrophy

43
Q

Fluid accumulation, tissue damage, and bacterial contamination in a wound necessitate the use of which principle of wound management?

A

Establishment of wound drainage (also decontamination, and debridement if compromised tissues are present).

44
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for the dog?

A

2 x (I 3/3; C 1/1; P 4/4; M 3/2) = 42 teeth

45
Q

Which zoonotic disease should the clinician be aware of when examining a cat with lymphadenopathy, signs of respiratory infection, and a recent history of having traveled to Arizona?

A

Plague (Yersinia pestis)

46
Q

Is a patient with cardiac tamponade more likely to present with signs consistent with right- or left-sided congestive heart failure?

A

Right-sided congestive heart failure, because right-sided intracardiac pressures are lower

47
Q

A Holstein cow has an 8-cm smooth, flocculent mass noted by the herdsman to be protruding intermittently from the vulva. Aspiration reveals thick, slightly cloudy mucus. The cow otherwise is well. What is your diagnosis?

A

Cystic Bartholin’s (vestibular) gland. Likely due to ductal obstruction in one of the two glands in the vestibule and rarely a clinical problem; it is easily lanced if too large.

48
Q

Which type of nut can cause neurologic signs such as whole body tremors when it is ingested by dogs?

A

The macadamia nut

49
Q

Do small mammals (‘‘pocket pets’’) usually require higher or lower doses of anesthetics compared to dogs and cats?

A

Higher, due to higher metabolic rate

50
Q

What is the sound-producing organ in birds which is located at the bifurcation of the trachea?

A

Syrinx

51
Q

An animal tests positive for a given disease. The specificity of the test is 95%. The incidence of disease in the area is 1 in 1000. What is the likelihood that the animal has the disease?

A

2%. A test with 95% specificity yields 5% false positive results. 5% of 999 animals (about 50) will have false positive results. Because 1 in 1000 have disease, only 1 in those 50 animals (i.e. 2%) with a positive test result will have the disease.

52
Q

Name two mechanisms by which medical therapy is effective for the treatment of glaucoma.

A

1) Decreasing aqueous humor production (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, beta blocker, etc.)
2) Increasing aqueous humor outflow (prostaglandin analog, parasympathomimetics, etc.)

53
Q

What are the 3 cell types found in bone? What do they do?

A

1) Osteoblasts (Synthesis of osteoid bone matrix)
2) Osteocytes (Develop from osteoblasts once matrix is mineralized and become part of the bone matrix)
3) Osteoclasts (Osteolysis)

54
Q

Which ligaments in the thoracic spinal column keep the thoracic intervertebral discs in situ?

A

The intercapital ligaments (present at T1-2 to T9-10)

55
Q

Which nerve provides somatic innervation to the external urethral sphincter?

A

Pudendal nerve

56
Q

Name the 2 organ systems that are most commonly responsible for acute clinical signs of systemic hypertension in cats and dogs.

A

1) Ocular (Vision loss due to retinal detachment or hemorrhage, or hyphema)
2) Central nervous system (Behavior change, ataxia, asymmetrical cranial nerve deficits, seizures due to intracranial hemorrhage)

57
Q

Which organ is susceptible to damage in horses that ingest the bovine coccidiostat monensin?

A

Striated muscle: The heart and skeletal muscle (ionophore toxicosis)

58
Q

Observing symmetry of eye position and pupils tests which cranial nerves?

A

CN III, IV, and VI (Oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens, respectively)

59
Q

Which intestinal layer has the greatest tensile strength and should be included when suturing the intestine?

A

The submucosa

60
Q

Name a diagnosis for which the optimal treatment is implantation of a cardiac pacemaker.

A

Sick sinus syndrome (sinus node dysfunction), third degree atrioventricular (AV) block, high grade second-degree AV block, or atrial standstill.

61
Q

Some animals with a persistent right aortic arch may also have a continuous heart murmur. What is the most likely cause for this murmur?

A

A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). The persistent right aortic arch itself does not cause a murmur.

62
Q

In addition to causing paralysis of the limb and loss of sensation distal to the elbow, a complete brachial plexus avulsion typically causes 2 other neurological deficits. What are they?

A

1) Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (T1-3; sympathetic nerve)
2) Loss of cutaneous trunci reflex (C8, T1; lateral thoracic nerve)

63
Q

Cats treated with enrofloxacin doses of 5 mg/kg or more may experience irreversible toxicosis. What is the manifestation of this toxicosis?

A

Blindness (Irreversible retinal degeneration)

64
Q

Cranial nerve IV, the trochlear nerve, is the motor pathway to a single muscle only. Which one is it?

A

Dorsal oblique muscle of the eye.

65
Q

List the four most likely mechanisms to explain arterial hypoxemia in an animal breathing room air.

A

1) Ventilation/perfusion mismatching (V/Q mismatch)
2) Hypoventilation
3) Extrapulmonary (right-to-left) shunts
4) Diffusion impairment

66
Q

Dietary microangiopathy is a result of ___________________ deficiency.

A

Selenium-Vitamin E

67
Q

What is the name of the cutaneous manifestation of anaphylaxis consisting of pruritic wheals?

A

Urticaria (hives)

68
Q

What is the normal range of urine pH in carnivores?

A

5.5 to 7.5

69
Q

What differentiates hiatal hernia from gastroesophageal (G-E) intussusception?

A

Hiatal hernia: Protrusion of the stomach into the thorax alongside the esophagus
G-E intussusception: Eversion of the stomach INTO the esophagus

70
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for the modification and coordination of body movements so that they are fluid in nature?

A

The cerebellum

71
Q

What is the geographical endemic region of coccidioidomycosis in North America?

A

Southwestern United States, Mexico

72
Q

Which serious hematologic complication can occur in an animal with heatstroke?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

73
Q

List 4 nerves or neurological structures involved in the menace response.

A

1) Retina
2) Optic nerve (CN II)
3) Medulla
4) Cerebral cortex
5) Cerebellum
6) Facial nerve (CN VII)

74
Q

The cow and ewe have which type of placentation?

A

Cotyledonary

75
Q

In cases of uveitis, which drug is used for controlling ocular pain and to prevent synechiae through mydriasis?

A

Atropine

76
Q

What is the product of heart rate and stroke volume?

A

Cardiac output. In turn, cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance determine blood pressure.

77
Q

What is the major cat-to-cat mode of transmission of Bartonella spp.?

A

Arthropod vectors (Especially the cat flea, Ctenocephalides felis felis).

78
Q

San Joaquin Valley fever is caused by which fungus?

A

Coccidioides immitis

79
Q

During cervical exploratory surgery, your absent-minded colleague is about to excise 4 thyroid ‘‘nodules’’ when you step in and prevent the removal of which normal structures?

A

The parathyroid glands

80
Q

A young cat in a single-cat household stalks its owners and bites their hands and feet when moving. This cat is said to be exhibiting which type of aggression?

A

Play aggression

81
Q

Which mechanisms lead to benefit from bone grafting at a fracture site?

A

Osteogenesis, osteoinduction, osteoconduction

82
Q

Which 2 surgical goals must be achieved for successful arthrodesis of a joint?

A

Complete removal of articular cartilage and rigid stabilization of the joint

83
Q

Are acquires portosystemic shunts usually single or multiple in nature?

A

Multiple. They are portosystemic anastomoses that normally are closed, but become patent due to portal hypertension.

84
Q

Where is the majority of sodium reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

The proximal convoluted tubule

85
Q

A Holtz-Celsus surgical technique is used for treating which common ocular condition?

A

Entropion

86
Q

Virchow’s triad includes which 3 abnormalities?

A

1) Hypercoagulability
2) Vascular injury
3) Abnormal blood flow
These factors determine the predisposition to blood clot formation.

87
Q

Over what time period do rapidly-administered intravenous crystalloid fluids leave the vasculature (dispersing into the interstitium), and which fluid type can be given concurrently to offset this effect?

A

Within one hour; Colloids.

88
Q

Even though they are completely different structures, this name is synonymous with a horse’s interosseous muscle, and the structure that needs to be torn to provide better access to a dog’s ovary during ovariohysterectomy.

A

Suspensory ligament

89
Q

What is the medical term that describes difficulty in swallowing?

A

Dysphagia

90
Q

Which group of substances, secreted from functional pheochromocytomas, is responsible for the resulting clinical signs?

A

Catecholamines (e.g. epinephrine/norepinephrine)

91
Q

This zoonotic disease results in slow growing cysts in the liver, lungs, and other organs of affected people.

A

Echinococcosis (Hyatid cyst disease)

92
Q

Conduction velocity of electrical impulses is highest in which specific cardiac tissue?

A

Purkinje system

93
Q

Exotic Newcastle disease virus causes which hallmark clinical sign in humans?

A

Conjunctivitis

94
Q

In addition to 2-3 cm margins, what other surgical recommendation is paramount when resecting a mast cell tumor?

A

Excision should include at least one fascial plane beyond the apparent extent of the tumor, Also, minimal manipulation of the tumor to avoid degranulation.

95
Q

Which disorder of globe (eyeball) movement is seen with central but not peripheral vestibular dysfunction?

A

Vertical nystagmus (horizontal and rotary nystagmus can occur in both). Also acceptable: Nystagmus that changes in direction with changes in head position.

96
Q

The entire length of the canine esophagus contains which type of muscle: smooth or striated?

A

Striated. Thus, promotility drugs (which act on smooth muscle) are expected to have minimal or no beneficial effect on esophageal motility in canine megaesophagus cases.

97
Q

What is the primary force counteracted by the presence of an intramedullary pin in a transverse femoral fracture?

A

Bending

98
Q

What is the difference between torsion and volvulus?

A

Torsion: Twisting along the long axis of the organ
Volvulus: Twisting perpendicular to the long axis of the organ

99
Q

Which class of drug, used in estrus suppression, has potential adverse effects that include: diabetes mellitus, acromegaly, and adrenocortical suppression?

A

Progestins (e.g. megestrol acetate)

100
Q

The nuchal ligament is absent in this domestic animal species.

A

The cat.

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 (6 decks)

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